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Meteorology 2 - Kenya School Of Flying

Total questions: 50

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What does the term TREND signify?

a)

It is a landing forecast added to the actual weather report

b)

It is the actual weather report at an aerodrome and is generally issued at

half-hourly intervals

c)

It is a warning of dangerous meteorological conditions

d)

It is a flight forecast, issued by the meteorological station several times

daily

2.

Which of these four METAR reports suggests that a thunderstorm is likely in

the next few hours?

a)

201350Z 21005KT 9999 SCT040CB SCT100 26/18 Q1016 TEMPO

24018G30KT TS =

b)

201350Z 16004KT 8000 SCT110 OVC220 02/M02 Q1008 NOSIG =

c)

201350Z 34003KT 0800 SN VV002 M02/M04 Q1014 NOSIG =

d)

201350Z 04012KT 3000 BR OVC012 04/03 Q1022 BECMG 6000 =

3.

In which of the following METAR reports, is the probability of fog formation in

the coming night the highest?

a)

201850Z 15003KT 6000 SCT120 05/04 Q1032 BECMG 1600 BR =

b)

201850Z 21003KT 8000 SCT250 12/m08 Q1028 NOSIG =

c)

201850Z 06018G30KT 5000-RA OVC010 04/01 Q1024 NOSIG =

d)

201850Z 25010KT 4000 RA BKN012 OVC030 12/10 Q1006 TEMPO 1500 =

4.

If atmospheric conditions exist such that the temperature is ISA +10°C in the

lower troposphere up to 18000 FT, what is the actual layer thickness between

FL 60 and FL 120?

a)

6240 FT.

b)

6000 FT.

c)

5900 FT.

d)

5760 FT.

5.

Which of the following weather reports could be, in accordance with the

regulations, abbreviated to "CAVOK"?

a)

27019G37KT 9999 BKN050 18/14 Q1016 NOSIG =

b)

34004KT 7000 MIFG SCT260 09/08 Q1029 BECMG 1600 =

c)

00000KT 0100 FG VV001 11/11 Q1025 BECMG 0500 =

d)

26012KT 8000 SHRA BKN025 16/12 Q1018 NOSIG =

6.

In Kisumu, the local QNH is 994 hPa. The elevation of Kisumu is 1411 FT. The

QFE adjustment in Kisumu is

a)

942 hPa.

b)

967 hPa.

c)

961 hPa.

d)

948 hPa.

7.

An aircraft is flying at FL 80. The local QNH is 1000 hPa. After the second

altimeter has been adjusted to the local QNH, the reading will be

approximately

a)

7650 FT.

b)

8600 FT.

c)

8350 FT.

d)

8000 FT.

8.

Which of the following is a common cause of ground or surface temperature

inversion ?

a)

Terrestrial radiation on a clear night with no or very light winds.

b)

Warm air being lifted rapidly aloft, in the vicinity of mountainous terrain.

c)

The movement of colder air under warm air, or the movement of warm

air over cold air.

d)

Heating of the air by subsidence

9.

Going from the equator to the north pole, the altitude of the tropopause

a)

decreases and its temperature increases

b)

increases and its temperature increases

c)

increases and its temperature decreases

d)

decreases and its temperature decreases

10.

The troposphere is the

a)

part of the atmosphere below the tropopause

b)

part of the atmosphere above the stratosphere

c)

boundary between the mesosphere and thermosphere

d)

boundary between the stratosphere and the mesosphere

11.

At a certain position, the temperature on the 300 hPa chart is -48°C; according

to the Significant Weather Chart, the tropopause is at FL 330. What is the

most likely temperature at FL 350 ?

a)

-54°C.

b)

-50°C.

c)

-56,5°C.

d)

-58°C.

12.

The tropopause is a level at which

a)

temperature ceases to fall with increasing height

b)

water vapour content is greatest

c)

pressure remains constant

d)

vertical currents are strongest

13.

Which of the following statements is true ?

a)

QNH can be equal to QFE

b)

QNH is always lower than QFE

c)

QNH is always higher than QFE

d)

QNH is always equal to QFE

14.

Which constant pressure altitude chart is standard for FL50?

a)

850 hPa.

b)

700 hPa.

c)

500 hPa.

d)

300 hPa.

15.

Which statement is true ?

a)

QNH can be lower as well as higher than 1013.25 hPa

b)

QNH can not be 1013.25 hPa

c)

QNH is lower than 1013.25 hPa at any time

d)

QNH can be 1013.25 hPa only for a station at MSL

16.

QNH can be 1013.25 hPa only for a station at MSL

a)

10°C colder than ISA.

b)

10°C warmer than ISA.

c)

5°C warmer than ISA.

d)

5°C colder than ISA.

17.

Convective activity over land in mid-latitudes is greatest in

a)

summer in the afternoon.

b)

winter during the night and early morning.

c)

summer during the night and early morning.

d)

winter in the afternoon.

18.

When the subscale is set to the QNH of an airfield the pressure altimeter

indicates

a)

elevation while landing

b)

zero while landing

c)

elevation while landing only if conditions are as in the ICAO Standard

Atmosphere

d)

zero while landing only if conditions are as in the ICAO Standard

Atmosphere

19.

The troposphere

a)

has a greater vertical extent above the equator than above the poles

b)

contains all oxygen of the stratosphere

c)

is the separation layer between the stratosphere and atmosphere

d)

reaches the same height at all latitudes

20.

Which of the following is a possible consequence of subsidence?

a)

An inversion over a large area with haze, mist.

b)

CB-clouds and thunderstorms over a large area.

c)

Wide spread NS and AS clouds and intense precipitation.

d)

Clear air turbulence at higher altitudes .

21.

With all other quantities being constant, the density of the atmosphere

increases with increasing

a)

air pressure

b)

relative humidity

c)

stability

d)

temperature

22.

The polar front is the boundary between:

a)

polar air and tropical air.

b)

arctic air and polar air.

c)

arctic air and tropical air.

d)

maritime polar air and continental polar air.

23.

What does dewpoint mean?

a)

The temperature to which a mass of air must be cooled in order to reach

saturation.

b)

The temperature at which ice melts.

c)

The freezing level (danger of icing).

d)

The temperature at which the relative humidity and saturation vapour

pressure are the same.

24.

The visibility transmitted in a METAR is

a)

the lowest observed in a 360° scan from the meteorological station.

b)

the maximum determined by a meteorologist in a 360° scan at the

horizon.

c)

given by transmissometer when the visibility is below 1500 metres.

d)

measured by an observer counting the number of lights visible on the

runway.

25.

In relation to the total weight of the atmosphere, the weight of the atmosphere

between mean sea level and a height of 5500 m is

a)

50%

b)

1%

c)

25%

d)

99%

26.

Which of the following is the definition of relative humidity ?

a)

Ratio between the actual mixing ratio and the saturation mixing ratio X

100

b)

Ratio between air temperature and dewpoint temperature X 100

c)

Ratio between water vapour pressure and atmospheric pressure X 100

d)

Ratio between water vapour (g) and air (kg) X 100

27.

The TAF weather messages are

a)

airport forecasts

b)

hourly or semi-hourly weather observations

c)

special weather observations

d)

landing forecasts of the "trend" type

28.

The relative humidity of a sample air mass is 50%. How is the relative

humidity of this air mass influenced by changes of the amount of water

vapour in it?

a)

It increases with increasing water vapour.

b)

It is not influenced by changing water vapour.

c)

It decreases with increasing water vapour.

d)

It is only influenced by temperature.

29.

Relative humidity

a)

changes when water vapour is added, even though the temperature

remains constant.

b)

is not affected when air is ascending or descending.

c)

is not affected by temperature changes of the air.

d)

does not change when water vapour is added provided the temperature

of the air remains constant.

30.

In a METAR message, BR and HZ mean respectively:

a)

BR = mist HZ = haze

b)

BR = broken HZ = haze

c)

BR = mist HZ = smoke

d)

BR = mist HZ = widespread dust

31.

How, if at all, is the relative humidity of an unsaturated air mass influenced by

temperature changes?

a)

It decreases with increasing temperature.

b)

It is not influenced by temperature changes.

c)

It increases with increasing temperature.

d)

It is only influenced by the amount of water vapour.

32.

In a METAR message, the wind group is 23010KT. This means:

a)

Wind from 230° true at 20 knots

b)

Wind from 230° true at 10 miles per hour

c)

Wind from 230° magnetic at 20 knots

d)

Wind from 230° magnetic at 10 miles per hour

33.

How does relative humidity and the dewpoint in an unsaturated air mass

change with varying temperature?

a)

When temperature increases, the relative humidity decreases, and the

dewpoint remains constant.

b)

When temperature increases, the relative humidity increases, and the

dewpoint decreases.

c)

When temperature decreases, the relative humidity decreases, and the

dewpoint increases.

d)

When temperature decreases, the relative humidity and the dewpoint

remain constant.

34.

Refer to the following TAF message.

HKML 180800Z 180918 22020KT 6000 SCT015 SCT080 BECMG 1214 24025KT

2000 RA BKN009 OVC070=

At 1400 UTC, the lowest cloud base will be

a)

at 900 feet AGL

b)

between 900 and 1500 feet AMSL

c)

between 900 and 1500 feet AGL

d)

at 1500 feet AGL

35.

A METAR message is valid

a)

at the time of observation

b)

for 2 hours

c)

for the hour following the observation

d)

for 9 hours

36.

When a given mass of air descends, what effect will it have on relative

humidity?

a)

It decreases.

b)

It increases.

c)

It remains constant.

d)

It increases up to 100%, then remains stable.

37.

During the late afternoon an air temperature of +12°C and a dew point of +5°C

were measured. What temperature change must at least occur during the

night in order to induce saturation?

a)

It must decrease to +5°C.

b)

It must decrease by 5°C.

c)

It must decrease to +6°C.

d)

It must decrease to +7°C.

38.

Which of the following changes of state is known as sublimation (in

meteorology)?

a)

Solid direct to vapour

b)

Solid direct to liquid

c)

Liquid direct to solid

d)

Liquid direct to vapour

39.

Clouds, fog or dew will always be formed when

a)

water vapour condenses.

b)

water vapour is present.

c)

relative humidity reaches 98%.

d)

temperature and dew point are nearly equal.

40.

Which of the following are favourable conditions for the formation of freezing

rain?

a)

Warm air aloft from which rain is falling into air with a temperature

below 0°C.

b)

Water droplets falling from cold air aloft with a temperature below 0°C

into air with a temperature above 0°C.

c)

Cold air aloft from which hail is falling into air that is warm.

d)

An isothermal layer aloft with a temperature just above 0°C through

which rain is falling.

41.

Which form of precipitation from clouds containing only water is most likely

to fall in mid-latitudes?

a)

Drizzle.

b)

Moderate rain with large drops.

c)

Heavy rain with large drops.

d)

Hail.

42.

Which of the following is a cause of stratus forming over flat land?

a)

Radiation during the night from the earth surface in moderate wind.

b)

Unstable air.

c)

Convection during the day.

d)

The release of latent heat.

43.

Which of the following processes within a layer of air may lead to the building

of CU and CB clouds?

a)

Convection.

b)

Radiation.

c)

Subsidence.

d)

Frontal lifting within stable layers.

44.

What are the characteristics of cumuliform clouds?

a)

Large water droplets, instability, turbulence, showers and mainly clear

ice.

b)

Small water droplets, stability, no turbulence and extensive areas of

rain.

c)

Large water droplets, stability, no turbulence, showers and mainly rime

ice.

d)

Small water droplets, instability, turbulence, extensive areas of rain and

rime ice.

45.

Which of the following types of clouds are evidence of unstable air

conditions?

a)

CU, CB.

b)

ST, CS.

c)

SC, NS.

d)

CI, SC.

46.

Which of the following clouds are classified as medium level clouds in

temperate regions ?

a)

AS, AC.

b)

SC, NS

c)

CI, CC.

d)

CS, ST.

47.

What is the main composition of clouds classified as "high level clouds"?

a)

Ice crystals.

b)

Supercooled water droplets.

c)

Water droplets.

d)

Water vapour.

48.

Which of the following clouds may extend into more than one layer?

a)

Nimbostratus.

b)

Stratus.

c)

Altocumulus.

d)

Cirrus.

49.

Which one of the following types of cloud is most likely to produce heavy

precipitation ?

a)

NS.

b)

CS.

c)

SC.

d)

ST.

50.

What characteristics will the surface winds have in an area where the isobars

on the weather map are very close together?

a)

Strong and flowing across the isobars.

b)

Very weak but gusty and flowing across the isobars.

c)

Strong and flowing parallel to the isobars.

d)

Moderate and flowing parallel to the isobars.