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Worksheets

CCMA

Total questions: 207

Worksheet time: 4hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following resources provides a standard language for services provided during a medical visit?

a)

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

b)

International Classifications of diseases, Tenth Revision

c)

Centers of Disease Control and Prevention

d)

Current Procedural Terminology manual

2.

A MA receives instructions from a primary care provider to refer a patient to a dermatologist. Which of the following actions should the MA take first?

a)

Complete a patient referral form.

b)

Give the patient a copy of the authorization code.

c)

Obtain prior authorization.

d)

Document the date of referral approval.

3.

A MA is posting charges to a patient's account. The MA should obtain the necessary information from which of the following sources.

a)

Pegboard system

b)

Fee profile

c)

Fee Schedule

d)

Itemized statement

4.

Which of the following terms describes the act of unlawfully increasing the reimbursement amount from a third-party payer?

a)

Downcoding

b)

E/M codes

c)

Add-on codes

d)

Upcoding

5.

A MA is performing bookkeeping duties using the office's EHR software. for which of the following reasons should the MA enter an adjustment on a patient's account?

a)

Non-sufficient funds check

b)

Duplicate payment

c)

insurance refund

d)

insurance dis-allowance

6.

A MA is performing claim submission for a medical office. Which of the following processes involved the electronic auditing and sorting of claims?

a)

Clearinghouse submission

b)

direct billing

c)

intelligent character recognition

d)

universal claim form

7.

Which of the following methods of filing paper medical records involves placing newer reports on top of older reports?

a)

Alphanumeric

b)

Purging

c)

Shingling

d)

Numeric

8.

Which of the following medical record content areas includes a patient's demographic data?

a)

Objective

b)

Assessment

c)

Subjective

d)

Plan

9.

A provider notifies a MA that she will be arriving 20 minutes late to the office. Which of the following actions should the MA take?

a)

Cancel the next scheduled patient's appointment.

b)

Tell the next scheduled patient that she has to see a different provider.

c)

Notify the next scheduled patient about the delay.

d)

Have the next scheduled patient wait in an exam room.

10.

Which of the following terms describes a collection of associated files that functions as a basis for retrieving information?

a)

cookies

b)

Cache

c)

Queries

d)

database

11.

A MA is performing inventory for a clinic. Which of the following actions should the MA take?

a)

Prepare a purchase order.

b)

Dispose of all unused medical supplies.

c)

Review the clinic's overhead costs.

d)

Send an invoice to the supply vendor.

12.

In which of the following categories would a MA find a wheelchair?

a)

consumable item

b)

Expendable item

c)

intangible item

d)

durable item

13.

Which of the following allows a patient to confirm or cancel an appointment?

a)

Automated call routing

b)

appointment cards

c)

wave scheduling

d)

advanced booking

14.

Why should a new patient arrive 15-20 minutes prior to an appointment?

a)

To allow patients time to find the office

b)

So the doctor can meet the patient first

c)

To complete new patient registration

15.

Alicia, an assistant, is preparing to call an outpatient facility to set up an appointment. In addition to the patient's name and contact information, what other patient information will she need to provide?

Responses

a)

Date of the most recent complete physical examination

b)

A description of the patient

c)

Date of birth and reason for the test

16.

Sophia has been asked to schedule a hip replacement surgery for a patient. What type of hospitalization will this be?

a)

Optional

b)

Elective

c)

Effective

d)

Emergency

17.

Dr. Velasquez has been delayed at the hospital for another hour. How should the assistant respond?

a)

Hope the physician will arrive shortly

b)

Call the hospital to complain

c)

Notify all scheduled patients and give them the option to reschedule

d)

Make excuses for the physician's delay

e)

Tell only the patients in the office of the physician's delay

18.

Under what circumstance might a physician refer a patient to another physician for a consultation?

a)

It is the medical office assistant's recommendation.

b)

The physician would like a second opinion on patient care.

c)

The consulting physician needs new business.

d)

The physician has little time for established patients.

19.

Which type of hospitalization is not planned in advance?

a)

Elective hospitalization

b)

Emergency hospitalization

c)

All of the above

20.

What should the assistant do when a patient stops at the front desk after an appointment?

a)

Exercise proper customer service and collect the required payment

b)

Review the patient's chart to make sure it is complete

c)

Check if the patient needs a follow-up visit

d)

All of the above

21.

How can an assistant determine if a person is a new patient?

a)

New patients have been to the medical office only once before.

b)

New patients only schedule comprehensive physical examinations.

c)

New patients have never been seen, or they have not been seen in the past three years.

22.

Medical office assistants are responsible for scheduling and canceling appointments.

a)

True

b)

False

23.

What is the purpose of practice-management software?

a)

To schedule routine equipment maintenance

b)

To organize newspaper and magazine subscriptions

c)

To make the reception desk look nice

d)

To allow staff to complete tasks electronically

e)

To remind assistants of important tasks

24.

Which of the following is an outpatient diagnostic test?

a)

A suture removal

b)

A physical examination

c)

A flu vaccination

d)

A blood test

25.

What is practice-management software?

a)

A program that screens software for viruses

b)

A program that requires everything to be done using paper

c)

Software that electronically manages medical office operations

d)

Software that manages the practice's inventory

e)

Software that protects the records of the office manager

26.

What is a benefit of scheduling with practice-management software?

a)

Everything is done on paper.

b)

Reminder notes are no longer necessary.

c)

Changes in the schedule are no longer documented.

d)

Searching for available appointment times is made easy.

27.

As an assistant, TJ deals with many people who want to see the physician. How should he handle all of these people?

a)

Filter their requests

b)

Honor all of their requests

c)

Handle all of them the same

d)

Consult with the physician for each request

28.

What are walk-ins?

a)

Patients who want to see the physician without an appointment

b)

Anyone who walks through the front door in the medical office

c)

Patients who have scheduled appointments with the physician

29.

Which of the following statements about cancellations is correct?

a)

They occur when patients do not show up for their scheduled appointments.

b)

All medical offices have the same cancellation policies.

c)

They occur when patients notify the office that they cannot keep scheduled appointments.

d)

They will never lead to dismissal from a medical office.

30.

A medical office assistant should always consult the office guidelines for preferred methods of scheduling.

a)

True

b)

False

31.

What is a referral?

a)

A request for a transfer of patient records from a previous practice

b)

An agreement between physicians to cover on-call emergencies

c)

An authorization for a patient to leave a practice permanently

d)

An authorization for a patient to receive specialized services from another practice

32.

Which of the following tasks can be completed using practice-management software?

a)

Scheduling patients

b)

Notating patient accounts

c)

Billing and Insurance

d)

All of the above

33.

Which of the following is a key step in scheduling an appointment?

a)

Let the physician know about the appointment

b)

Confirm that the patient has insurance coverage

c)

Offer the patient choices of dates and times

d)

All of the above

34.

Define Copayment

a)

providers who agree to write off the difference between the amount charged by the provider and the approved fee established by insurer

b)

An amount of money that is paid at the time of medical service

c)

Amount of money a patient must pay out of pocket

35.

A specify amount of money a patient must pay out of pocket before the insurance carrier begin paying.

a)

Coinsurance

b)

Deductible

c)

Participating Provider (PAR)

d)

Copayment

36.

In 2009, how many americans did nit have healthcare?

a)

50 million

b)

46 million

c)

40 million

d)

36 million

37.

An umbrella term for plans that provide healthcare in return for present scheduled payments and coordinated care through a defined network of providers and hospitals.

a)

Managed Care

b)

Worker's compensation

c)

Blue Cross Blue Shield

d)

CHAMPVA

38.

Providers health insurance to the medically indigent population through a cost-sharing program between federal and state government for those who meet specific eligibility criternia.

a)

Medicare

b)

Managed Care

c)

Tricare

d)

Medicaid

39.

covers surviving spouses and dependent children of veterans who died as result of service related disabilities.

a)

CHAMPVA

b)

Worker's compensation

c)

Medicare

d)

Tricare

40.

what are some insurance plans

a)

Medicare

b)

Copayment

c)

Medicaid

d)

CHAMPVA

e)

Tricare

41.

Is americans oldest and largest system of idependent health insures

a)

Medicaid

b)

Managed care

c)

Blue Cross Blue Shield

d)

Tricare

42.

Authorize dependents of military personnel to receive treatment from civilian providers at the expense of federal government.

a)

Medicaid

b)

Medicare

c)

Tricare

d)

CHAMPVA

43.

The maximun amount a third-party will pay for particular procedure or service.

a)

Allowed amount

b)

Deductible

c)

Copayment

d)

Coinsurance

44.

This element of the EKG represents ventricular depolarization and contraction, and the blood moving to the lungs and body

a)

P Wave

b)

QRS Complex

c)

T Wave

d)

PR Interval

45.

This element of the EKG represents the SA node firing, the atria contracting and the blood moving to the ventricles

a)

T Wave

b)

P Wave

c)

PRS Complex

d)

ST segment

46.

How many electrodes are placed on the patient for a 12 lead EKG?

(a)  

47.

Which picture shows the correct placement for a 12 lead EKG?

a)
b)
c)
d)
48.

This artifact results in irregular spikes throughout the tracing and can be caused by muscle movement from shaking

a)

Alternating Current Interference

b)

Somatic Tremor

c)

Wandering Baseline

d)

Flat line

49.

This artifact is when the baseline moves from the center of the paper and is caused by poor electrode connection

a)

Alternating Current Interference

b)

Somatic Tremor

c)

Wandering Baseline

d)

Flat Line

50.

This artifact results in regular spikes in the tracing and is caused by things like lights, computers or cell phones

a)

Alternating Current Interference

b)

Somatic Tremor

c)

Wandering Baseline

d)

Flat Line

51.

What is the heart rate on this EKG?

(a)  

52.

During this arrhythmia, the atria are contracting at a faster rate than the ventricles

a)

Sinus Tachycardia

b)

Atrial Flutter

c)

Atrial Fibrillation

d)

Ventricular Fibrillation

53.

During this rhythm, a parts of the heart are quivering and the patient is at an increased risk for blood clots. It is NOT usually considered a medical emergency

a)

Sinus Bradycardia

b)

Atrial Flutter

c)

Atrial Fibrillation

d)

Ventricular Fibrillation

54.

During this arrhythmia parts of the heart are quivering and blood is not going to the lungs or body. This will lead to a medical emergency.

a)

Ventricular Flutter

b)

Asystole

c)

Atria Fibrillation

d)

Ventricular Fibrillation

55.

What part of the heart is the green arrow pointing to?

a)

SA Node

b)

AV Node

c)

Right and Left Bundle Branches

d)

Purkinge Fibers

56.

What part of the heart is the red arrow pointing to?

a)

SA Node

b)

AV Node

c)

Right and Left Bundle Branches

d)

Purkinge Fibers

57.

Select all the bipolar leads

a)

Lead I

b)

avR

c)

V1

d)

Lead II

e)

avL

58.

This element of the EKG represents repolarization of the ventricles

a)

T Wave

b)

P Wave

c)

PRS Complex

d)

ST segment

59.

Rate: less than 60 bpm

Rhythm: regular

P waves: present and regular

PR Interval: WNL

QRS: WNL

a)

Sinus Rhythm

b)

Sinus Arrhythmia

c)

Sinus Bradycardia

d)

Sinus Tachycardia

60.

The pacemaker of the heart is the..

a)

SA node

b)

AV node

c)

Purkinje Fibers

d)

Bundle branches

61.

When placing EKG electrodes, which one is considered the grounding electrode?

a)

Right Arm

b)

Left Arm

c)

Left Leg

d)

Right Leg

62.

What is the best position for the patient when performing an EKG?

a)

Prone

b)

Supine

c)

Lateral

d)

Standing

63.

What is the best position for a patient with severe shortness of breath when performing an EKG?

a)

Prone

b)

Semi-Fowlers

c)

Lateral

d)

Left Sim's

64.

Which of the following leads is usually used as a rhythm strip?

a)

Lead I

b)

Lead II

c)

Lead avR

d)

V4

65.

Which test is an EKG that the patient wears for an extended period of time and keeps a diary of their activities while wearing it?

a)

Exercise Stress Test

b)

Long Term EKG

c)

Holter Monitor

d)

Chemical Stress Test

66.

Which electrode is found 5th Intercostal Space, midclavicular line?

a)

V1

b)

V2

c)

V3

d)

V4

67.

Which electrode is found in the 4th Intercostal Space, to the right of the sternum?

a)

V1

b)

V2

c)

V3

d)

V4

68.

Which electrode should be placed after V2?

a)

V3

b)

V4

c)

V5

d)

V6

69.

Name the highlighted muscle

a)

pectoralis major

b)

biceps

c)

triceps

d)

deltoid

70.

Name the highlighted muscle

(a)  

71.

name the muscle

(a)  

72.

What muscle is shown in the image?

(a)  

73.

What muscle is shown in the image?

(a)  

74.

What muscle is shown in the image?

(a)  

75.

What muscle is shown in the image?

(a)  

76.

What muscle is shown in the image?

(a)  

77.

What muscle is shown in the image?

(a)  

78.

What muscle is shown in the image?

(a)  

79.

What muscle is shown in the image?

(a)  

80.

What muscle is shown in the image?

(a)  

81.

What muscle is shown in the image?

(a)  

82.

What muscle is shown in the image?

(a)  

83.

This muscle is called the (a)  

84.

An association of providers and third-party payers that assumes a defined range of responsibilities for a specific population and is held accountable, financially as well as through specific quality indicators, for its members' health.

a)

Holistic health care

b)

Affordable Care Act

c)

Patient Centered Medical Home

d)

Accountable Care Organization

85.

Also know as Patient Protection and Affordable Care Act (PPCA), legislation signed into law in 2010 that increased the quality, availability, and affordability of private and public health insurance.

a)

Continuity of Care

b)

Affordable Care Act

c)

Accountable Care Organization

d)

Compliance

86.

A model philosophy intended to improve the effectiveness of primary care.

a)

Care Coordination

b)

Hospice

c)

Patient Centered Medical Home

d)

Home Health

87.

Comprehensive or total patient care that considers the physical, emotional, social, economic and spiritual needs of the person

a)

Holistic health care

b)

Primary Care

c)

HIPAA

d)

Patient Centered Medical Home

88.

The deliberate organization of patient care activities between two or more participants involved in a patient's care to facilitate the appropriate delivery of health care services.

a)

Continuity of Care

b)

Holistic Care

c)

Care Coordination

d)

Compliance

89.

Meeting the standards and regulations of the medical practice's established policies and procedures.

a)

Continuity of Care

b)

Primary care

c)

HIPAA

d)

Compliance

90.

Continuation of care smoothly from one provider to another, so that the patient receives the most benefit and no interruption to care.

a)

Compliance Care

b)

Continuity of Care

c)

Home Health

d)

Palliative Care

91.

What type of mail service should be used when mailing a document that bears legal significance and would be difficult to replace?

a)

insured mail

b)

registered mail

c)

special delivery

d)

certified mail

e)

special handling

92.

Which ancillary service endorsement should be used when you want the mail piece forwarded and a notice of the new address sent to the sender?

a)

Address Service Requested

b)

Return Service Requested

c)

Change Service Requested

d)

Forwarding Service Requested

e)

Correction Service Requested

93.

Which of the following designates a standard business envelope?

a)

No. 6 34\frac{3}{4}  

b)

No. 7

c)

No. 9

d)

No. 10

e)

No. 11

94.

How many lines (spaces) below the letterhead should the date be placed when composing a business letter?

a)

three

b)

four

c)

five

d)

six

e)

two

95.

Which classification of mail should be used to mail merchandise, catalogues, printed material, and computer media?

a)

first-class

b)

priority

c)

package services/ standard post

d)

standard mail

e)

periodicals

96.

What is the name of the courteous greeting at the beginning of the business letter?

a)

heading

b)

salutation

c)

copy notation

d)

enclosure

e)

closing

97.

What is the two letter abbreviation for Connecticut? (Use all caps)

(a)  

98.

What is the maximum length of the last line of the address on an envelope that contains the city, two letter state code, and the ZIP code? (Write the number.)

(a)  

99.

What is the letter format in which all lines begin at the left margin, a salutation is used, and paragraphs are not indented?

a)

simplified letter

b)

block letter

c)

modified block letter

d)

semi-simplified letter

e)

semi-block letter

100.

What information should be stamped on all incoming mail?

a)

name of the medical office

b)

date received

c)

name of the recipient

d)

name of the person opening the mail

e)

date sent

101.

Which of the following is typically included in the office letterhead?

a)

office name

b)

office address

c)

office e-mail address

d)

all of the above

102.

Which of the following parts of speech modifies a noun or pronoun?

a)

verb

b)

adverb

c)

adjective

d)

preposition

103.

Priority mail can weigh as much as _________.

a)

13 ounces

b)

70 ounces

c)

13 pounds

d)

70 pounds

104.

Standard letters are folded in (a)   , before being placed in an envelope. (Write the number)

105.

Which part of the letter is not needed when corresponding via email?

a)

date

b)

salutation

c)

enclosure notation

d)

reference initials

106.

What is the most common form of modern professional communication?

(a)  

107.

(a)   letters should be created for standard content to eliminate redundancy.

108.

Select the information that should be placed in the writer/receiver's address. (U.S.)

a)

city

b)

island

c)

state

d)

zip

e)

postal address

109.

Susan Pierce

107 Mackey Way

Spiral, MA 23145

a)

Correctly Written

b)

Incorrectly Written

110.

How many spaces below the receiver's address should the salutation be placed when composing a business letter? (Use the number)

(a)  

111.

I am referring a patient to your office for further evaluation.

a)

active voice

b)

passive voice

112.

Select the correct plural form.

a)

DRG's

b)

DRGs

113.

Choose the correctly spelt medical terms.

a)

abscesses

b)

hummerus

c)

xiphoid

d)

sphygmomanometer

e)

staphylococus

114.

Before sending a letter to its recipient, you should...

a)

reread

b)

edit

c)

proofread

d)

all of the above

115.

What happens if a letter is marked undeliverable?

a)

it is returned to the sender.

b)

It is sent to the wrong address.

c)

Remains in the post office.

d)

None of the above.

116.

A medical assistant receives from a primary care provider to refer a patient to a dermatologist. Which of the following actions should the MA take first?

a)

Give the patient a copy of the authorization code

b)

Complete a patient referral form

c)

Obtain prior-authorization

d)

Document the date of referral approval

117.

When looking up a code what should you search for in the alphabetical index?

a)

Modifying term

b)

E-code

c)

C-code

d)

Main term

118.

Which of the following is given to a patient when Medicare does not cover a service?

a)

Encounter form

b)

Explanation of Benefits

c)

CMS-1500

d)

Advance beneficiary

119.

When calling an insurance company regarding approval for a procedure, what must you receive from the patient’s insurance company that tells you the procedure will be covered?

a)

Explanation of benefits

b)

Authorization number

c)

Federal tax ID number

d)

DEA number

120.

Which of the following resources provides a standard language for services provided during a medical visit?

a)

Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services

b)

Current Procedural Terminology Manual

c)

Centers for Disease Control and Prevention

d)

International Classification of Diseases (10th revision)

121.

A patient in the waiting room approaches a medical assistant and states, “I have been waiting for thirty minutes to see my doctor, can’t you do something?” Which of the response by the assistant demonstrates active listening?

a)

“You sound frustrated about how long you have been waiting”

b)

“You won’t have to wait much longer. I promise.”

c)

“You don’t want to leave and miss your appointment, do you?”

d)

“Maybe you should file a complaint, and reschedule.”

122.

A medical assistant is checking in a patient who is hearing impaired. Which of the following actions should the assistant take?

a)

Speak loudly to the patient

b)

Use firm touch to get the patient’s attention

c)

Stand within the patient’s field of vision

d)

Minimize hand gestures when speaking to the patient

123.

The MA schedules three patients to arrive at the same time for appointments throughout the day. The patients are seen in the order they arrive. Which type of scheduling is this?

a)

Wave

b)

Grouping

c)

Tickler

d)

Advanced booking

124.

Which type of billing sends statements to patients at scheduled times throughout the year?

a)

Third party billing

b)

Cycle billing

c)

Twice a month billing

d)

Monthly billing

125.

When communicating on the telephone with a patient, which of the following actions by a medical assistant demonstrates the use of proper technique for outgoing calls?

a)

Placing a patient on hold when accessing information

b)

Speaking with an unchanging pitch

c)

Holding a receiver 2 inches from your mouth

d)

Allowing the patient to be the one to end the call

126.

This is a form that both the medical assistant and the doctor use to keep track of charges and payments at the time of a patient visit:

a)

Charge Slip

b)

Fee Schedule

c)

Day Sheet

d)

Ledger

127.

This Act in an installment agreement that must be in writing if more than four payments will be made. It requires creditors to provide applicants with a form disclosing in a clear and obvious way all finance charges and terms:

a)

Fair Credit Reporting Act

b)

Federal Truth and Lending Act

c)

Equal Credit Opportunity Act

d)

Fair Debt Collection Practices Act

128.

This is a financial posting that is subtracted from an account balance:

a)

Accounts payable

b)

Accounts receivable

c)

Debit

d)

Credit

129.

This is the official permission from the patient’s insurance company to have a procedure performed or visit a specialist:

a)

Reference

b)

Preauthorization

c)

Referral

d)

Benefit

130.

Why do offices install a bell system on the patient entrance?

a)

As a welcome signal to the patient

b)

So the staff will know when the patient leaves

c)

To alert the staff of a patient's arrival

131.

How should the medical assistant handle the huge toy mess left by children in the reception area?

a)

Quietly clean up after the family leaves the area

b)

Scold the children and ask them to put the toys away

c)

Begin cleaning up immediately

d)

Do nothing because it's not her responsibility

132.

Which of the following is the best way to treat a visitor who enters the office?

a)

Say hello, but do not make eye contact

b)

Finish a task before saying hello

c)

Smile and welcome the visitor

d)

Frown because they are not on the schedule

133.

Why is it important to provide several seating options in a reception area?

a)

Some patients may want privacy.

b)

It accommodates a large number of patients.

c)

Patients all want the same seating.

134.

Which of the following is true when medical office assistants use a translator?

a)

The assistant should speak directly to the translator.

b)

The assistant should speak directly to the patient.

135.

Why should an assistant be concerned with the office image?

a)

To make a good impression for the patients

b)

To impress the physician

c)

It is an assistant's only responsibility.

136.

Which of the following is the ADA most concerned with?

a)

Getting insurance benefits for individuals with physical challenges

b)

Improving access for individuals with physical disabilities

c)

Increasing the safety of medical facilities

d)

Work environment

137.

What special considerations should an assistant make when speaking with a patient who is vision-impaired?

a)

Use an interpreter

b)

Shout

c)

Speak softly but clearly

138.

Why are current educational magazines and children's toys important in the reception area?

a)

Medical offices are required by law to provide these items.

b)

Patients may not have these things at home.

c)

Magazines and toys make a reception area look good.

d)

Wait time may not feel as long to patients who are occupied.

139.

Which of the following is acceptable for a reception desk?

a)

A high counter and privacy screen

b)

Stacks of charts and loose papers

c)

Easy access to personal information

d)

A coffee mug and snacks

140.

How should a medical assistant respond to a patient's anger over being incorrectly charged for her last visit?

a)

"I understand that you're upset. I will try to get this straightened out."

b)

"Please calm down; you're making a huge scene."

c)

"I hate to interrupt, but I have no idea what you're talking about."

d)

"Don't yell at me. I'm not in charge of billing."

141.

Which of the following is true about office environment?

a)

It has no affect on patients.

b)

Creating an environment takes little planning.

c)

It is shaped only by a professional designer.

d)

It affects how patients feel during and after their appointment.

142.

Why should a medical assistant choose soft, soothing music for the medical office?

a)

It will act as background noise and put patients at ease.

b)

It is the physician's favorite kind of music.

c)

Patients may become so relaxed that they will fall to sleep.

143.

During check-out, what can assistants do to leave patients with a favorable image of the facility?

a)

Be courteous and helpful

b)

Firmly demand payment from the patient

c)

Schedule the next appointment, but do not make eye contact

d)

Nod to the patient as he exits the office

144.

How can an assistant avoid a breach of patient confidentiality when using a patient sign-in sheet?

a)

Highlight the patients' name on the sign-in sheet

b)

Ask the patient the reason for his visit

c)

Use pressure-sensitive labels that can be removed

d)

Allow patients to see other patients' names

145.

A patient confronts the medical assistant in a loud, angry voice because she's upset about how long she's been waiting. Why does the assistant intentionally respond to the patient in a low, calm voice?

a)

Responding in anger will only make the situation worse.

b)

Speaking in a low, soothing voice may calm the patient down.

c)

Patients can tell how assistants are feeling by their rate, pitch, and tone of voice.

d)

All are correct

146.

Why are talkative patients considered a problem situation in the medical office?

a)

The physician does not enjoy seeing them.

b)

There are no techniques for dealing with them.

c)

They take more of the physician's time than necessary.

147.

How should an assistant handle children who are disruptive in the reception area?

a)

Demand that the parents never bring them to the office again

b)

Distract the children with toys

c)

Discipline the children

d)

Ask them to leave

148.

What is the purpose of a tickler file?

a)

Makes you laugh

b)

Schedules appointments

c)

Organizes reminders

d)

Creates activities

149.

How should an assistant respond to an emergency situation in the reception area?

a)

Make assumptions about the patient's condition

b)

Ignore office procedures and do what she thinks is best

c)

Give medical advice

d)

Remain calm and call for outside help, if necessary

150.

Which of the following statements is correct about a tickler file?

a)

All tickler files look the same.

b)

Tickler files are divided into months.

c)

Tickler files are only checked in the middle of the month.

d)

Tickler files are rarely organized chronologically.

151.

Why is it important to tell a patient the reason for a delay in the schedule?

a)

The patient may feel better about the wait if he knows the reason for it.

b)

Both are correct

c)

The patient's time is just as important as the physician's time.

152.

A patient states that there have been no changes to his personal or insurance information since his last visit. What should the assistant do?

a)

Ask him to sit in the reception area until he's called for his appointment

b)

Ask him to fill out a new patient registration form

c)

Verify that the personal and insurance information the office has is correct

153.

Opening and closing procedures help keep a medical facility running smoothly.

a)

True

b)

False

154.

Question

A patient has begun making threats toward another patient in the reception area. The medical assistant has tried to resolve the situation without success. What should the assistant do to quickly access outside help?

a)

Use the posted emergency numbers to call for help

b)

Check in the phone book for emergency phone numbers

c)

Send a staff member out to find help

155.

The medical assistant is responsible for opening the medical office. Why should the assistant arrive 20 minutes before the first scheduled appointment?

a)

In case any patients show up early.

b)

To have time to complete the necessary opening procedures

c)

He needs time to wake up.

156.

Why does an assistant need to be concerned with office security?

a)

OSHA guidelines set standards for office security.

b)

Without proper security, confidential information and money could be accessed.

c)

Security measures protect items from fire damage.

d)

All are correct

157.

What is the main purpose of office security?

a)

To create a comfortable environment

b)

To get rid of physical hazards

c)

To protect the well-being of patients and workers

d)

To prevent fires

e)

To protect private materials and information

158.

Which of the following should all office assistants know?

a)

The location of fire alarms and fire extinguishers

b)

The location of stairways, elevators, and exits

c)

The meaning of emergency codes

d)

All are correct

159.

Why is it important to do a visual check of the office when opening the facility?

a)

To make sure everything is safe and ready for the day

b)

To take a supply inventory

c)

To set a good example for co-workers

160.

What is one of the most important guidelines to providing a safe environment in a medical facility?

a)

Exercise daily

b)

Know the surroundings

c)

Wear proper footwear

d)

Get to work on time

161.

Which activities should be completed before patients arrive at the office?

a)

Turn on the security system and call the answering service.

b)

Check with the answering service and review the day's schedule.

c)

Clean up and shut down all equipment.

d)

Run reports and lock petty cash in the office safe.

e)

All are correct

162.

Who is responsible for maintaining a clean facility?

a)

Only the housekeeping staff

b)

All health care workers

c)

Only the medical office assistants

163.

Where should an evacuation plan be posted?

a)

In plain sight

b)

On every floor

c)

In every wing of a facility

d)

All are correct

164.

Which of the following is part of office safety?

a)

Monitoring smoke alarm batteries

b)

Knowing how to use a fire extinguisher

c)

Developing evacuation plans

d)

Establishing a list of emergency contacts

e)

All are correct

165.

Why must the assistant always be aware of who is nearby when on the telephone?

a)

To keep track of which patients have been in the waiting room the longest

b)

To keep the call as short as possible to attend to others' needs

c)

To keep from interrupting other staff members

d)

To keep unauthorized parties from overhearing confidential information

166.

Which technology allows a patient to speak with a human?

Responses

a)

Automatic Routing Unit (ARU)

b)

Answering Machine

c)

Answering Service

d)

Voicemail

167.

Which technology leaves the hands free and is built into the phone?

a)

Automatic Routing Unit (ARU

b)

Headset

c)

Voicemail

d)

Speakerphone

168.

Which of these items may be found on a standard message form?

a)

Date and time of the call

b)

Caller's name and patient's name, correctly spelled

c)

Caller's telephone number

d)

Reason for the call

e)

All of the above

169.

Why should an assistant smile when talking on the telephone?

a)

It will make sure that the mouthpiece is in the correct position.

b)

It will increase the volume of the sound.

c)

It will help to tolerate co-workers better.

d)

It It will be heard in the voice just as it would be seen in person.

170.

A patient calls with a serious condition that is not an emergency but requires an urgent appointment. What is the most appropriate response for the assistant?

a)

Contact the physician immediately and ask what to do.

b)

Take a message to be returned when convenient.

c)

Schedule the appointment as early as possible.

d)

Transfer the call to a nurse.

171.

What is the use of language and words to send and receive information called?

a)

Verbal Communication

b)

Feedback

c)

Body Language

d)

All of the above

172.

Which term refers to word choice?

a)

Tone of voice

b)

Enunciation

c)

Inflection

d)

Diction

173.

Which technology allows telephone calls to be sent to another appointed number?

a)

Cellular Phones

b)

Voicemail

c)

Call Forwarding

d)

Paging Systems

174.

What is determining who is the best person in the facility to handle each telephone call?

a)

Triage

b)

Railroad

c)

Screen

d)

Roadblock

175.

When are calls from other medical personnel usually transferred directly to the office physician?

a)

Always

b)

When the physician receiving the call will not be returning calls the same day.

c)

When the physician receiving the call will not be returning calls the same day

d)

Never

176.

What does it mean to enunciate words?

Responses

a)

Speak them loudly

b)

Speak them quickly

c)

Pronounce them with a drawl

d)

Pronounce them distinctly

177.

What is the process of evaluating a situation and prioritizing treatment called?

a)

Screen

b)

Roadblock

c)

Railroad

d)

Triage

178.

What is the key response for an assistant who is dealing with an angry telephone caller?

a)

Calmly reassuring the caller of concern and intention to help.

b)

Putting the caller through to the physician immediately.

c)

Not speaking at all in hopes the caller will give up.

d)

Speaking louder than the caller to maintain control.

179.

For which of these types of telephone calls is it acceptable for the office assistant to take a message much of the time?

a)

Patient Calls

b)

Calls from Other Medical Personnel

c)

Non-Medical Business Calls

d)

Personal Calls

e)

All of the above

180.

What is an appropriate response for assistants who feel they may lose their temper with a difficult caller?

a)

Ask for another staff member's help

b)

End the call immediately

c)

Continue with the call on their own

181.

Why might an assistant avoid using the term "doctor" when leaving a telephone message for a patient?

a)

To save time

b)

To use better courtesy

c)

To protect the patient's privacy

182.

An assistant is near the waiting room of a medical office, and she is speaking with a patient by telephone. Which of these statements is she permitted to say?

a)

"Mr. Dawson, our records show that your insurance has not paid for the most recent tests related to your heart condition."

b)

"Mr. Dawson, is your first name spelled M-O-R-G-A-N? And you have a heart condition, correct?"

c)

"Mr. Dawson, we can mail the results of the tests for your heart condition to your home address at 145 Blossom Avenue in Springfield."

d)

"Mr. Dawson, our records show that your insurance has not paid for the tests you underwent last month."

183.

Which technology uses a recorded message with a series of directions for callers to press buttons to reach the correct party?

a)

Call Forwarding

b)

Automatic Routing Unit (ARU)

c)

Answering Service

d)

Paging System

184.

Which message is the most acceptable for an assistant to leave when returning a patient's call?

a)

"Mrs. Brian, this is Trudy at SureCare. We've received your questions for Dr. Andrew. If you call us 555-6543, so we can arrange a time for you to get an answer."

b)

"Mrs. Brian, this is Trudy at SureCare. Call us at 555-6543, so we can arrange a time for you to get an answer to your blood pressure medication questions."

c)

"Mrs. Brian, this is Trudy at SureCare. Please call our office at 555-6543, at your earliest convenience so I can schedule a time for your questions to be answered."

d)

"Mrs. Brian, this is Trudy at SureCare. I understand you have some questions about your blood pressure medication. If you call out office at 555-6543, I can schedule a time for you to speak with Dr. Andrew."

185.

Why is it important for the assistant to evaluate the situation before prioritizing treatment?

a)

The answers to all questions the assistant asks must be written down for proper documentation.

b)

The assistant may be violating HIPAA if not speaking directly to the patient.

c)

Sometimes a patient may be upset, but there is no medical emergency.

d)

If an ambulance is on its way, the assistant should end the call as quickly as possible.

186.

Why is planning ahead for outgoing calls helpful?

a)

It saves time for the person answering the call.

b)

It saves the assistant time.

c)

It helps to free the telephone lines sooner.

d)

All of the above

187.

What is it called when a speaker's feelings are expressed through speech?

a)

Tone of Voice

b)

Pitch

c)

Enunciation

d)

Clarity

188.

Who handles most routine patient telephone calls?

a)

Physician

b)

Nurse

c)

Answering Service

d)

Assistant or other medical office staff

189.

Which of the following telephone greetings is acceptable for a medical office?

a)

"Hello, how may I help you?"

b)

"Good morning, Dr. Grabin's office."

c)

"Dr. Grabin' office, Samantha speaking, how may I help you?"

d)

All of the above

190.

The main purpose of the telephone greeting is to address callers with courtesy and help them know that they have reached the correct party.

a)

True

b)

False

191.

Another physician calls with an important question and asks to be put through to the office physician immediately. But the office physician is in the middle of a patient exam. What is the most appropriate response for the assistant?

a)

Try to answer the caller's question on own.

b)

Take a message to be returned as soon as possible.

c)

Take a message to be returned when convenient.

d)

Contact the office physician immediately and ask what to do.

192.

Why should an office assistant keep the physician from being interrupted without need?

a)

To provide better care to patients.

b)

To improve the job security of office staff.

c)

To avoid disclosing unauthorized information according to HIPAA.

d)

To protect the physician's private life.

193.

What is the maximum amount of time a caller should be left on hold before the assistant checks back with the caller?

a)

10-20 seconds

b)

30-40 seconds

c)

1-2 minutes

d)

3-5 minutes

194.

What is the main purpose of using inflection?

a)

To make the sound of the voice clearer

b)

To emphasize important points in a conversation

c)

To communicate only with special populations, such as those with diminished hearing

d)

All of the above

195.

Susan is speaking to a patient. She should use a speaker phone so that her hands are free to take notes in the patient's chart.

a)

True

b)

False

196.

A patient calls to get more instructions for the prescribed treatment. What is the most appropriate response for the assistant?

a)

Take a message to for the physician to return as soon as possible.

b)

Try to answer the caller's question on own.

c)

Transfer the call to a nurse.

d)

Contact the physician immediately.

Contact the physician immediately.

197.

Which of these types of telephone calls warrants immediately notifying the physician?

a)

Emergency Calls

b)

Routine Patient Calls

c)

Non-Medical Business Calls

d)

Personal Calls

e)

All of the above

198.

Which technology is used for three or more people in different geographical areas to "meet" by phone?

a)

Answering Service

b)

Automatic Routing Unit (ARU)

c)

Conference Call

d)

Call Forwarding

199.

Why might office policy require the assistant to also get a patient's date of birth when identifying a caller?

a)

It is required by HIPAA.

b)

The physician will want to know the age of the patient.

c)

It is less embarrassing for the patient to give this information over the phone.

d)

Several patients may have the same name.

200.

The patient is having difficulty breathing. A medical term for this is...

a)

Hemoralgia

b)

Dyspnea

c)

malcarbona

d)

apnea

201.

Tachypnea means slow breathing

a)

True

b)

False

202.

This terms definition is characterized by periods of apnea and unusual breathing

a)

sleep apnea

b)

cheyne- stokes respiration

c)

eupnea

d)

tachypnea

203.

Pt. reports he has "normal breathing" what medical term means this

a)

dyspnea

b)

tachypnea

c)

eupnea

d)

bradypnea

204.

Another term for deeper and faster breathing is

a)

dyspnea

b)

apnea

c)

eupnea

d)

hyperpnea

205.

Most COPD pt. find it easier to breath when sitting up...this is called

a)

apnea

b)

tachypnea

c)

orthopnea

d)

hyperpnea

206.

A pt. required anti-coagulants after hip sx. This is utilized to prevent what condition

a)

thoracentesis

b)

pharyngitis

c)

pulmonary embolism

d)

antitussive

207.

inflammation of the throat in medical terms would be

a)

pharyngitits

b)

thoracostomy

c)

sleep apnea