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IB BIOLOGY UNIT 2 REVISION

Total questions: 149

Worksheet time: 2hrs 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Molecules that catalyze chemical reactions in living organisms are called

a)

carbohydrates

b)

nucleic acids

c)

enzymes

d)

proteins

e)

lipids

2.

A monosaccharide is a

a)

carbohydrate

b)

nucleic acid

c)

enzyme

d)

protein

e)

lipid

3.

A nucleotide is a monomer of a

a)

carbohydrate

b)

nucleic acid

c)

enzyme

d)

protein

e)

lipid

4.

Fatty acid is a

a)

carbohydrate

b)

nucleic acid

c)

enzyme

d)

protein

e)

lipid

5.

(a)   is the breakdown of complex molecules into simpler molecules.

6.

The diagram of glucose is

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
7.

The reaction shown is an example of

(a)  

8.

The diagram of ribose is

a)
b)
c)
d)
e)
9.

Water molecules consist of two types of atoms

a)

Oxygen and Oxygen

b)

Oxygen and Helium

c)

Oxygen and Hydrogen

d)

Oxygen and Hafnium

10.

Where one part of water molecules is partially negative and the other is partially positive is called

a)

Bonding

b)

Polarity

c)

Charged

d)

Neutral

11.

When water molecules are near each other, what forms between them?

a)

nothing

b)

a tiny rope

c)

Attractive forces

d)

Hydrogen Bonds

12.

Hydrophillic means

a)

water-loving

b)

water-fearing

13.

Which substance is more likely to dissolve in water?

a)

Hydrophillic

b)

Hydrophobic

14.

In the Phospholipid bilayer, there is a __________ head and a ___________ tail.

a)

polar; nonpolar

b)

nonpolar; polar

15.

Which property of water would allow bugs to float on water?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Thermal

d)

Solvent

16.

Which property of water allows plants to transport water?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Adhesion

c)

Thermal

d)

Solvent

17.

When energy is added to water

a)

water stays the same

b)

water warms up

c)

water freezes

18.

The energy required to increase 1g of a substance 1 degree Celcius is

a)

Boiling

b)

Increase in energy

c)

Freezing

d)

Specific Heat

19.

Water's high specific heat allows it to be a __________ environment for marine organisms.

a)

Heated

b)

Good

c)

Stable

d)

Harsh

20.

The energy required for water to evaporate is called

a)

Specific Heat

b)

Latent Heat of Vaporization

c)

Boiling

d)

Evaporation

21.

Because of its hydrogen bonds, water has a high ___________

a)

Boiling Point

b)

Freezing Point

c)

Latent Heat of Vaporization

d)

Specific Heat

22.

Water's high latent heat of vaporization allows organisms to use it as a ______________

a)

Coolant

b)

Dietary Supplement

c)

way to stay hydrated

23.

Compared to water, methane is

a)

Polar

b)

Non-Polar

24.

Compared to water, methane has a lower ________________

a)

Specific Heat

b)

Latent Heat of Vaporization

c)

Melting Point

d)

Boiling Point

25.

Because water is polar, it makes an effective

a)

Solute

b)

Solvent

26.

An element that can bond with many elements and form unlimited chains:

a)

Nitrogen

b)

Oxygen

c)

Carbon

27.

Small units that make up polymers:

a)

Polymer

b)

Monomer

c)

Polysaccharide

28.

Multiple monomers joined together:

a)

Polymers

b)

Monomers

c)

Monosaccharide

29.

Major source of energy for most living things:

a)

Proteins

b)

Nucleic Acids

c)

Carbohydrates

30.

Single sugar, a monomer of carbohydrates:

a)

Amino Acid

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Monosaccharide

31.

Store and transmit genetic information ex: RNA and DNA

a)

Proteins

b)

Nucleic Acids

c)

Carbohydrates

32.

Used to store energy, also important in cell membranes:

a)

Protein

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrates

33.

Monomer of nucleic acids made up of a 5-carbon sugar, a phosphate group, and a nitrogenous base

a)

Amino Acid

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Monosaccharide

34.

Macromolecule that contains nitrogen, forms cell structures, controls the rate of reactions, and regulates cell processes.

a)

Proteins

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Lipids

35.

The building blocks of proteins:

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Nucleotides

c)

Monosaccharides

36.

In an amino acid, a central carbon is bonded to which of the following? Check all that apply.

a)

Amine group (NH2)

b)

Carboxylic acid group (COOH)

c)

Hydrogen atom (H)

d)

Variable side chain (R)

e)

A methane group (CH4)

37.

There are ____ different amino acids that can join together to form ______

a)

20; polypeptides

b)

40; polypeptides

c)

25; peptide bonds

d)

20; amino acid

38.

Amino acids are covalently bonded together in a condensation reaction. What do we call this covalent bond?

a)

Peptide

b)

Covalent

c)

Ionic

d)

Protein

39.

The way that the protein chain folds is determined by:

a)

the order of the amino acid sequence

b)

the order of the bonds within the amino acid

c)

the level of protein-ness this polypeptide chain had

d)

the different monosaccharides it encounters while folding

40.

When a protein folds into a spiral arrangement we call it:

a)

alpha helices

b)

beta-pleated sheets

41.

The third structure a protein forms whilst folding, the 3-D configuration, is classified as:

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

tertiary

d)

quaternary

42.

True or false: all proteins will fold into a quaternary structure.

a)

True

b)

False

43.

Which of these is an example of a protein with a quaternary structure?

a)

Hemoglobin

b)

Human epidermal growth factor

c)

Pepsin

d)

Collagen

44.

This is a structural change in a protein that results in the loss of its biological properties.

a)

Denaturation

b)

Deproteination

c)

Amino acidation

d)

Naturation

45.

What two key conditions can denature a protein? Check all that apply.

a)

temperature

b)

pH

c)

amount of amino acids

d)

number of peptide bonds

46.

At what temperature do most proteins function properly?

a)

about 37°C

b)

about 40°C

c)

about 20°C

d)

it varies

47.

All proteins have an optimal pH. What is it?

a)

about 3

b)

about 14

c)

about 2

d)

it varies based on environment

48.

Proteins in your blood prefer for the environment to be at a neutral pH. What type of environment would proteins in the stomach require?

a)

acidic

b)

basic

c)

neutral

49.

A sequence of DNA which encodes a polypeptide sequence is called:

a)

gene

b)

transcription

c)

translation

d)

DNA

50.

TransCription makes _______ based on a DNA template.

a)

mRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

more DNA

51.

TransLation _______ based on the mRNA transcript.

a)

links amino acids together

b)

creates tRNA

c)

creates rRNA

d)

makes more DNA

52.

The totality of proteins expressed within a cell, tissue or organism at a certain time.

a)

Proteome

b)

Genome

c)

Proteino

d)

Amino acidosis

53.

The proteome may contain more than __________________ proteins.

a)

1,000,000

b)

2

c)

20-25,000

d)

0

54.

Proteins have many functions. Collagen is a component of connective tissue that provides ________.

a)

Structure

b)

Hormones

c)

Immunity

d)

Transport

55.

Proteins have many functions. Insulin is a component produced by the pancreas and triggers a reduction in blood glucose levels. This serves as a ________.

a)

Structure

b)

Hormone

c)

Immunity

d)

Transport

56.

Proteins have many functions. Immunoglobulins produce antibodies by plasma cells that are capable of targeting specific antigens. This serves as to function in ________.

a)

Structure

b)

Hormone

c)

Immunity

d)

Transport

57.

Proteins have many functions. Hemoglobin is a protein found in red blood cells that is responsible for _____________ oxygen throughout the body.

a)

Structuring

b)

Hormoning

c)

Immunity

d)

Transporting

58.

Proteins have many functions. Rhodopsin is a pigment found in photoreceptor cells of the retina that is responsible for the detection of light, giving the cells to ability to _______ their surroundings.

a)

Sense

b)

Enzyme

c)

Move

d)

Transporting

59.

Proteins have many functions. Actin and myosin are filaments found in muscles that help them contract. This gives humans, for example, the ability to create ___________________

a)

Sensation

b)

Enzymation

c)

Movement

d)

Transportation

60.

What effect do changes in pH have on enzymes?

a)

All enzymes increase in activity as pH increases.

b)

The activity of all enzymes is reduced by a pH below or above 7.

c)

Low pH causes reversible denaturation in all enzymes

d)

Extreme pH can alter the active site of all enzymes.

61.

Lactose intolerance occurs when the enzyme, lactase, that digests lactose is not produced after infancy in humans. The incidence of lactose intolerance varies in different racial groups. The graph shows the distribution of lactose intolerance in different human populations. What can be hypothesized from the graph?

a)

Native American people produce most lactase after infancy

b)

Most Indian people do not produce lactase after infancy.

c)

Lactase is not produced after infancy in most Caucasian people.

d)

One quarter of Afro-Caribbean people will probably experience digestive problems when drinking milk.

62.

The graph shows the effect of changing the substrate concentration on the early stages of an enzyme-catalysed reaction. What can be interpreted about the rate of reaction from the graph?

a)

Rate of reaction increases up to a point and then remains constant.

b)

Rate of reaction increases linearly with increasing substrate concentration.

c)

Rate of reaction increases non-linearly with increasing substrate concentration.

d)

Rate of reaction is not affected by any change in the substrate concentration.

63.

What is the advantage of using lactase in an immobilized state in the food manufacturing industry?

a)

It functions within cells.

b)

It dissolves in multiple solvents.

c)

It converts cellulose into glucose.

d)

It is less likely to become denatured.

64.

Three flasks were prepared for an analysis of the activity of amylase. At time zero, each of the substances indicated in the diagrams was added.Which flask(s) could provide support for the hypothesis that heat denatures enzymes?

a)

Flasks I and II after 15 minutes

b)

Flasks II and III after 15 minutes

c)

Flasks I and III after 15 minutes

d)

. Flask III at time zero and again after 15 minutes

65.

The graph shows the effect of increasing the substrate concentration on the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction. What is occurring during the phase indicated by section Y of the graph?

a)

The active site of the enzyme is saturated.

b)

The enzyme becomes denatured.

c)

The substrate concentration has risen too high.

d)

The optimum rate is reached.

66.

In an experiment the effect of changing pH on an enzymatic reaction is tested. Which could be a dependent variable in this kind of experiment?

a)

Changing substrate concentration

b)

Rate of formation of product

c)

Variation in temperature

d)

Change in pH

67.

What is decreased when lactase is added to milk?

a)

A. Sweetness

b)

Disaccharides

c)

Calcium

d)

Monosaccharides

68.

Why does exposure to high temperatures cause an enzyme to lose its biological properties?

a)

The substrate blocks the active site at high temperatures

b)

The three dimensional structure of the enzyme becomes changed.

c)

Chemical reactions cannot take place at high temperatures.

d)

High temperatures increase the activation energy of reactions.

69.

It is possible to attach β-galactosidase to alginate beads for use in the production of lactose-free milk. What are enzymes that have been attached in this way called?

a)

Inhibited

b)

Immobilized

c)

Catalysed

d)

Activated

70.
Which of the following is the sugar found in DNA?
a)
Deoxyribose
b)
Ribose
c)
Pentose
d)
Glucose
71.
Which of the following is the sugar found in RNA?
a)
Ribose
b)
Maltose
c)
Deoxyribose
d)
Amylose
72.
Which of the following is correct about the PHOSPHATE group?
a)
It binds to carbon 5
b)
It is positively charged
c)
It is basic (alkaline)
d)
It binds to the nitrogenous base
73.
Which of the following bases is NOT found in RNA?
a)
Thymine
b)
Adenine
c)
Guanine
d)
Cytosine
74.
Which of the following correctly identifies the PYRIMIDINES?
a)
Cytosine and Thymine
b)
Guanine and Cytosine
c)
Thymine and Adenine
d)
Adenine and Guanine
75.
Which of the following nitrogenous bases has a double ring structure?
a)
All the purines
b)
Adenine only
c)
Guanine only
d)
Cytosine and Thymine
76.
Which of the following nitrogenous bases form TWO hydrogen bonds when they base pair?
a)
Adenine and Thymine
b)
Guanine and Cytosine
c)
Guanine and Adenine
d)
Cytosine and Uracil
77.
The two strands of DNA run in opposite directions. They are said to be:
a)
Antiparallel
b)
Complementary
c)
Anti-directional
d)
Weird
78.
Which two scientists are accredited with correctly deducing the double helix model of DNA?
a)
Watson and Crick
b)
Wilkins and Franklin
c)
Wilkins and Crick
d)
Watson and Franklin
79.
Which carbon bonds to the phosphate group in a nucleotide?
a)
5
b)
4
c)
3
d)
2
80.
Which carbon bonds to the nitrogenous base in a nucleotide?
a)
1
b)
3
c)
5
d)
4
81.
What is the name of the subunit that builds a DNA polymer?
a)
Nucleotide
b)
Nucleic acid
c)
Nitrogenous base
d)
Nucelosome
82.
Which of the following is a correct difference between RNA and DNA?
a)
RNA is single stranded and DNA is double stranded
b)
RNA is double stranded and DNA is single stranded
c)
DNA uses Uracil and RNA uses Thymine
d)
RNA has deoxyribose and DNA has ribose
83.
What did Watson and Crick learn from Rosalind Franklin's image?
a)
DNA is helical
b)
The bases are on the outside
c)
The sugar-phosphates are on the inside
d)
The bases pair in random order
84.
How did Watson and Crick discover the structure of DNA?
a)
Through building and testing models
b)
Through doing experiments with X-ray diffraction
c)
Through analysis of published scientific papers
d)
Through working cooperatively with Wilkins and Franklin
85.
What type of bond forms between nucleotides that make up the backbone of the DNA molecule?
a)
Covalent
b)
Hydrogen
c)
Ionic
d)
Metallic
86.
What did Chargaff's ratio show Watson and Crick?
a)
The ratio of purines to pyrimidines is 1:1
b)
There are more purines than pyrimidines
c)
There are more pyrimidines to purines
d)
There is always more adenine in a molecule of DNA
87.
Which of the following is NOT true about scientific models?
a)
Models alone can lead to discoveres
b)
Models enable scientists to visualize their ideas
c)
Models can be adapted and changed based on new evidence
d)
Models can show a structure in 3 dimensions
88.
How many hydrogen bonds form between cytosine and thymine?
a)
0
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
89.
What does DNA stand for?
a)
Deoxyribonucleic acid
b)
Denitrogenous acid
c)
Deribonucleic acid
d)
Diribonucleic acid
90.

What is DNA and RNA made up of?

a)

Nucleotides

b)

Monosaccharides

c)

Polysaccharides

d)

Sugars

91.

What are long chains of nucleotides called?

a)

Polyneucleotides

b)

Polysaccharides

c)

Long chains

d)

Polyaminoacids

92.

Which of the following are nucleotides NOT made up of?

a)

A carbon compound

b)

A sugar

c)

A phosphate group

d)

A nitrogen-containing base

93.

What shape is DNA?

a)

A double helix

b)

A single strand

c)

A pleated sheet

d)

An omega helix

94.

How many polynucleotide chains make up DNA?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

95.

What does DNA stand for?

a)

Deoxyribonucleic acid

b)

Ribonucleic acid

c)

Deoxynucleic acid

d)

Nucleic acid

96.

What does RNA stand for?

a)

Deoxyribonucleic acid

b)

Ribonucleic acid

c)

Deoxynucleic acid

d)

Nucleic acid

97.

How many polynucleotide chains make up RNA?

a)

2

b)

1

c)

3

d)

4

98.

What four nitrogen base pairs make up DNA?

a)

Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Cytosine

b)

Adenine, Uracil, Guanine, Cytosine

c)

Adenine, Thymine, Glucose, Cytosine

d)

Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Fructose

99.

What four nitrogen base pairs make up RNA?

a)

Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Cytosine

b)

Adenine, Uracil, Guanine, Cytosine

c)

Adenine, Thymine, Glucose, Cytosine

d)

Adenine, Thymine, Guanine, Fructose

100.

What base pair does Adenine (A) bind with in DNA?

a)

Guanine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Thymine

d)

Uracil

101.

What base pair does Guanine (G) bind with in both DNA and RNA?

a)

Guanine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Thymine

d)

Uracil

102.

What base pair does Adenine (A) bind with in RNA?

a)

Guanine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Thymine

d)

Uracil

103.

What base pair does Adenine (A) bind with in RNA?

a)

Guanine

b)

Cytosine

c)

Thymine

d)

Uracil

104.

How would you read the second strand to this first strand? 5'-ATTGACC-3’

a)

3’-TAACTGG-5’

b)

5’-TAACTGG-3’

c)

3'-CGGTCAA-5'

d)

5'-CGGTCAA-3'

105.

Which is NOT a way RNA differs from DNA?

a)

Contains a single strand

b)

Contains Uracil (U) instead of Thymine (T)

c)

Contains the sugar ribose

d)

Contains an extra nitrogen base

106.

The diagram represents transcription and translation. What structures do the letters X and Y represent?

a)

X: DNA

Y: anticodon

b)

X: mRNA

Y: anticodon

c)

X: DNA

Y: codon

d)

X: mRNA

Y: codon

107.

For what did Meselson and Stahl’s work provide evidence?

a)

The abiotic origin of organic molecules

b)

The cell theory

c)

The fluid mosaic model of membrane structure

d)

The semi-conservative replication of DNA

108.

The gene that codes for a particular polypeptide includes the base sequence shown.

GAGTACCCT

What is the base sequence of the mRNA molecule which is complementary to this sequence?

a)

GAGTACCCT

b)

CTCATGGGA

c)

GUGTUCCCT

d)

CUCAUGGGA

109.

Where are amino acids joined together to make polypeptides?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Ribosomes

110.

The table shows some codons for five amino acids. Which of these DNA strands will code for the amino acid sequence glycine-serine-glycine?

a)

CCUUCGCCG

b)

CCTTCGCCG

c)

GGAAGCGGA

d)

CCUUCGCCU

111.

What do DNA replication, transcription and translation have in common?

a)

Take place in cell nucleus

b)

Require free nucleotides

c)

Catalysed by polymerase

d)

Complementary base pairing

112.

Meselson and Stahl conducted experiments using the isotopes 14N and 15N which showed that DNA replication is semi-conservative. What would they have observed about the distribution of isotopes in the DNA after one round of replication if DNA replication was conservative rather than semi-conservative?

a)

Only 14N DNA

b)

Only 15N DNA

c)

All DNA half 14N and half 15N

d)

Half the DNA with only 14N and half with only 15N

113.

Which are necessary to make DNA replication semi-conservative?

I. Separation of the strands by RNA polymerase

II. Complementary base pairing

III. Use of a pre-existing strand as a template

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

114.

This is a sequence of nucleotides from a section of mRNA.

AUGAAACGCACGCAG

From which DNA sequence has it been transcribed?

a)

ATGAAACGCACGCAG

b)

UACUUUGCGUGCGAC

c)

TACUUUGCGTGCGTC

d)

TACTTTGCGTGCGTC

115.

Which compound is a waste product of anaerobic respiration in humans?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Ethanol

c)

Lactate

d)

Pyruvate

116.

Yeast cells, Saccharomyces cerevisiae, were incubated with and without glucose at three different temperatures for a period of four minutes, during which the rate of CO2 production was measured with a CO2 sensor. What conclusion can be drawn from the results of this experiment?

a)

Yeast uses lipids rather than glucose in respiration at low temperatures.

b)

Addition of glucose has a greater impact on rates of cell respiration at lower temperatures.

c)

Rates of cell respiration increase with temperature.

d)

More glucose is produced at higher temperatures.

117.

Which process causes ADP to change to ATP?

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

DNA replication

d)

Anaerobic cell respiration

118.

The graph shows the changes in lactate and pyruvate measured in an athlete’s blood during and following a mild exercise period as compared to the period before the exercise. What do these curves suggest?

a)

Before the exercise, there was no pyruvate produced because there was no cell respiration.

b)

During the exercise, there was not enough oxygen available for cell respiration, so the process was partly anaerobic.

c)

During the exercise, the level of lactate increased due to aerobic respiration.

d)

After the exercise, the level of lactate decreased because there was enough pyruvate to be used for anaerobic cell respiration.

119.

Which pair of molecules are products of aerobic and anaerobic cell respiration in some organisms?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

120.

What describes anaerobic cell respiration?

a)

Glucose break down to pyruvate

b)

Carbon dioxide fixation

c)

No ATP formation

d)

Occurs in the mitochondrion

121.

The products of photosynthesis include

a)

water and carbon dioxide.

b)

glucose and oxygen.

c)

oxygen and carbon dioxide.

d)

carbon dioxide and glucose.

122.

The energy that drives photosynthesis comes from

a)

the sun.

b)

geothermal heat.

c)

muscle contractions.

d)

chemical energy.

123.

Light dependent reactions use light energy to produce

a)

ATP and oxygen.

b)

carbon dioxide.

c)

water and oxygen.

d)

glucose.

124.

Longer wavelengths are at the _______ end of the visible light spectrum.

a)

blue

b)

red

125.

This graph could represent (check all that apply:

a)

The effect of light intensity on the rate of photosynthesis.

b)

The effect of carbon dioxide concentration on the rate of photosynthesis.

c)

The effect of temperature on the rate of photosynthesis.

126.

The plateau on this graph is due to

a)

another limiting factor is limiting rate of photosynthesis.

b)

the light is becoming too bright for photosynthesis to occur.

c)

the optimum light intensity has been reached.

127.

T/F: If control variables limit photosynthesis, it may not be possible to see the impact of the limiting factor being investigated.

a)

true

b)

false

128.

Select the two REACTANTS of photosynthesis.

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

glucose

d)

water

129.

Select the two PRODUCTS of photosynthesis.

a)

oxygen

b)

carbon dioxide

c)

glucose

d)

water

130.

The graph shows the relationship between rate of photosynthesis and light intensity as influenced by both temperature and CO2 concentration.

What conclusion can be drawn from the data in the graph?

a)

CO2 is always the limiting factor at low light intensities and temperatures.

b)

Light intensity is only the limiting factor at high light intensities

c)

Temperature is only the limiting factor at high light intensities and CO2

concentrations.

d)

Both temperature and light intensity are limiting factors at 660 ppm CO2 and

less than 200 W m–2 light intensity.

131.

What are final products of photosynthesis and of aerobic respiration?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

132.

What is the relative wavelength in the visible spectrum of red light and blue light and are these colours absorbed or reflected by chlorophyll?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

133.

The graph shows the effect of increasing light intensity on the rate of CO2 [1 mark] uptake by a species of green plant maintained in conditions of constant temperature and CO2 concentration. Which statement is consistent with the graph?

a)

Photosynthesis stops at high light intensity

b)

Rates of photosynthesis increase with temperature.

c)

Cell respiration leads to net production of CO2 at low light intensity.

d)

There is a negative correlation between CO2 uptake and light intensity.

134.

How can the rate of photosynthesis be measured?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

135.

What is a feature of shorter wavelength visible radiation?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

136.

An experiment was set up so that each test tube contained water at a pH [1 mark] of 6.3 and a pH indicator. Test tubes 1 and 2 also contained a common

pond autotroph. Carbon dioxide dissolves in water and forms carbonic acid. After three days the four test tubes were found to have these results. What conclusion can be drawn from test tube 1 and test tube 2?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

137.

The graph shows the absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b. What can be concluded from the graph?

a)

Both chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b absorb a large amount of green light

b)

Chlorophyll b absorbs red light more efficiently than blue light

c)

Other pigments must absorb light between blue and red in the spectrum

d)

Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b have different absorption peaks

138.

Light independent reactions use ATP and H+ to fix _______ to make ______.

a)

oxygen; glucose

b)

carbon dioxide, glucose

c)

oxygen; water

d)

carbon dioxide; water

139.

Light energy splits a water molecule into 4H+, 4e-, and O2 in a process called

a)

photolysis.

b)

hydrolysis.

c)

oxidation.

d)

reduction.

140.

The action spectrum represents the

a)

rate of photosynthesis.

b)

absorbance of light.

141.
At approximately which wavelength does chlorophyll a absorb most light?
a)
660 nm
b)
640 nm
c)
455 nm
d)
425 nm
142.
Which of the pigments in found in chlorophyll is most efficient at lower wavelengths?
a)
Chlorophyll A
b)
Chlorophyll B
c)
Carotenoids
d)
All three are equally efficient
143.

Light energy is used to......

a)

split water into H and O

b)

fix C, H and O together

c)

warm plants up

d)

during the light independent reactions of photosynthesis

144.
If an aquatic plant is placed into a test tube with water near a light source, what will it produce?
a)
Glucose and Oxygen
b)
Carbon dioxide and ATP
c)
Water and Oxygen
d)
Glucose and ATP
145.

A leaf is green. What does this tell you about the light that is being absorbed?

a)

The light is a UV ray.

b)

The light is not a part of the light spectrum.

c)

All colors are reflected except green.

d)

All colors are absorbed except green

146.

What is the function of NADPH and ATP?

a)

They absorb light

b)

They power the light-dependent reactions

c)

They are light-reflecting pigments

d)

They are short term energy carriers

147.

Which of the following is NOT a product of the light-dependent reactions?

a)

ATP

b)

NADPH

c)

Oxygen

d)

Glucose

148.

Which of the following best describes photosynthesis?

a)

Photosynthesis converts radiant energy into chemical energy.

b)

Photosynthesis produces carbohydrates.

c)

Plants need sunlight, carbon dioxide, water, nutrients, and chlorophyll to complete photosynthesis.

d)

Plants use chlorophyll, water, and carbon dioxide to make sugar.

149.

The order of the colors of light that chlorophyll absorbs best is (list from greatest to least)

a)

blue, red, green

b)

red, blue, green

c)

green, red, blue

d)

red, green, blue

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