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Worksheets

SCIENCE REVIEWER

Total questions: 176

Worksheet time: 2hrs 11mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

It is the rate of doing work?

a)

Energy

b)

Power

c)

Work

d)

Wave

2.

The effect of splitting white light to show the colors.

a)

Diffraction

b)

Spectrum

c)

Dispersion

d)

Light wave

3.

A wave that triggers a response in our ears.

a)

Light

b)

Wave

c)

Sound

d)

Colors

4.

The range of frequencies and wavelengths of visible light that can be spread over an arrangement.

a)

Spectrum

b)

Sound

c)

Current

d)

Voltage

5.

It is the study and measurement of heat.

a)

Energy

b)

Temperature

c)

Calorimetry

d)

Current

6.

It is the rate of flow of electric charge.

a)

Power

b)

Voltage

c)

Current

d)

Electricity

7.

Work and all forms of energy are expressed in what unit?

a)

Newton

b)

Grams

c)

Joules

d)

Hertz

8.

It is a contract force that serves to slow down a moving object or prevent motion altogether.

a)

Dispersion

b)

Potential

c)

Friction

d)

Current

9.

What is the standard unit of force?

a)

Joules

b)

Newton

c)

Hertz

d)

J/s

10.

Is a quantity that shows how much inertia an object has.

a)

weight

b)

mass

c)

density

d)

volume

11.

Also called as electric potential ?

a)

Power

b)

Voltage

c)

Energy

d)

Wave

12.

It keeps stationary objects from sliding against each other.

a)

Electrostatic Friction

b)

Kinetic Friction

c)

Static Friction

d)

Potential Friction

13.

Which of the following is an example of an object in equilibrium?

a)

A free-falling body

b)

A marathoner at the finish line

c)

A taxi leaving as soon as the traffic light turns green

d)

A space probe moving in a deep space with all the engines shutdown.

14.

How does an air conditioner cool a room?

a)

By conduction

b)

convection

c)

radiation

d)

all of the above

15.

Which medium would sound travel the slowest?

a)

A wall

b)

Sea water

c)

helium

d)

fluid

16.

Sound unlike light cannot be propagated in a

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

d)

vacuum

17.

Sound waves in solids,liquids and gases are all propagated through

a)

illusion

b)

infusion

c)

imagination

d)

vibration

18.

Which of the phases of matter does sound waves travels fastest

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Vacuum

19.

Which of the phases of matter does sound waves travel slow

a)

Solid

b)

Liquid

c)

Gas

d)

Vacuum

20.

When the temperature is high in a solid object what happens to the vibration of the sound waves

a)

vibrates fast

b)

vibrates slow

c)

no vibration

d)

temperature does not affect the movement of the sound waves

21.

The following features are found only in animal cell.

a)

Cell Wall

b)

Chloroplast

c)

Central Vacuole

d)

Lysosome

22.

What is the function of the nucleus?

a)

Power house of the cell

b)

Control center of the cell

c)

Waste collector in the cell

d)

Protein factory in the cell

23.

It provide the cell with energy.

a)

Vesicle

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Nucleus

d)

Vacuole

24.

Jelly-like substance found inside cell that acts as a medium for chemical reactions within the cell.

a)

Cytoplasm

b)

Golgi Body

c)

Nuclear Membrane

d)

Ribosomes

25.

A community of living and non-living things in their natural environment makes up a _______.

a)

Ecosystem

b)

Population

c)

Biosphere

d)

Food Web

26.

An organism that gets energy from eating other organisms is a __________.

a)

Consumer

b)

Decomposer

c)

Prey

d)

Producer

27.

It is an organism that gets energy from breaking down dead organisms, non-living material or waste.

a)

Autotroph

b)

Consumer

c)

Decomposer

d)

Producer

28.

What is the basic unit of life?

a)

Atom

b)

Cell

c)

Organ

d)

Tissue

29.

The first step in the scientific method is to _________.

a)

ask a question

b)

conduct an experiment

c)

form a hypothesis

d)

state the conclusion

30.

The offspring from asexually reproduces organisms are?

a)

A different species

b)

Different from their parents

c)

Identical to parents

d)

Combination of both parents

31.

At 100 degrees celsius, what happens to water?

a)

It condenses.

b)

It freezes.

c)

It melts.

d)

It boils.

32.

Which of the following is a characteristic of liquids?

a)

Molecules are tightly packed.

b)

Takes the shape of its container.

c)

Constantly takes it shape.

d)

Molecules are spread apart.

33.

1.Prime Meridian or Greenwich Meridian is the 0 º line of longitude from which it measures 180 ºto the west and 180º to the east. What term refers to the imaginary lines parallel to the prime meridian?

a)

Equator

b)

International Date Line

c)

Lines of Meridian or longitude

d)

. Tropic of Cancer

34.

4. Soils were once rocks and Ores are rock deposits that contain large amounts of minerals. Which of the following metals is produced by a metallic ore?

a)

Iron

b)

Quartz

c)

Sulfur

d)

Talc

35.

5. Renewable energy resources are the energy sources that can be replenished for a short period of time. Which of the following examples is classified as renewable energy resources?

a)

Coal

b)

Geothermal

c)

Crude Oil

d)

Natural Gas

36.

6. Everyday our weather condition changed. What layers of the atmosphere where weather occurs?

a)

Mesosphere

b)

Stratosphere

c)

Thermosphere

d)

Troposphere

37.

7.Many people are amazed by the auroras or Northern Lights. In what layer of atmosphere does this spectacular views from the sky happen?

a)

Exosphere

b)

Mesosphere

c)

Thermosphere

d)

Troposphere.

38.

8.Which fossil fuel has the highest contribution to carbon dioxide concentration in the atmosphere?

a)

Coal

b)

LPG

c)

Natural Gas

d)

. Petroleum

39.

10.In what type of resources do oil, gas and petroleum belong?

a)

Energy

b)

Minerals

c)

Non -renewable

d)

Renewable

40.

11 Earth’s atmosphere contains gases such as carbon dioxide, water vapor methane and ozone. What is the effect of these gases on the Sun’s rays?

a)

They allow sunlight to pass through, resulting in the warming up of the Earth’s surface.

b)

They allow the sunlight to be reflected back to outer space.

c)

They have no effect to the sunlight.

d)

They block most of the sun’s ray.

41.

12.During daytime, the Earth’s surface become warmer because of the sun. What happens to the warm air on the surface of the Earth?

a)

The warm air moves in a cooler place.

b)

The warm air moves in one direction.

c)

The warm air rises.

d)

The warm air sinks.

42.

13.What happens to the movement of air during sea breeze?

a)

The air above the land moves into sea and replaces the sinking air.

b)

The air above the sea moves into the land and replaces the rising air.

c)

The air above the land moves into the sea and replaces the rising air.

d)

The air above the sea moves into the land and replaces the sinking air.

43.

14. Which of the statements is TRUE about Amihan?

a)

Amihan happens from June to September.

b)

Amihan happens from August to December.

c)

Amihan comes from the northeast and moves towards the east.

d)

Amihan comes from the northeast and moves towards the south.

44.

15.Which of the following does NOT describe the effect of ITCZ?

a)

It generates gentle winds over large areas.

b)

Longer term changes resulted severe droughts or flooding.

c)

It helps in the formation of cyclone because it is a zone of wind change and speed.

d)

It affects rainfall in equatorial region due to the variation of location resulting in the wet and dry seasons of the tropics rather than the cold and warm seasons of higher latitudes.

45.

16.Sea breezes occur during hot, summer days because of the unequal heating rates of land and water. During the day, the land surface heats up (a)   than the water surface.

46.

17.The Philippine Deep is the second deepest part of water on Earth. Where is the Philippine Deep located?

(a)  

47.

What gas makes up 21% of the Earth atmosphere?

(a)  

48.

It is the average weather in a given area over a longer period of time.

(a)  

49.

20.The geologic structures found near the location of the metallic deposits in the Philippines are trenches, faults, and volcanoes. Active volcano found in Zambales is Mt. Pinatubo. What metal is abundant in Zambales?

(a)  

50.
The motion of the Earth shown in the image is responsible for -
a)
Seasons
b)
Day and night
51.
The motion of the Earth shown in the image is responsible for -
a)
Seasons
b)
Day and night
52.
In this diagram, the motion of the Earth can best be described as -
a)
Rotation
b)
Revolution
53.
In this simple diagram, the motion of both the Earth and Moon can be described as -
a)
Rotation
b)
Revolution
54.
Revolution
a)
Causes seasons
b)
Causes day and night
55.
Rotation
a)
Causes day and night
b)
Causes seasons
56.

If today is the 1st and we view a New Moon, on what date will we observe a Full Moon?

a)

8th

b)

15th

c)

22nd

d)

29th

57.

What moon would you expect to see on March 23rd?

a)
b)
c)
d)
58.

Name the phase of the moon for letter h.

a)

Waning Gibbous

b)

Waxing Gibbous

c)

Waning Crescent

d)

Waxing Crescent

59.
Which moon phase is a waning crescent?
a)
A
b)
B
c)
C
d)
D
60.

What do we call the type of tide with small tidal ranges that happen when the sun and moon are at right angles to each other?

a)
Neap Tide
b)
Spring Tide
c)
Larger Change
d)
Smaller Change
61.
What type of tide will occur at 9:30 a.m.?
a)
low 
b)
high 
c)
none
d)
high and low
62.
Which phase of the moon is represented in this diagram?
a)
new moon
b)
first quarter
c)
full moon
d)
last quarter/third quarter
63.

What type of tide would this arrangement of earth-moon-sun create?

a)
full moon tide
b)
new moon tide
c)
neap tide
d)
spring tide
64.

What is a high tide?

a)

Sea pulled TOWARD the moon where Earth is CLOSEST to the moon

b)

Sea pulled AWAY from the moon where Earth is FARTHEST to the moon

c)

Sea pulled AWAY from the moon where Earth is CLOSEST to the moon

65.

As the _____ revolves around the Earth and Earth rotates, the tidal bulge moves around the Earth.

a)

moon

b)

sun

c)

Earth

d)

ocean

66.

Tides are caused by the difference in the gravitational force of the ________ and ________ across the ________.

a)

earth, sun, moon

b)

sun, mars, jupiter

c)

sun, moon, earth

d)

tide, water, sun

67.

The tidal force exerted by the ______ is stronger that the tidal force exerted by the _______ because it is much closer.

a)

earth, ocean

b)

sun, moon

c)

moon, stars

d)

moon, sun

68.

When vinegar and baking soda are combined, bubbles begin to form. Explain how the formation of bubbles is evidence of a chemical reaction.

a)

Bubbles are cool.

b)

Bubbles are evidence of a chemical reaction because they indicate that a solid was formed.

c)

Bubbles are REALLY cool

d)

Bubbles are evidence of a chemical reaction because they indicate that gas was formed.

69.

Scenario: When Juan got home from school, he noticed a foul smell coming from the kitchen. He decided to investigate the smell and found fruit sitting on the counter. There was evidence that a chemical reaction had occurred. When he looked at the fruit, he saw that it had turned brown and was soft to the touch.

Question: What is EVIDENCE that supports the claim that a chemical reaction took place?

a)

It looked gross.

b)

It changed color, smelled bad, and turned soft.

c)

It did not taste good.

d)

It smelled bad and turned soft.

70.
Identify the reactant(s) and product(s) of the reaction.
a)
All three are reactants and none are products.
b)
Hydrogen and water are the reactants, and oxygen is the product.
c)
Water and oxygen are the reactants, and hydrogen is the product.
d)
Hydrogen and oxygen are the reactants, and water is the product.
71.

1. How is a chemical change different from a physical change?

a)

there is no difference

b)

a physical change creates a new substance

c)

a chemical change creates a new substance

72.

A student observes some sugar as it is heated and burns. The student concludes that a chemical reaction has occurred. Which of the following observations about the burning sugar provides evidence of a chemical reaction?

a)

Heat is added to the sugar crystals.

b)

The sugar melts and becomes a liquid.

c)

Gas is produced as the sugar turns black.

d)

No evidence of chemical reaction is present.

73.
In a chemical reaction, bonds are broken and new bonds are formed that create new substances. The bonds that are broken are called what?
a)
Reactants
b)
Products
c)
Atoms
d)
Catalysts
74.
Which is the name of the kind of solid substance formed in this figure?  
a)
aqueous 
b)
precipitate
c)
acid
d)
synthesis 
75.
Which is NOT a form of matter??
a)
atom
b)
element
c)
energy
d)
compound
76.
What is the electrical charge of a proton?
a)
Positive
b)
Negative
c)
Neutral
77.

Which of the following is NOT true about the periodic table?

a)

Atomic mass is equal to the number of neutrons.

b)

Elements listed by their (increasing) atomic mass.

c)

Groups are the elements listed in columns.

d)

Periods are the elements listed in rows of 8 (for most rows).

78.
If a Carbon atom has 6 protons, how many electrons will it have?
a)
2
b)
4
c)
6
d)
8
79.
_______ and _______ are located inside of the nucleus.
a)
Electrons and Protons
b)
Protons and Neutrons
c)
Neutrons and Electrons
80.
What charge does a neutron have?
a)
+1
b)
-1
c)
No charge
81.
Is Potassuim (K) a metal, non-metal, or a metalloid?
a)
Metal
b)
Non-Metal
c)
Metalloid
d)
Other
82.

How are elements organized in the periodic table ?

a)

Alphabetically

b)

Based on physical and chemical properties

c)

Increasing number of electrons

d)

Most reactive to least reactive

83.

Which accurately describes nonmetals?

a)

Poor conductors of electricity

b)

Often used in computer parts

c)

Both malleable and ductile

d)

Both dull and brittle

84.

Which group on the periodic table is the most reactive?

a)

Group 1

b)

Group 2

c)

Group 13

d)

Group 18

85.

The atomic mass of nitrogen is

a)

7

b)

14.007

c)

21.007

d)

Cannot be known from the given

86.

The number of protons in a sulfur atom is

a)

0

b)

16

c)

32

d)

None of the above answers

87.
How many protons does chlorine have?
a)
35
b)
17
c)
18
d)
4
88.
Which group of elements have both metal and non-metal characteristics?
a)
lanthanides
b)
metalloids
c)
actinides
d)
noble gases
89.
Particles of all matter are in constant random motion.
a)
True
b)
False
90.

The particles of solids ________________

a)

vibrate about their fixed postions

b)

are able to slide over each other

c)

move about freely at high speeds and in random direction

d)

do not move

91.

Arrange the strength of the forces of attraction between the particles of solids, liquids and gases from the strongest to weakest

a)

(strongest) gases > liquids > solids (weakest)

b)

(strongest) solids > liquids > gases (weakest)

c)

(strongest) gases > solids > liquids (weakest)

d)

(strongest) solids > gases > liquids (weakest)

92.

Why does solid has a fixed shape?

a)

The particles are held by very strong forces of attraction. They can only vibrate about their fixed position. Hence, they have an orderly arrangement.

b)

The particles are held by weak forces of attraction. They can move rapidly in all directions. Hence, they have an disorderly arrangement.

c)

The particles are held by strong forces of attraction. They can slide over one another. Hence, they have an disorderly arrangement.

93.
Which of the following substances did Robert Brown observed upon forming the concept of Brownian motion?
a)
Talc powder suspended in water
b)
Pollen grains suspended in water
c)
Talc powder suspended in air
d)
Pollen grains suspended in air
94.

What is the smallest unit of matter? It is composed of protons and neutrons, held together in the nucleus, and electrons around the nucleus in different electron orbitals, which form an electron cloud.

a)

cell

b)

nucleus

c)

atom

d)

electron

95.

What is the system of electrons surrounding the nucleus of an atom?

a)

valence electrons

b)

nucleus

c)

electrons

d)

electron cloud

96.

What is the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom that determines the chemical properties of an atom?

a)

mass number

b)

atomic mass

c)

atomic number

d)

atomic symbol

97.

What is the combined mass of all the protons and neutrons of an atom and is approximately equal to the number of protons and neutrons?

a)

atomic mass

b)

atomic number

c)

subatomic particles

d)

nucleus weight

98.

The number 16 for the atomic element sulfur is the

a)

ionic number

b)

isotope

c)

atomic mass

d)

atomic number

99.

How many protons does sulfur have?

a)

32

b)

16

c)

48

d)

12

100.

How many electrons does sulfur have

a)

16

b)

32

c)

48

d)

12

101.
The mass number of an element that has 18 protons, 18 electrons, and 19 neutrons is _____.
a)
12.5
b)
13
c)
25
d)
37
102.
If the number of electrons in an atom changes you make a(n) __________________.
a)
ion
b)
isotope
c)
new element
d)
isomer
103.
The horizontal row on the periodic table is called a
a)
group
b)
family
c)
period
d)
atomic number
104.
A vertical column is called...
a)
group
b)
tower
c)
period
d)
crew
105.

Elements which are shiny, malleable, and good conductors of electricity and heat are called

a)

metals

b)

nonmetals

c)

metalloids

106.

Which group of the periodic table is composed of inert (not reactive) gases?

a)

alkali metals

b)

alkaline earth metals

c)

halogens

d)

noble gases

107.

The atoms along the staircase are called

a)

metals

b)

nonmetals

c)

metalloids

d)

noble gases

108.

Found in group 1 of the periodic table; highly reactive

a)

Halogens

b)

Noble Gases

c)

Alkali Metals

d)

Transition Metals

109.

This element has two valence electrons and two energy levels?

a)

Beryllium (Be)

b)

Lithium (Li)

c)

Zinc (Zn)

d)

Calcium (Ca)

110.

Found in group 17 of the periodic table; highly reactive nonmetals

a)

Alkali Metals

b)

Alkaline Earth Metals

c)

Halogens

d)

Noble Gases

111.
What was Dmitri Mendeleev's greatest contribution to the history of the periodic table?
a)
He arranged all of the known elements by their atomic number
b)
He realised that there was a pattern of reactivity which repeated every 8 elements
c)
He predicted the existence (and properties) of new elements
d)
He identified the "law of triads" which became the groups
112.
What electron configuration matches an oxygen atom?
a)
1s22s22p63s2, 3p64s23d104p5
b)
1s22s22p4
c)
1s22s22p6
d)
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d1
113.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d10
a)
Zinc
b)
Copper
c)
Nickel
d)
Germanium
114.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s22s22p63s23p64s23d10
a)
Zinc
b)
Copper
c)
Nickel
d)
Germanium
115.
What atom matches this electron configuration?
1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2
a)
Neon
b)
Magnesium
c)
Aluminum
d)
Potassium
116.
What is the electron configuration for this atom?
a)
1s22s22p6
b)
1s22s22p5
c)
1s22s22p3
d)
2s22p3
117.

Which of the given pictures shows that work can not done?

a)
b)
c)
118.

Food has _________ energy.

a)

Chemical

b)

Kinetic

c)

None of the these

d)

Elastic potential energy

119.

When does an object have no kinetic energy?

a)

When it's at rest.

b)

When it's moving very slowly.

c)

When the only force that's acting on it is gravity.

d)

When it has no electrical charge.

120.

Energy stored because of gravity is called:

a)

Gravitational Potential Energy

b)

Kinetic Energy

c)

Mechanical Advantage

d)

Chemical Energy

121.

Conservation of energy means that

a)

energy can be created but not destroyed

b)

energy can be destroyed but not created

c)

energy can both be created and destroyed

d)

energy can neither be created nor destroyed

122.

What type of energy transformation occurs when using an electric pencil sharpener?

a)

electrical to mechanical

b)

sound to electrical

c)

mechanical to electrical

d)

potential to sound

123.

What energy transformation occurs when a crock pot is plugged into an outlet and then the control knob is turned "on"?

a)

thermal to electrical

b)

mechanical to thermal

c)

electrical to thermal

d)

electrical to sound

124.

What type of energy transformation occurs when a hawk eats a mouse and then uses that energy to fly?

a)

chemical to mechanical

b)

mechanical to chemical

c)

thermal to mechanical

d)

mechanical to thermal

125.

What type of energy transformation happens in hydro-electric power?

a)

kinetic to potential

b)

sound to mechanical

c)

chemical to electrical

d)

mechanical to electrical

126.

Which is a disadvantage of solar power?

a)

solar power is unclean

b)

reduces the need for fossil fuels

c)

can only be collected when the sun is shining

d)

in nonrenewable

127.

Energy that transfers heat is?

a)

Thermal energy

b)

Potential energy

c)

Mechanical energy

d)

Kinetic energy

128.

Which object shows an energy transformation from electrical to mechanical?

a)
b)
c)
d)
129.

Jack has a weight of 600 N and sits 2 m from the pivot of see-saw. Jill ha a weight of 450 N sits 1.5 m from pivot. Who will move down?

a)

Jack

b)

Jill

c)

John

130.

The turning effect of force on a door will be the highest when?

a)

Point far from the hinges and perpendicular

b)

Point near the hinges and perpendicular

c)

Point far from the hinges and parallel

d)

point near from the hinges and parallel

131.

A moment of force cause an object to?

a)

Turn about fixed point

b)

Move forward

c)

Move backward

132.

What will be the effect if we use longer lever?

a)

It will increase the moment

b)

It will decrease the moment

c)

The moment is not influence by the length of lever

133.

In definition the moment of force is the product of the __________ and the _______________ from the line of action to the pivot.

a)

Force and distance

b)

Energy and distance

c)

Speed and time

d)

Momentum and distance

134.

The turning effect of force is called?

a)

Moment of Force

b)

Momentum of Force

135.

You and your friend are playing tug of war. Your friend pulls with a force of 55 N to the right. You pull with a force of 65 N to the left. What is the net force on the rope?

a)

20 N left

b)

20 N right

c)

10 N left

d)

10 N right

136.

which of the following is not an example for effects of force?

a)
b)
c)
d)
137.
If these boys are pulling with the same amount of force.  What will happen?
a)
The boy in blue will win.
b)
They will not move at all.
c)
The boy in red will win.
d)
Both will fall down.
138.

What is weight?

a)

The amount of matter in an object

b)

The measurement of force placed on an object due to the acceleration of gravity acting on the object's mass

139.

What is mass?

a)

The amount of matter in an object

b)

The measurement of force placed on an object due to the acceleration of gravity acting on the object's mass

140.
What is the correct equation for calculating a force? 
a)
force = perpendicular distance x moment 
b)
force = moment / perpendicular distance
c)
force = perpendicular distance / moment
141.
What happens when two forces act in the same direction?
a)
They cancel each other out.
b)
The stronger one prevails.
c)
Their strengths are added.
d)
Their sum divided by the two is the total force.
142.

Which one will loosened a nut more easily?

a)

a short spanner because a larger turning effect can be produced.

b)

a long spanner because a larger turning effect can be produced.

c)

a long spanner because a larger force can be produced.

d)

a short spanner because a larger force can be produced.

143.
A wrench is used to tighten a nut. A 15N perpendicular force is applied 50cm away from the axis of rotation, and moves a distance of 10 cm as it turns. What is the torque applied to the wrench?
a)
7.5 Nm
b)
1.5 Nm
c)
750 Nm
d)
150 Nm
144.

What is the unit of moment f force?

a)

N

b)

m

c)

Nm

d)

N/m

145.
Moment is a quantity that tells turning effect of a force about turning point. 
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
146.

What is the unit of force?

a)

Meter

b)

Centimeter

c)

Newton

147.

2. The imaginary line perpendicular to the mirror is called the

a)

Incident ray

b)

reflected ray

c)

normal line

148.

3. The angle between the reflected ray and the normal line is called the:

a)

Angle of incidence

b)

Angle of reflection

c)

angle of convergent

149.

When does the light is refracted?

a)

When light travels in a straight line

b)

When light is bounced

c)

When light travels in two different mediums

d)

When light cannot pass through an opaque object

150.

Diagram shows the condition of a spoon in a glass of water.

What can be observed about the spoon?

a)

The spoon looks bent.

b)

The water is clearer.

c)

The water level rises.

d)

Light is refracted.

151.

What is the conclusion from your observation in this picture?

a)

Light travels in a straight line

b)

Light can be refracted

c)

Light can be reflected

d)

Light can pass through a transparent material

152.
How does light behave as it enters these mediums?
a)
continue its path as straight line.
b)
bends toward the normal
c)
bends away from the normal
d)
reflects
153.
Swimming pools and the ocean look shallower than they really are due to:
a)
reflection 
b)
dispersion
c)
refraction
d)
total internal reflection
154.

Light passes into a glass block. Which is the angle of refraction?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

155.
Light changes speed as it travels through various mediums.  What are examples of mediums that light can travel through.
a)
snow and ice
b)
air and water
c)
cloth and wood
d)
glass and wood
156.

What direction does the ray bend when entering a more optically dense material, where the wave travels more slowly?

a)

Towards the normal.

b)

Away from the normal.

c)

No change.

d)

Answer is not listed above.

157.
This shows the phenomenon known as....
a)
reflection
b)
refraction
c)
mirrors
d)
focal point
158.

Which of the following shows the principle of light refraction? Tick the correct answers.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

D

d)

E

e)

F

159.

Refraction is when light__________.

a)

Is bounced by an object or material.

b)

Changes speed as it travels in different materials which causes bending.

c)

When light speeds up to over 300,000 km/s

160.
Light bending as it passes from one medium (object) to another is...
a)
Refraction
b)
Reflection
161.

A ray of light in air is incident at an angle on one side of a rectangular glass block, as shown. Which ray diagram correctly describes the complete path of the ray of light?


(Determine if light bends towards or away from normal at each boundary)

a)
b)
c)
d)
162.

SI unit of force (a)  

163.

If the speed of an object is increasing, its (a)   energy store is increasing.

164.
The ability to do work or cause change.
a)
energy
b)
combustion
c)
matter
d)
work
165.
Energy that an object has due to its motion.
a)
potential energy
b)
kinetic energy
c)
energy
d)
force
166.
Stored energy that results from the position or shape of an object.
a)
mechanical energy
b)
thermal energy
c)
potential energy
d)
kinetic energy
167.
Potential energy that depends on the height of an object.
a)
potential energy
b)
gravitational potential energy
c)
thermal energy
d)
kinetic energy
168.
The energy of stressed or compressed objects.
a)
elastic potential energy
b)
mechanical energy
c)
potential energy
d)
gravitational potential energy
169.

Food has _________ energy.

a)

Chemical

b)

Kinetic

c)

None of the these

d)

Elastic potential energy

170.

Energy can be created and destroyed.

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

171.

A kilojoule is 1000 Joules

a)

True

b)

False

c)

No, it's a kilogram of Joules

d)

No, it's James Joules' fault

172.

What are the factors affect gravitational potential energy?

a)

Mass and Velocity

b)

Mass, Acceleration due to gravity, and Height

c)

Mass, Acceleration due to gravity and Time

173.
A force exerted over a distance to move an object is ______________________.
a)
power
b)
work
c)
momentum
d)
Watt
174.
What is work?
a)
the amount of energy 
b)
the transfer of force over a distance
c)
rate of work in a given time
d)
the change in distance in a given time
175.

A man pushing tha wall

a)

Work done

b)

Zero work

c)

No work

176.

Which of the given pictures shows that work can not done?

a)
b)
c)

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