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Topic 2 Review

Total questions: 154

Worksheet time: 1hrs 17mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is not one of the big four macromolecules?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Water

c)

Proteins

d)

Lipids

2.

What theory did the synthesis of urea disprove?

a)

Vitalism

b)

Carbon Synthesis

c)

Spontaneous Generation

d)

The water complex

3.

Why are carbon compounds typically stable?

a)

They have 3 valence electrons, allowing them to form rings.

b)

They have 6 valence electrons, allowing them to form chains and rings.

c)

They have 2 valence electrons, allowing them to form chains.

d)

They have 4 valence electrons, allowing them to form chains and rings.

4.

If a macromolecule contains phosphorus, it is most likely a...

a)

Lipid

b)

Nucleic Acid

c)

Protein

d)

Carbohydrtate

5.

This reaction is an example of...

a)

Anabolic metabolism

b)

Catabolic metabolism

6.

This reaction is an example of...

a)

Anabolic metabolism

b)

Catabolic metabolism

7.

What reaction allows catabolism to happen?

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Dehydration synthesis

8.

Where is energy stored in a molecule?

a)

In the nucleus

b)

In the bonds between molecules

c)

In the air outside the molecule

d)

In the neutrons

9.

This molecule is a ...

a)

nucleic acid

b)

carbohydrate

c)

lipid

d)

protein

10.

The image is a...

a)

Nucleic Acid

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Lipid

d)

Protein

11.

This molecule is an example of a...

a)

Lipid

b)

Protein

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Nucleic Acid

12.

Water's structure is...

a)

Polar, meaning that is has a negative and positive side

b)

Nonpolar, meaning that is has a negative and positive side

c)

Polar, meaning that it has an overall neutral charge

d)

Nonolar, meaning that it has an overall neutral charge

13.

The bonds between oxygen and hydrogen in a water molecule are...

a)

Ionic

b)

Covalent

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Metallic

14.

Bonds that form between water molecules or water and polar molecules are...

a)

Metallic Bonds

b)

Ionic Bonds

c)

Covalent Bonds

d)

Hydrogen bonds

15.

Which property of water allows it to travel up plants easily?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Thermal

c)

Solvent

d)

Hydrophobic

16.

Lipids are hydrophobic because they are...

a)

Polar

b)

Ionic

c)

Nonpolar

d)

Salts

17.

Glucose is a polar molecule. It would travel through the body in...

a)

The buffy coat of blood.

b)

Via red blood cell by attaching to hemoglobin.

c)

The plasma of the blood.

18.

The molecule that attaches to the enzyme is called the...

a)

Attaching Molecule

b)

Product

c)

Substrate

d)

ATP

19.

Enzymes are a...

a)

Lipid

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Nucleic Acid

d)

Protein

20.

Unlike chemical catalysts, enzymes are...

a)

More generalized and can catalyze many reactions.

b)

Specific to their substrate's shape.

c)

Only able to catalyze two reactions at a time.

21.

Which of the following impact enzyme activity?

a)

Temperature

b)

Product Concentration

c)

pH

d)

Substrate Concentration

22.

Which of the following can denature an enzyme?

a)

Too many substrates

b)

Too high of a pH outside of the ideal range

c)

Too low of a pH outside of the ideal range

d)

To low of a temperature

23.

What is the benefit to living organisms that water has a high specific heat capacity?

a)

Heat can be lost from the skin when sweat evaporates.

b)

Aquatic environments do not have a great fluctuation in their temperature.

c)

The amount of heat stored by water is highly predictable.

d)

It allows water to be a solvent for chemical reactions at body temperature.

24.

What is the term for the attraction of water molecules to other water molecules?

a)

Surface tension

b)

Capillary action

c)

Cohesion

d)

Adhesion

25.

What is a property of water?

a)

Water has a low specific heat capacity so large increases in heat energy cause a small temperature change.

b)

Water is an excellent solvent for non-polar substances.

c)

Covalent bonds between adjacent water molecules are responsible for its unique properties.

d)

Water molecules are highly cohesive which is important for transport in xylem.

26.

Which substance must be transported in the blood by lipoprotein complexes?

a)

Cholesterol

b)

Oxygen

c)

Sodium chloride

d)

Amino acids

27.

Where do hydrogen bonds form?

a)

Between the slight negative charge of hydrogen and slight positive charge of oxygen within a water molecule

b)

Between the slight positive charge of hydrogen and slight negative charge of oxygen within a water molecule

c)

Between the slight positive charge of hydrogen and slight negative charge of oxygen in different water molecules

d)

Between the slight negative charge of hydrogen and slight positive charge of oxygen in different water molecules

28.

Researchers have developed a skin patch which can detect and measure very small concentrations of ions, sugars, amino acids, proteins and hormones which remain when sweat evaporates. What allows the presence of these substances in sweat?

a)

Cohesion

b)

Hydrophobic interactions

c)

Solvent properties

d)

Thermal properties

29.

At room temperature, water is a liquid and methane is a gas. Which molecular property explains this difference?

a)

Higher molecular mass of water

b)

Dipolarity of water

c)

Presence of more hydrogen in methane

d)

Higher boiling point of methane

30.

Which property of water accounts for its moderating effects on the Earth’s atmosphere?

a)

Cohesive

b)

Thermal

c)

Transparency

d)

Adhesive

31.

Which properties explain the ability of water to dissolve solutes?

I. Polarity of water molecules        II. High specific heat capacity of water  III. Hydrogen bonding

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

32.

Which molecule is depicted in the diagram?

a)

A saturated Fatty Acid

b)

An Unsaturated Fatty Acid

c)

A trans fat

d)

A vegetable oil

33.

The table shows the range and classification of body mass index (BMI) values, as shown in the nomogram. What is the approximate reduction in body mass that a person of height 155cm and mass 95kg would have to lose to reach normal body mass? (remember, you can click on the image to see it better)

a)

10kg

b)

22kg

c)

36kg

d)

54kg

34.

What distinguishes cellulose from glycogen and starch?

a)

Only cellulose is found in plants.

b)

Only cellulose is made up of glucose monomers.

c)

Cellulose is far more branched than starch and glycogen.

d)

Cellulose has a structural role whereas starch and glycogen function in energy storage.

35.

The chart classifies individuals according to their height and mass. Based on the information provided, which individual is most at risk of diseases associated with the accumulation of excessive body fat?

a)

Mass: 95kg, Height: 1.95m

b)

Mass: 60kg, Height: 1.55m

c)

Mass: 75kg, Height: 1.50m

d)

Mass: 80kg, Height: 1.70m

36.

The chart shows ranges of body mass index (BMI) for children and teenagers. A 9-year-old boy has a height of 120 cm and weighs 28.8 kg. What weight category is he in according to his BMI?

a)

Underweight

b)

Healthy

c)

Overweight

d)

Obese

37.

Which of the molecules shown would be most suitable for long-term energy storage in humans?

a)
b)
c)
d)
38.

What type of molecule is formed by the chemical reaction shown in the diagram?

a)

Dipeptide

b)

Disaccharide

c)

Diglyceride

d)

Cellulose

39.

The diagram shows a type of fatty acid. What type of fatty acid is shown?

a)

Trans unsaturated

b)

Cis unsaturated

c)

Trans saturated

d)

Cis saturated

40.

Which type(s) of fatty acid in the diet is/are positively correlated with an increased risk of coronary heart disease?

I.   Saturated

II.  Trans unsaturated

III. Cis unsaturated

a)

I only 

b)

I and II only

c)

II only

d)

II and III only

41.

Which molecule represents a lipid?

a)
b)
c)
d)
42.

The Framingham heart study was an observational study that went on for 20 years. The following data were produced. Which conclusion can be drawn, based on these data?

a)

It is better to eat margarine than to eat butter.

b)

The more margarine consumed, the greater the incidence of coronary heart disease.

c)

Butter is a natural product whereas margarine is hydrogenated vegetable oil that leads to coronary heart disease.

d)

Margarine causes more heart related deaths than butter.

43.

Which type of reaction is the breakdown of starch into sugars?

a)

Denaturation

b)

Reduction

c)

Catabolic

d)

Condensation

44.

The diagram shows a molecular structure. Which type of molecule is shown?

a)

Amino acid

b)

Lipid

c)

Carbohydrate

d)

Nucleotide

45.

What molecule is this?

a)

Galactose

b)

Glucose

c)

Fructose

46.

What molecule is this?

a)

Glucose

b)

Fructose

c)

Galactose

47.

What molecule is this?

a)

Glucose

b)

Galactose

c)

Fructose

48.

What molecule is this?

a)

Lactose

b)

Glucose

c)

Maltose

d)

Sucrose

49.

What molecule is this?

a)

Maltose

b)

Lactose

c)

Glucose

d)

Sucrose

50.

What molecule is this?

a)

Sucrose

b)

Lactose

c)

Maltose

d)

Glucose

51.

What polysaccharide is this?

a)

Glycogen

b)

Starch

c)

Cellulose

52.

What polysaccharide is this?

a)

Glycogen

b)

Starch

c)

Cellulose

53.

What type of polysaccharide is this?

a)

Starch

b)

Glycogen

c)

Cellulose

54.

People who suffer from night blindness cannot see well at night because their retinal cells produce an abnormal form of a protein pigment. Which protein is this?

a)

Fibrin

b)

Myosin

c)

Rhodopsin

d)

Immunoglobulin

55.

What is found in insulin molecules?

a)

Phosphates

b)

Nucleotides

c)

Peptide bonds

d)

Glycerol

56.

The graph shows the results of an investigation into the activity of turnip peroxidase. The accumulation of the product of the reaction catalysed by the enzyme is shown at different pH values. Based on the data in the graph, what is most probably the optimum pH for turnip peroxidase?

a)

Between 3 and 5

b)

Between 10 and 11

c)

Between 7 and 8

d)

Between 9 and 10

57.

Which statement correctly describes genome and proteome?

a)

Only the genome but not the proteome can be analyzed using gel electrophoresis.

b)

The genome and the proteome are the same in all tissues in an organism.

c)

In cells of different tissues, the genome is the same while the proteome varies.

d)

Only mutations in the proteome but not in the genome cause any variability.

58.

Which protein has the highest tensile strength (ability to resist breaking when stretched)?

a)

Cellulose

b)

Actin

c)

Spider Silk

d)

Albumin

59.

Which description matches the protein?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

60.

Which molecule could be hydrolyzed into amino acids?

a)
b)
c)
d)
61.

How does the proteome of a species contain a larger number of proteins than genes that code for these proteins?

a)

Some proteins have more than one polypeptide chain.

b)

There are genes that code for several proteins.

c)

Not all proteins are coded for by the genome.

d)

Some proteins are coded for by other proteins.

62.

The most abundant structural protein in the human body is found in ligaments and skin. What is the name of this protein?

a)

Collagen

b)

Hemoglobin

c)

Myoglobin

d)

Immunoglobulin

63.

What does "hydrolyzed" mean?

a)

To break apart by taking out water

b)

To put together by taking out water

c)

To break apart using water

d)

To put together using water

64.

Amino acids are different from carbohydrates and lipids because they contain....

a)

Carbon

b)

Nitrogen

c)

Hydrogen

d)

Oxygen

65.

What is the proteome?

a)

A library of all of the proteins an organism can make. This is larger than the genome because certain sections of genes can code for many proteins.

b)

A library of all of the DNA an organism can make. This is larger than the genome because certain sections of genes can code for many DNA strands.

c)

A library of all of the amino acids an organism can make. This is larger than the genome because certain sections of genes can code for many individual amino acids.

d)

A library of all of the RNA an organism can make. This is larger than the genome because certain sections of genes can code for many bacterial strands.

66.

Collagen is an example of a....

a)

antibody protein

b)

enzyme protein

c)

structural protein

d)

light absorption protein

67.

Immunoglobulins is an example of a....

a)

antibody protein

b)

enzyme protein

c)

structural protein

d)

light absorption protein

68.

If a protein is denatured, it....

a)

goes through a condensation reaction

b)

changes the order of amino acids

c)

rebonds to other molecules

d)

loses it's 3D structure

69.

How many molecules of water are required to completely hydrolyze a polypeptide made up of 15 amino acids?

a)

13

b)

14

c)

15

d)

16

70.

The graph shows enzyme activity plotted against temperature. What is the reason for the drop in enzyme activity above 40 °C?

a)

A decrease in the enzyme concentration

b)

Reaction is saturated because active sites are occupied

c)

Insufficient activation energy for the reaction to proceed

d)

Changes to the conformation of the enzyme

71.

Which curve shows the concentration of product during the course of an enzyme-catalysed reaction?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

72.

Lactose can be removed from milk by passing the milk through a column of alginate beads to which immobilized lactase is bound. What is an advantage of immobilizing the enzyme?

a)

It creates more active sites.

b)

The alginate beads act as a coenzyme.

c)

It lowers the activation energy of the reaction.

d)

It allows the product to be separated easily from the enzyme.

73.

Which statement applies to enzymes?

a)

Enzyme function depends on collisions between substrate and active sites.

b)

One active site typically binds to a broad range of substrates.

c)

The active site on the substrate is specific to one enzyme.

d)

When enzymes are immobilized they stop working.

74.

Which enzyme is matched to its function?

a)

Helicase forms a DNA helix

b)

DNA polymerase forms a covalent bond between DNA nucleotides

c)

restriction endonuclease seals nicks in recombinant DNA

d)

Ligase unwinds the double helix.

75.

What effect do changes in pH have on enzymes?

a)

All enzymes increase in activity as pH increases.

b)

The activity of all enzymes is reduced by a pH below or above 7.

c)

Low pH causes reversible denaturation in all enzymes.

d)

Extreme pH can alter the active site of all enzymes.

76.

Lactose intolerance occurs when the enzyme, lactase, that digests lactose is not produced after infancy in humans. The incidence of lactose intolerance varies in different racial groups. The graph shows the distribution of lactose intolerance in different human populations. What can be hypothesized from the graph?

a)

Native American people produce most lactase after infancy.

b)

Most Indian people do not produce lactase after infancy.

c)

Lactase is not produced after infancy in most Caucasian people.

d)

One quarter of Afro-Caribbean people will probably experience digestive problems when drinking milk.

77.

Living organisms control pH within their tissues. What is a reason for regulating pH?

a)

All parts of a body must be kept at the same pH to survive.

b)

Many reactions can only happen at specific pH levels.

c)

pH affects osmosis.

d)

Control of active transport is achieved by pH.

78.

What is the advantage of using lactase in an immobilized state in the food manufacturing industry?

a)

It functions within cells.

b)

It dissolves in multiple solvents.

c)

It converts cellulose into glucose.

d)

It is less likely to become denatured.

79.

Three flasks were prepared for an analysis of the activity of amylase. At time zero, each of the substances indicated in the diagrams was added. Which flask(s) could provide support for the hypothesis that heat denatures enzymes?

a)

Flasks I and II after 15 minutes

b)

Flasks II and III after 15 minutes

c)

Flasks I and III after 15 minutes

d)

Flask III at time zero and again after 15 minutes

80.

The graph shows the effect of increasing the substrate concentration on the rate of an enzyme-catalysed reaction. What is occurring during the phase indicated by section Y of the graph?

a)

The active site of the enzyme is saturated.

b)

The enzyme becomes denatured.

c)

The substrate concentration has risen too high.

d)

The optimum rate is reached.

81.

In an experiment the effect of changing pH on an enzymatic reaction is tested. Which could be a dependent variable in this kind of experiment?

a)

Changing substrate concentration

b)

Rate of formation of product

c)

Variation in temperature

d)

Change in pH

82.

A fever in a normally healthy adult during an illness is not usually a problem and can be regarded as a defence mechanism. However, a fever higher than 41°C might be dangerous. What is the cause of the possible damage due to a high fever?

a)

Loss of body mass

b)

Muscle damage due to shivering

c)

Overactive metabolic enzymes

d)

Spread of infection

83.

What is the minimum number of nucleotides needed to code for a polypeptide composed of 210 amino acids?

a)

70

b)

210

c)

420

d)

630

84.

Which reaction occurs when a dipeptide is formed from amino acids?

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Condensation

c)

Transcription

d)

Oxidation

85.

A molecule of DNA is found to contain 200 guanine bases, representing 25 % of the total number of bases. How many phosphate groups does this molecule of DNA contain?

a)

50

b)

200

c)

800

d)

1000

86.

What is a function of the enzyme helicase?

a)

It coils DNA up into a double helical shape.

b)

It links DNA nucleotides in a new DNA strand.

c)

It breaks hydrogen bonds between the DNA strands.

d)

It forms temporary hydrogen bonds to produce messenger RNA.

87.

What is the correct arrangement for the components of one strand in a DNA molecule?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

88.

The data shows part of the genetic code for mRNA. Which anticodon could be found on a tRNA molecule bonded to lysine?

a)

AAG

b)

UUC

c)

TTT

d)

GAA

89.

The hydrolysis of a pure sample of an organic molecule produces a pentose sugar, thymine, guanine and cytosine. What other substances could be expected to be present in the hydrolysed sample?

a)

RNA

b)

Uracil

c)

Phosphate

d)

ATP

90.

Bacteria cultured in a medium containing only 15N were transferred to a medium containing only 14N and allowed to complete one round of replication. The DNA in bacteria produced as a result of replication on the 14N medium was extracted and subjected to caesium chloride centrifugation which separates DNA molecules according to their density. Which centrifuge tube shows the arrangement of bands observed after one round of replication?

a)

Tube 3

b)

Tube 4

c)

Tube 5

d)

Tube 6

91.

Which feature is common to both mRNA and DNA?

a)

Covalent bonds between adjacent nucleotides

b)

Hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine

c)

Ribose sugar attached to phosphate

d)

Antiparallel arrangement of polynucleotide strands

92.

What is the reason for Taq DNA polymerase being used in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

a)

It does not denature at high temperatures.

b)

It produces Okazaki fragments more rapidly.

c)

It allows translation to proceed rapidly.

d)

It works efficiently with helicase in PCR.

93.

The diagram represents transcription and translation. What structures do the letters X and Y represent?

a)

X = DNA, Y = AntiCodon

b)

X = mRNA, Y = AntiCodon

c)

X = DNA, Y = codon

d)

X = mRNA, Y = codon

94.

For what did Meselson and Stahl’s work provide evidence?

a)

The abiotic origin of organic molecules

b)

The cell theory

c)

The fluid mosaic model of membrane structure

d)

The semi-conservative replication of DNA

95.

The gene that codes for a particular polypeptide includes the base sequence shown.

GAGTACCCT

What is the base sequence of the mRNA molecule which is complementary to this sequence?

a)

GAGTACCCT

b)

CTCATGGGA

c)

GUGTUCCCT

d)

CUCAUGGGA

96.

Where are amino acids joined together to make polypeptides?

a)

Nucleus

b)

Nucleolus

c)

Golgi apparatus

d)

Ribosomes

97.

The table shows some codons for five amino acids. Which of these DNA strands will code for the amino acid sequence glycine-serine-glycine?

a)

CCUUCGCCG

b)

CCTTCGCCG

c)

GGAAGCGGA

d)

CCUUCGCCU

98.

Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides. What parts of nucleotides are joined together in both DNA and RNA to make these polymers?

a)

Large nitrogenous bases with small nitrogenous bases

b)

Nitrogenous bases with hexose sugars

c)

Nitrogenous bases with phosphates

d)

Pentose sugars with phosphates

99.

What do DNA replication, transcription and translation have in common?

a)

Take place in cell nucleus

b)

Require free nucleotides

c)

Catalysed by polymerase

d)

Complementary base pairing

100.

Some yeast genes can be replaced by human genes that then continue to produce the same human proteins in the yeast cells. Which statement helps to explain this evidence?

a)

The DNA of yeast and humans is identical.

b)

Yeast and humans have the same number of chromosomes.

c)

The genetic code is universal.

d)

Yeast and humans are both eukaryotes.

101.

For which discovery about DNA do Watson and Crick receive credit?

a)

DNA is the molecule that genes are made of.

b)

The amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine in an organism.

c)

Phosphate–pentose bonding along the nucleotide backbone is covalent.

d)

The shape of DNA is a double helix.

102.

Which sequence of bases and amino acids could be produced by transcription and translation of the DNA molecule shown?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

103.

The table shows the genetic code.

Which mRNA could code for the sequence Met-Ser-Leu-Arg-Phe?

a)

AUG UCA UCG UGG UUU

b)

AUG UCC ACC AGA UUC

c)

AUG UCU CCC AGA UUU

d)

AUG UCG CUG AGG UUC

104.

Meselson and Stahl conducted experiments using the isotopes 14N and 15N which showed that DNA replication is semi-conservative. What would they have observed about the distribution of isotopes in the DNA after one round of replication if DNA replication was conservative rather than semi-conservative?

a)

Only 14N DNA

b)

Only 15N DNA

c)

All DNA half 14N and half 15N

d)

Half the DNA with only 14N and half with only 15N

105.

Which are necessary to make DNA replication semi-conservative?

I. Separation of the strands by RNA polymerase

II. Complementary base pairing

III. Use of a pre-existing strand as a template

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

106.

What is a similarity between DNA and RNA?

a)

Both are polymers of nucleotides.

b)

Both are composed of antiparallel strands.

c)

Both contain adenine, cytosine and thymine.

d)

Both contain ribose sugar.

107.

What enables bacteria to produce human growth hormone?

a)

DNA replication is semi-conservative.

b)

The polymerase chain reaction can be used.

c)

They need the hormone for growth.

d)

The genetic code is universal.

108.

What is the minimum number of nucleotides needed to code for a polypeptide composed of 210 amino acids?

a)

70

b)

210

c)

420

d)

630

109.

Which reaction occurs when a dipeptide is formed from amino acids?

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Condensation

c)

Transcription

d)

Oxidation

110.

A molecule of DNA is found to contain 200 guanine bases, representing 25 % of the total number of bases. How many phosphate groups does this molecule of DNA contain?

a)

50

b)

200

c)

800

d)

1000

111.

What is a function of the enzyme helicase?

a)

It coils DNA up into a double helical shape.

b)

It links DNA nucleotides in a new DNA strand.

c)

It breaks hydrogen bonds between the DNA strands.

d)

It forms temporary hydrogen bonds to produce messenger RNA.

112.

What is the correct arrangement for the components of one strand in a DNA molecule?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

113.

The data shows part of the genetic code for mRNA. Which anticodon could be found on a tRNA molecule bonded to lysine?

a)

AAG

b)

UUC

c)

TTT

d)

GAA

114.

The hydrolysis of a pure sample of an organic molecule produces a pentose sugar, thymine, guanine and cytosine. What other substances could be expected to be present in the hydrolysed sample?

a)

RNA

b)

Uracil

c)

Phosphate

d)

ATP

115.

Bacteria cultured in a medium containing only 15N were transferred to a medium containing only 14N and allowed to complete one round of replication. The DNA in bacteria produced as a result of replication on the 14N medium was extracted and subjected to caesium chloride centrifugation which separates DNA molecules according to their density. Which centrifuge tube shows the arrangement of bands observed after one round of replication?

a)

Tube 3

b)

Tube 4

c)

Tube 5

d)

Tube 6

116.

Which feature is common to both mRNA and DNA?

a)

Covalent bonds between adjacent nucleotides

b)

Hydrogen bonds between guanine and cytosine

c)

Ribose sugar attached to phosphate

d)

Antiparallel arrangement of polynucleotide strands

117.

What is the reason for Taq DNA polymerase being used in the polymerase chain reaction (PCR)?

a)

It does not denature at high temperatures.

b)

It produces Okazaki fragments more rapidly.

c)

It allows translation to proceed rapidly.

d)

It works efficiently with helicase in PCR.

118.

The diagram represents transcription and translation. What structures do the letters X and Y represent?

a)

X = DNA, Y = AntiCodon

b)

X = mRNA, Y = AntiCodon

c)

X = DNA, Y = codon

d)

X = mRNA, Y = codon

119.

For what did Meselson and Stahl’s work provide evidence?

a)

The abiotic origin of organic molecules

b)

The cell theory

c)

The fluid mosaic model of membrane structure

d)

The semi-conservative replication of DNA

120.

The gene that codes for a particular polypeptide includes the base sequence shown.

GAGTACCCT

What is the base sequence of the mRNA molecule which is complementary to this sequence?

a)

GAGTACCCT

b)

CTCATGGGA

c)

GUGTUCCCT

d)

CUCAUGGGA

121.

The table shows some codons for five amino acids. Which of these DNA strands will code for the amino acid sequence glycine-serine-glycine?

a)

CCUUCGCCG

b)

CCTTCGCCG

c)

GGAAGCGGA

d)

CCUUCGCCU

122.

Nucleic acids are polymers of nucleotides. What parts of nucleotides are joined together in both DNA and RNA to make these polymers?

a)

Large nitrogenous bases with small nitrogenous bases

b)

Nitrogenous bases with hexose sugars

c)

Nitrogenous bases with phosphates

d)

Pentose sugars with phosphates

123.

Some yeast genes can be replaced by human genes that then continue to produce the same human proteins in the yeast cells. Which statement helps to explain this evidence?

a)

The DNA of yeast and humans is identical.

b)

Yeast and humans have the same number of chromosomes.

c)

The genetic code is universal.

d)

Yeast and humans are both eukaryotes.

124.

For which discovery about DNA do Watson and Crick receive credit?

a)

DNA is the molecule that genes are made of.

b)

The amount of adenine equals the amount of thymine in an organism.

c)

Phosphate–pentose bonding along the nucleotide backbone is covalent.

d)

The shape of DNA is a double helix.

125.

Which sequence of bases and amino acids could be produced by transcription and translation of the DNA molecule shown?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

126.

A short sequence of nucleotides reads GGACAGAGCGCAGACGA. In which type of molecule could this sequence be found?

a)

DNA molecule only

b)

RNA molecule only

c)

Both in a DNA and an RNA molecule

d)

In double-stranded DNA only

127.

The table shows the genetic code.

Which mRNA could code for the sequence Met-Ser-Leu-Arg-Phe?

a)

AUG UCA UCG UGG UUU

b)

AUG UCC ACC AGA UUC

c)

AUG UCU CCC AGA UUU

d)

AUG UCG CUG AGG UUC

128.

Meselson and Stahl conducted experiments using the isotopes 14N and 15N which showed that DNA replication is semi-conservative. What would they have observed about the distribution of isotopes in the DNA after one round of replication if DNA replication was conservative rather than semi-conservative?

a)

Only 14N DNA

b)

Only 15N DNA

c)

All DNA half 14N and half 15N

d)

Half the DNA with only 14N and half with only 15N

129.

Which are necessary to make DNA replication semi-conservative?

I. Separation of the strands by RNA polymerase

II. Complementary base pairing

III. Use of a pre-existing strand as a template

a)

I and II only

b)

I and III only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

130.

What is a similarity between DNA and RNA?

a)

Both are polymers of nucleotides.

b)

Both are composed of antiparallel strands.

c)

Both contain adenine, cytosine and thymine.

d)

Both contain ribose sugar.

131.

What enables bacteria to produce human growth hormone?

a)

DNA replication is semi-conservative.

b)

The polymerase chain reaction can be used.

c)

They need the hormone for growth.

d)

The genetic code is universal.

132.

The graph shows the changes in lactate measured in an athlete’s blood during exercise. Which hypothesis provides the most likely explanation for the curve?

a)

As exercise intensity increases, lactate is converted back to glucose.

b)

Anaerobic exercise results in high levels of lactate.

c)

Lactate provides energy for intense exercise.

d)

Under anaerobic conditions the body produces less lactate.

133.

A respirometer is used to measure the oxygen consumption of germinating seeds. The distance that the oil drop moves is measured at 15-minute intervals. What is the function of chemical X?

a)

Absorbs carbon dioxide so the oxygen released by the seeds can be measured

b)

Absorbs carbon dioxide so the oxygen absorbed by the seeds can be measured

c)

Absorbs oxygen so the carbon dioxide released by the seeds can be measured

d)

Absorbs oxygen so the carbon dioxide absorbed by the seeds can be measured

134.

What is a difference between aerobic respiration and anaerobic respiration in yeast?

a)

Anaerobic respiration requires enzymes, aerobic respiration does not.

b)

Anaerobic respiration requires glucose, aerobic respiration does not.

c)

Anaerobic respiration produces ethanol, aerobic respiration does not.

d)

Anaerobic respiration does not produce oxygen, aerobic respiration does.

135.

The graph shows the results of an experimental investigation that compared the rates at which lactose, glucose and galactose are broken down in the process of anaerobic cellular respiration by the yeast Torulopsis cremoris. What can be concluded from these results?

a)

Cellular respiration of lactose involves the production of glucose and galactose.

b)

The breakdown of glucose and galactose occurs more slowly in the presence of lactose.

c)

The rate of cellular respiration is greater for glucose than for lactose and galactose.

d)

The percentage of sugar remaining after 42 hours is greater for galactose than glucose.

136.

The diagram shows a respirometer. What solution should be in the bottom of each tube and in which direction will the manometer fluid move?

a)

Solution placed in the bottom of each tube: acid; direction of movement of fluid in the manometer: up on the left side

b)

Solution placed in the bottom of each tube: alkali; direction of movement of fluid in the manometer: down on the right side

c)

Solution placed in the bottom of each tube: acid; direction of movement of fluid in the manometer: up on the right side

d)

Solution placed in the bottom of each tube: alkali; direction of movement of fluid in the manometer: down on the left side

137.

Which compound is a waste product of anaerobic respiration in humans?

a)

Carbon dioxide

b)

Ethanol

c)

Lactate

d)

Pyruvate

138.

The diagram shows a respirometer used to measure respiration rate in germinating seeds. What is the expected direction of movement of the fluid at X and the function of the fluid at Y?

a)

X= down, Y=absorb CO2

b)

X= down, Y=produce CO2

c)

X= up Y=absorb CO2

d)

X= down, Y=absorb O2

139.

Yeast cells, Saccharomyces cerevisiae, were incubated with and without glucose at three different temperatures for a period of four minutes, during which the rate of CO2 production was measured with a CO2 sensor. What conclusion can be drawn from the results of this experiment?

a)

Yeast uses lipids rather than glucose in respiration at low temperatures.

b)

Addition of glucose has a greater impact on rates of cell respiration at lower temperatures.

c)

Rates of cell respiration increase with temperature.

d)

More glucose is produced at higher temperatures.

140.

Which process causes ADP to change to ATP?

a)

Hydrolysis

b)

Protein synthesis

c)

DNA replication

d)

Anaerobic cell respiration

141.

The graph shows the changes in lactate and pyruvate measured in an athlete’s blood during and following a mild exercise period as compared to the period before the exercise. What do these curves suggest?

a)

Before the exercise, there was no pyruvate produced because there was no cell respiration.

b)

During the exercise, there was not enough oxygen available for cell respiration, so the process was partly anaerobic.

c)

During the exercise, the level of lactate increased due to aerobic respiration.

d)

After the exercise, the level of lactate decreased because there was enough pyruvate to be used for anaerobic cell respiration.

142.

Which pair of molecules are products of aerobic and anaerobic cell respiration in some organisms?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

143.

The graph shows how the rate of photosynthesis of a green plant varies with CO2 concentration at two different light intensities. The temperature is kept constant at 20 °C. What is the limiting factor at X?

a)

Chlorophyll

b)

Light intensity

c)

Temperature

d)

CO2 concentration

144.

The apparatus shown was used to investigate the effect of varying carbon dioxide concentration on the rate of photosynthesis. Carbon dioxide concentrations were varied by adding different amounts of sodium hydrogen carbonate (NaHCO3) to water. What is the dependent variable in this investigation?

a)

Temperature

b)

Light intensity

c)

Amount of NaHCO3 added

d)

Volume of oxygen produced

145.

What prevents plants from converting carbon dioxide into glucose in the dark?

a)

They do not have a source of energy.

b)

It is too cold.

c)

They do not require glucose during the night.

d)

Their enzymes are inhibited.

146.

If a plant is exposed to light, which colour of light would lead to the lowest rate of oxygen release by a green plant?

a)

Blue

b)

Red

c)

Green

d)

White

147.

What does the Rf value in thin-layer chromatography represent?

a)

The distance travelled by the pigment front in a fixed time period

b)

The distance from the origin to the solvent front at the end of the experiment

c)

The ratio of distances travelled by the pigment and solvent fronts

d)

The concentration of the pigment applied to the chromatography plate

148.

Plants produce carbon dioxide in respiration and use carbon dioxide in photosynthesis. The graph shows the volume of carbon dioxide exchanged in a plant at different light intensities. What is shown by the graph?

a)

There is no photosynthesis between W and X.

b)

There is no photosynthesis between Y and Z.

c)

There is more respiration than photosynthesis between Y and Z.

d)

There is more respiration than photosynthesis between W and X.

149.

The graph shows the effect of increasing light intensity on the rate of CO2 uptake by a species of green plant maintained in conditions of constant temperature and CO2 concentration. Which statement is consistent with the graph?

a)

Photosynthesis stops at high light intensity.

b)

Rates of photosynthesis increase with temperature.

c)

Cell respiration leads to net production of CO2 at low light intensity.

d)

There is a negative correlation between CO2 uptake and light intensity.

150.

The graph shows the absorption spectra of chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b. What can be concluded from the graph?

a)

Both chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b absorb a large amount of green light

b)

Chlorophyll b absorbs red light more efficiently than blue light

c)

Other pigments must absorb light between blue and red in the spectrum

d)

Chlorophyll a and chlorophyll b have different absorption peaks

151.

The graph shows the relationship between rate of photosynthesis and light intensity as influenced by both temperature and CO2 concentration. What conclusion can be drawn from the data in the graph?

a)

CO2 is always the limiting factor at low light intensities and temperatures.

b)

Light intensity is only the limiting factor at high light intensities.

c)

Temperature is only the limiting factor at high light intensities and CO2 concentrations.

d)

Both temperature and light intensity are limiting factors at 660 ppm CO2 and less than 200 W m–2 light intensity.

152.

An experiment was set up so that each test tube contained water at a pH of 6.3 and a pH indicator. Test tubes 1 and 2 also contained a common pond autotroph. Carbon dioxide dissolves in water and forms carbonic acid. After three days the four test tubes were found to have these results. What conclusion can be drawn from test tube 1 and test tube 2?

a)

Test tube #1: photosynthesis has used CO2, test tube #2: respiration has produced CO2

b)

Test tube #1: photosynthesis has made the water more acidic, test tube #2: respiration has made the water less acidic

c)

Test tube #1: photosynthesis occurred but not respiration, test tube #2: respiration occurred but not photosynthesis

d)

No conclusion can be drawn, since pH in the controls has changed.

153.

What is the relative wavelength in the visible spectrum of red light and blue light and are these colours absorbed or reflected by chlorophyll?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

154.

The fungus Rhytisma grows on the leaves of certain trees, causing a yellow leaf area in which chlorophyll is no longer present. A black, tar-like stain later spreads out. What happens in the leaf when Rhytisma is present?

I. An increase in the intake of carbon dioxide

II. A reduction in the production of oxygen

III. An increase in the loss of water

a)

I only

b)

II only

c)

II and III only

d)

I, II and III

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