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Worksheets

F1 ACCA

Total questions: 137

Worksheet time: 2hrs 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The primary objective of profit organizations is to maximize profit

a)

True

b)

False

2.

The primary objective of Not-for-profit organizations is to reduce costs of their operations and thus minimize the burden on taxpayers.

a)

True

b)

false

3.

The primary objective of profit organizations is to maximize the output of goods or service.

a)

True

b)

false

4.

Charities would usually be classified as a type of non-governmental organisation (NGO)

a)

True

b)

false

5.

The interests of customers and shareholders can often appear to conflict – for example in the quality of goods and services.

a)

True

b)

False

6.

A company is using a communication strategy aimed at explaining the rationale behind its actions to its stakeholders. Using Mendelow’s matrix, these stakeholders would be categorised as ‘minimal effort’.

a)

True

b)

False

7.

Which of the following is NOT a key feature of an organisation?

a)

A. Controlled performance

b)

B. Collective goals  

c)

C. Social arrangements                                          

d)

D. Creation of a product or service

8.

Which of the following organisations is normally found in the public sector?

a)

A. Schools

b)

B. Charities

c)

C. Clubs                                                                    

d)

D. Businesses

9.

The public sector is normally concerned with:

a)

A. making profit from the sale of goods.

b)

B. providing services to specific groups funded from charitable donations.

c)

C. the provision of basic government services.

d)

D. raising funds by subscriptions from members to provide common services.

10.

A Co is a company which specialises in forestry. It has recently purchased B Co, which runs a chain of recreational resorts. A has allowed B to build several new resorts on land which is owned by A, but which it is no longer able to use. The resorts have proven highly profitable and popular. Which of the following best explains the reason for the improved performance of the combined entity?

a)

A. Specialisation

b)

B. Social interactivity

c)

C. Synergy

d)

D. Service

11.

“An organisation that is owned and democratically controlled by its members’? To which type of organisation does this definition relate?

a)

A. Charities

b)

B. Non-governmental organisations

c)

C. Co-operatives

d)

D. Private limited companies

12.

. Employees are ---- stakeholders, while finance providers are --- stakeholders. Which two words fill the gaps in the above sentence?

a)

A. Internal, Connected

b)

B. External, Internal

c)

C. Connected, Outsiders

d)

D. Internal, Suppliers

13.

Stakeholders can be classified in several different ways, including:

(i) Primary

(ii) (ii) External

(iii) Connected

(iv) (iv) Secondary

Which TWO categories would pressure groups usually be included within?

a)

A. (i) and (iii)

b)

B. (i) and (iv)

c)

C. (ii) and (iv)

d)

D. (iii) and (iv)

14.

According to Mendelow, which of the following is an appropriate approach to take towards stakeholders who have low levels of power and low levels of interest?

a)

A. minimal effort

b)

B. keep informed

c)

C. keep satisfied

d)

D. key players

15.

According to Mendelow, which of the following is an appropriate approach to take towards stakeholders who have high levels of power and low levels of interest?

a)

A. minimal effort

b)

B. keep informed

c)

C. keep satisfied

d)

D. key players

16.

According to Mendelow, which of the following is an appropriate approach to take towards stakeholders who have high levels of power and high levels of interest?

a)

A. minimal effort

b)

B. keep informed

c)

C. keep satisfied

d)

D. key players

17.

According to Mendelow, which of the following is an appropriate approach to take towards stakeholders who have low levels of power and high levels of interest?

a)

A. minimal effort

b)

B. keep informed

c)

C. keep satisfied

d)

D. key players

18.

Which of the following words completes this sentence appropriately?

An organisation is a social arrangement which pursues collective………, which controls its own performance and has a boundary separating it from its environment. Choose the properly word:

a)

A. Goals

b)

B. Profits

c)

C. Stakeholders

d)

D. Tactics

19.

What is the term given to the idea that the combined output of a number of individuals working together will exceed that of the same individuals working separately?

a)

A. Sympathy

b)

B. Specialization

c)

C. The Synergy

d)

D. Systems thinking

20.

ADB is a business which is owned by its workers. The workers share the profits and they each have a vote on how the business is run. Which of the following should be used to describe ADB?

a)

A. Public sector

b)

B. Private sector

c)

C. Not-for-profit

d)

D. Co-operative

21.

Which of the following statements regarding limited companies is correct?

a)

A. Public limited companies have access to a wider pool of finance than partnerships or sole traders.

b)

B. Both public and private limited companies are allowed to sell shares to the public.

c)

C. Companies are always owned by many different investors.

d)

D. Shareholders are liable for any debts the company may incur.

22.

. The following are stakeholders of a business organisation:

1. Manager

2. Customer

3. Executive Director

4. Supplier

Which of the above are CONNECTED stakeholders?

a)

A. 1 and 2 only

b)

B. 2 and 4 only

c)

C. 2 and 3 only

d)

D. 3 and 4 only

23.

Tall organisations typically have narrow spans of control.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

A flat organisation typically has narrow spans of control.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

25.

Constructive dismissal occurs when an organisation no longer needs an employee and therefore terminates their contract.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

26.

Wrongful dismissal occurs when an organisation terminates the employment contract with its employee without complying required dismissal procedure.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

27.

A political system can be defined as ‘a complete set of institutions, political organisations and interest groups, the relationship between those institutions and the political rules and norms that govern their functions.’

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

28.

Offshoring refers to the transfer of existing staff members to other countries with lower wage.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

29.

When considering Porter’s value chain analysis, outbound logistics is:

a)

A. A primary activity

b)

B. A support activity

30.

Delayering refers to eliminating several levels of unnecessary management to reduce Y’s costs, leading to lower prices for customers.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

31.

Downsizing refers to keeping the current management structure, but reducing the number of staff could lead to demotivation among the remaining workers.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

32.

Data Protection legislation, such as The Data Protection Act in the UK, typically focuses on:

a)

A. issues concerning data held about incorporated entities.

b)

B. rights of the individual with regards to withholding information about oneself.

c)

C. the way data about the individual is to be obtained, used, and stored.

d)

D. aligning the information requirements between different countries.

33.

Which of the following would a transport company monitor under the Political heading as part of a PESTLE analysis?

a)

A. Tracking systems to monitor driver hours/anti‐theft devices/developments in tyre technology.

b)

B. State of the economy/oil price movements/a rise in interest rates.

c)

C. Fuel tax/congestion charges in cities/plans to build new roads.

d)

D. Predicted car numbers and usage/public concerns over safety.

34.

Under typical employment protection legislation, which of the following would be classified as an ‘unfair’ reason for the dismissal of an employee?

a)

A. The employee was a member of a trade union.

b)

B. The employee was guilty of misconduct.

c)

C. The employee’s job became redundant.

d)

D. The employee had a lack of qualifications or capability for the job.

35.

Which of the following is NOT a typical requirement of consumer rights legislation?

a)

A. The seller must have legal title to the goods being sold.

b)

B. Goods sold must be fit for purpose.

c)

C. Item descriptions must be accurate.

d)

D. Goods must be reasonably priced.

36.

All contracts must be signed by all relevant parties in order to be binding.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

37.

What is an acronym used to describe the key elements of an organisation's external environment?

a)

A. SWOT

b)

B. SMART

c)

C. PESTLE

38.

AZ Co is performing a SWOT analysis and notes that it has a large cash balance. Which of the SWOT headings would this be most likely to fall under?

a)

A. Strengths

b)

B. Weaknesses

c)

C. Opportunities

d)

D. Threats

39.

Which word correctly completes the sentence? …………… is an analysis of statistics on birth and death rates, age structures of people and ethnic groups within a community.

a)

A. Demographics

b)

B. Economics

c)

C. Ergonomics

d)

D. Psychographics

40.

A recent trend in organisation and management is the rise in ‘virtual organisation’ and 'virtual teamworking'. To which of the following environmental (PESTLE) factors is this most directly attributed?

a)

A. Economic

b)

B. Socio-cultural

c)

C. Technological

d)

D. Political

41.

In the context of 'best practice' employment protection law, in which of the following circumstances is dismissal of an employee automatically considered unfair?

a)

A. Selection for redundancy on the basis of age

b)

B. Misconduct

c)

C. Marriage to an employee of a key competitor

d)

D. Incompetence

42.

Porter's five forces model identifies factors which determine the nature and strength of competition in an industry. Which of the following is NOT one of the five forces identified in Porter's model?

a)

A. Substitute products or services

b)

B. New entrants to the industry

c)

C. Bargaining power of customers

d)

D. Government regulation of the industry

43.

For what function in an organisation would demographic information about social class be most relevant?

a)

A. Human Resources

b)

B. Marketing

c)

C. Purchasing

d)

D. Finance

44.

Which of the following is a support activity in Porter's value chain model?

a)

A. Procurement

b)

B. Operations

c)

C. Marketing and sales

d)

D. Inbound logistics

45.

Which of the following is a primary activity in Porter's value chain model?

a)

A. Procurement

b)

B. Human resource management

c)

C. Firm infrastructure

d)

D. Inbound logistics

46.

In relation to organisational structures which of the following is the correct definition of the phrase ‘span of control’?

a)

A. The number of employees that a manager is directly responsible for

b)

B. The number of management levels in an organisational structure

c)

C. The number of levels in the hierarchy below a given manager

d)

D. The number of managers in the organisation

47.

Porter’s five forces model identifies external factors that determine the potential profitability and therefore attractiveness of a particular industry. Which of the following is one of these forces?

a)

A. Bargaining power of buyers

b)

B. Government regulation of the industry

c)

C. Fiscal policy

d)

D. Technological innovation

48.

. In an economic environment of high price inflation, those who owe money will gain and those who are owed money will lose. Is this statement true or false?

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

49.

‘Equilibrium’ is the selling price above which the number of units demanded by the market starts to decline.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

50.

Rapid economic growth may lead to increased demand for imports. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE?

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

51.

An increasingly high rate of unemployment of country A may lead to a decrease in government spending on social security

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

52.

Which of the following is a typical macroeconomic policy objective of governments?

a)

A. Economic growth

b)

B. Money supply management

53.

Frictional unemployment is caused by changes in the skills required by the economy.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

54.

Which of the following is NOT an element of fiscal policy?

a)

A. Government spending

b)

B. Government borrowing

c)

C. Taxation

d)

D. Exchange rates

55.

Which of the following is the name given to unemployment which is the result of aggregate demand in the economy being too small to create employment opportunities for all those willing, and able, to work?

a)

A. Structural unemployment

b)

B. Cyclical unemployment

c)

C. Frictional unemployment

d)

D. Real wage unemployment

56.

Increases in unemployment, reduced demand, falling household incomes and low business confidence and investment are associated most strongly with which of the following?

a)

A. High interest rates

b)

B. Increase in the money supply.

c)

C. A budget deficit

d)

D. Recession

57.

Which word correctly completes this statement? “………. taxes are collected by the Revenue authority from a business, which attempts to pass on the tax to consumers in the price of goods.” Choose a correct work.

a)

A. Direct

b)

B. Indirect

c)

C. Progressive

58.

If a government has a macro-economic policy objective of expanding the overall level of economic activity, which of the following would NOT be consistent with such an objective?

a)

A. Increasing public expenditure

b)

B. Lowering interest rates

c)

C. Increasing taxation

59.

Which of the following does government economic monetary policy relate to?

a)

A. Interest rates

b)

B. Taxation

c)

C. Public borrowing and spending

60.

Which of the following does government economic monetary policy relate to?

a)

A. Taxation

b)

B. Public borrowing and spending

c)

C. Exchange rates

61.

Which of the following is an example of cyclical unemployment?

a)

A. Lay‐offs among ski instructors in the summer months.

b)

B. Automation of ticket sales at train stations resulting in the redundancy of ticket officers.

c)

C. Recession, leading to a fall in demand within the building industry.

d)

D. The restriction of employment in the car industry due to a powerful trade union keeping wages high.

62.

The disadvantages of economic growth include which one of the following:

a)

A. growth rates may exceed inflation rates.

b)

B. the gap between rich and poor may narrow.

c)

C. growth may exceed population growth.

d)

D. growth may be in ‘demerit’ goods.

63.

A shift in the demand curve for a product is caused by changes in the conditions of demand, rather than a change in the price of the product. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE?

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

64.

A good for which demand decreases with increase in income of consumers is called

a)

A. Complement good

b)

B. Inferior good

65.

Goods which are consumed together are called

a)

A. Complement goods

b)

B. Substitute goods

66.

The law of demand states that an increase in the price of a good decreases the demand for that good.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

67.

If apples and oranges are substitutes, an increase in the price of apples will decrease the demand for oranges.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

68.

If golf clubs and golf balls are complements, an increase in the price of gold clubs will decrease the demand for golf balls.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

69.

If consumers expect the price of shoes to rise, there will be an increase in the demand for shoes today.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

70.

An increase in the price of steel will shift the supply of automobiles to the right

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

71.

When the price of a good is below the equilibrium price, it causes a surplus.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

72.

If there is a shortage of a good, then the price of the good tends to fall.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

73.

Which of the following shifts the demand for watches to the right?

a)

A. A decrease in the price of watches

b)

B. A decrease in the price of watch batteries if watch batteries and watches are complements

74.

If the cost of milk rises, and milk is a major ingredient in yoghurt, then the:

a)

A. Supply curve for yoghurt shifts to the left

b)

B. Supply curve for yoghurts shifts to the right

75.

If an increase in the price of blue jeans leads to an increase in the demand for tennis shoes, then blue jeans and tennis shoes are

a)

A. Substitutes

b)

B. Complements

76.

Products A and B are substitutes. A 5% change in the price of A has resulted in a 4% change in the demand for B. What is the cross elasticity of demand (XED) between A and B?

a)

A. + 0.8

b)

B. – 0.8

c)

C. +1.25

d)

D. –1.25

77.

G Co increases the selling price of its only product, the GF1000 by 5%. This causes a reduction in the number of units it sells by 8%. Is the GF1000’s price elasticity of demand likely to be:

a)

A. Less than 1

b)

B. Equal to 1

c)

C. Greater than 1

d)

D. Negative

78.

H Co manufactures and sells a motor vehicle, the GHF300. Which of the following would cause an expansion in demand for this product in country M?

a)

A. A reduction in the selling price of the GHF300

b)

B. The GHF300 becoming more fashionable with the public

c)

C. A reduction in direct taxes within country M

d)

D. An increase in the population of country M

79.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a perfect market?

a)

A. Large numbers of customers and suppliers

b)

B. All suppliers provide a wide range of products and services

c)

C. There is perfect information for customers and suppliers

d)

D. There are no entry or exit barriers to the market

80.

Which of the following is a feature of monopolistic competition?

a)

A. Few competitors in the market

b)

B. Undifferentiated products

c)

C. No major barriers to entry to or exit from the market

d)

D. Low advertising expenditure

81.

Which of the following is NOT a factor that affects price elasticity of demand?

a)

A. The amount of customer income spent on item

b)

B. Duration of the price change

c)

C. The necessity of the item to consumers

d)

D. The initial number of units demanded

82.

L makes a variety of different products, including windows. Which TWO of the following would cause a decrease in the level of supply of L’s windows?

a)

A. An increase in the level of VAT charged by the government on windows

b)

B. A new automated assembly system for L’s products that reduces L’s window

manufacturing overheads

c)

C. Staff negotiations, leading to window production staff adopting a shift‐work approach

which makes better use of L’s production facilities

d)

D. Staff negotiations, leading to a slight rise in the hourly rate paid to window production

workers

83.

E Co manufactures a single product. Which of the following would indicate that the product will have a low price elasticity of demand?

a)

A. Customers spend a high proportion of their incomes on the product

b)

B. Customers don’t see the product as being a necessity

c)

C. Customers tend to buy the product by habit

d)

D. Customers have a number of substitute products that they can choose from

84.

Which one of the following would normally cause a rightward shift in the demand curve for a product?

a)

A. A fall in the price of a substitute product

b)

B. A reduction in direct taxation on incomes

c)

C. A reduction in price of the product

d)

D. An increase in the price of a complementary product

85.

Demand for goods and services are influenced by which of the following:

a)

A. price of the product

b)

B. prices of other products

c)

C. consumer tastes

d)

D. All of the above are factors which influence the demand for goods and services.

86.

A price ceiling set above the equilibrium market price will result in:

a)

A. Market failure

b)

B. Excess supply over demand

c)

C. Market equilibrium

d)

D. Excess demand over supply

87.

What is an inferior good?

a)

A. A good of such poor quality that demand for it is very weak

b)

B. A good of lesser quality than a substitute good, so that the price of the substitute is higher

c)

C. A good for which the cross elasticity of demand with a substitute product is greater than 1

d)

D. A good for which demand will fall as household income rises

88.

The condition in which market supply matches market demand is called

a)

A. Equalisation

b)

B. Normalisation

c)

C. Equilibrium

d)

D. Non of the above

89.

Zero (0) price elasticity of demand means

a)

A. whatever the change in price, there is absolutely no change in demand

b)

B. for a small change in price, there is a small change in demand

c)

C. for a small change in price, there is a large change in demand

d)

D. for a large change in price, there is a small change in demand

90.

Which of the following is NOT related to Microeconomics?

a)

A. Demand, Supply and Equilibrium

b)

B. Behaviour of individual economic units

c)

C. Labor Economics

d)

D. Unemployment

91.

If an increase in consumer incomes leads to a decrease in the demand for camping equipment, then camping equipment is

a)

A. A complementary good

b)

B. A substitute good

c)

C. A normal good

d)

D. An inferior good

92.

Cultures develop over time or can change instantly as a result of a single major event, for example the death of a company founder. Is this statement true or false?

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

93.

Schein said that leadership and culture were totally divorced from one another. Is this statement true or false?

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

94.

How diverse is the company either in terms of product range, geographical spread or cultural make-up of its stakeholders is a factor that shape the culture of the organization.

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

95.

Which of the following can be considered as influences on organisational culture?

a)

A. Individual initiative, degree of risk tolerance, clarity of direction

b)

B. Individual initiative, no. of board of directors, clarity of direction

96.

A project team is more likely to be a role culture

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

97.

Culture was expressed by Handy as being “the way we do things around here”. Is this statement true or false?

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

98.

Culture was expressed by Handy as ‘the sum of the belief, knowledge, attitudes, norms and customs that prevail in an organisation’. Is this statement true or false?

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

99.

The tales of company creation, such as difficulties the founder had to face and how he/she managed to overcome them successfully often form a part of organisational culture.

Is this statement true or false?

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

100.

“The first leaders of the organisation tend to define its later culture.” Which major writer on culture came to this conclusion?

a)

A. Handy

b)

B. Schein

101.

John begins a new job at a company. He discovers that, unlike his previous job, all staff members dress casually. According to Schein, which level of culture is John observing?

a)

A. Artefacts

b)

B. Espoused values

102.

According to Hofstede, the extent to which security, order and control are preferred to ambiguity and change is called:

a)

A. Masculinity

b)

B. Individualism

c)

C. Power distance

d)

D. Uncertainty avoidance

103.

ABC is a small enterprise led by Ms. X who started the business 2 years ago. X is central to all the key decisions made in the firm. Her knowledge and business awareness is critical to the firm's success. Which of Handy's cultural types is present in ABC?

a)

A. Power

b)

B. Task

c)

C. Person

d)

D. Role

104.

To whom of the 4 Greek Gods was Handy referring when the culture of an organisation is likely to be focused on individual, that is, the person takes the central point of the organisation

a)

A. Zeus

b)

B. Apollo

c)

C. Athena

d)

D. Dionysus

105.

A culture where there is one central source of power and few procedures or rules would be classified by Handy as what sort of culture?

a)

A. Power

b)

B. Role

c)

C. Task

d)

D. Person

106.

Which of the following factors could influence the culture of an organisation?

1. Past successes and failures experienced by the organisation

2. Senior management

3. The person who founded the organisation

4. The technology used by the organisation

5. The industry the organisation is in

a)

A. 1, 3 and 4

b)

B. 2, 3 and 5

c)

C. 1, 2, 3 and 4

d)

D. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

107.

A large management consultancy has implemented a matrix structure. Many of the consultants work in temporary project teams. Which of Handy's cultural types would you expect to see in this organisation?

a)

A. Role Culture

b)

B. Power Culture

c)

C. Task Culture

d)

D. Person Culture

108.

Research has indicated that workers in country X display characteristics such as toughness and the desire for material wealth and possessions, while workers in country Y value personal relationship, belonging and the quality of life. According to Hofstede’s theory, these distinctions relate to which of the following:

a)

A. Masculinity – femininity

b)

B. Power distance

c)

C. Individualism – collectivism

d)

D. Uncertainty avoidance

109.

Hofstede looked for national differences in an attempt to find aspects of culture that might influence business behaviour. Which of the following is one of Hofstede's key dimensions of national differences?

a)

A. Position-Power

b)

B. Uncertainty avoidance

c)

C. Work-relaxation

d)

D. Task-people

110.

Which of the following is NOT true about Schein cultural theory?

a)

A. There exists a little influence on organisation culture by who leads the organisation

b)

B. If leaders are to lead then it is essential that they understand the levels of organisational culture.

c)

C. Schein's cultural theory is sometimes represented as Iceberg concept.

d)

D. Expoused values are the strategies and goals of an organisation, including company slogan.

111.

Schein divided organizational culture into 3 levels. They are:

a)

A. artefacts, expoused values, basic assumptions and values

b)

B. mission, vision, goal

c)

C. artefacts, values, goal

d)

D. values, goal, basic assumption

112.

Which of the following statements is false?

a)

A. Organisational culture is the sum total of the beliefs, knowledge, attitudes, norms and customers that prevail in an organisation.

b)

B. Culture is not something standard.

c)

C. A country's form of government may have no dramatic impact on how an organisation does business.

d)

D. The national culture, customs and societal norms of a country also shape the cultures of organisations operating in it.

113.

According to Schein, there is a strong link between culture and _____________. Which word best fills the blank?

a)

A. management style

b)

B. leadership

c)

C. influence

d)

D. size of the organization

114.

Hofstede developed an influential model of the dimensions on which national cultures differ. In the Hofstede's model, a national culture which supports single status pay arrangements, informal styles of dress in the workplace and self-managed team working would be classified as:

a)

A. Individualistic

b)

B. Collective

c)

C. Low power distance

d)

D. High uncertainty avoidance

115.

In a higher education teaching organisation an academic faculty is organised into courses and departments, where teaching staff report both to course programme managers and to subject specialists, depending on which course they teach and upon their particular subject specialism. According to Charles Handy's four cultural stereotypes, which of the following describes the above of organisational structure?

a)

A. Role

b)

B. Task

c)

C. Power

d)

D. Person

116.

In a very large company managing the total level of working capital would probably be the responsibility of the:

a)

A. Finance director

b)

B. Chief accountant

c)

C. Treasurer

d)

D. Management accountant

117.

“Financial accountants usually produce information for the organisation’s external stakeholders.” Is this statement TRUE or FALSE?

a)

A. True

b)

A. True

118.

There is no legal requirement for companies to have a management accounting function. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE?

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

119.

Gabriella is considering creating a financial accounting department within her business but is unsure of what such a department would actually do. Which of the following would usually be prepared by a financial accounting department?

a)

A. Cost schedules

b)

B. Statement of cash flows

c)

C. Variance analysis

d)

D. Tax calculations

120.

Working capital is calculated as:

a)

A. the excess of current assets over current liabilities

b)

B. the excess of bank borrowings over current assets

c)

C. the excess of long‐term liabilities over short‐term liabilities

d)

D. the excess of fixed assets over current assets

121.

Which of the following statements regarding management accounting reports is correct?

a)

A. Budgets show the revenues and expenditure for the last accounting period.

b)

B. Cost schedules are often also referred to as standard cost cards.

c)

C. Variance reports compare the original budgets to revised budgets.

d)

D. Management accountants will usually be responsible for creation of the statement of financial position.

122.

Which of the following is NOT one of the purposes of budgets?

a)

A. responsibility for expenditure

b)

B. motivation of employees

c)

C. co‐ordination of staff

d)

D. costing of units

123.

. Daniel is trying to find certain key figures from the financial statements of HGF Co. He is unsure about whether to look at the Statement of Financial Position (SOFP) or the Statement of profit or loss (SOPL) for each one. Which section of the financial statements will the following information be found?

a)

A. The net assets of HGF should be presented on SOFP and HGF’s gross profit for the year should be presented on SOPL

b)

B. The net assets of HGF and HGF’s gross profit for the year should be presented on SOFP

c)

C. The net assets of HGF and HGF’s gross profit for the year should be presented on SOPL

d)

D. The net assets of HGF should be presented on SOPL and HGF’s gross profit for the year should be presented on SOFP

124.

Joseph has just started his first job in an accountancy department. A qualified senior member of staff explains to him what the main aim of accounting is. Which of the following options is the correct aim of accounting?

a)

A. To maintain ledger accounts for every asset and liability.

b)

B. To provide financial information to users of such information.

c)

C. To produce a trial balance.

d)

D. To record every financial transaction individually.

125.

Which of the following statements about accounting information is incorrect?

a)

A. Some companies voluntarily provide specially prepared financial information to employees.

b)

B. Accounting information should be relevant, reliable, complete, objective, and timely.

c)

C. Accountants have a strong obligation to ensure that company accounts conform to accounting standards.

d)

D. Charity and professional bodies do not have to produce financial statement in the same way as business.

126.

Which of the following does company law require a statement of financial position to give?

a)

A. A true and fair view of the profit or loss of the company for the financial year

b)

B. An unqualified (or 'clean') report on the statement of affairs of the company as at the end of the

financial year

c)

C. A true and fair view of the statement of affairs of the company as at the end of the financial year

127.

All the following statements except one describe the relationship between data and information. Which one is the exception?

a)

A. Information is data which has been processed in such a way as to be meaningful to the person

who receives it.

b)

B. The relationship between data and information is one of inputs and outputs.

c)

C. Data is always in numerical form whereas information is always in text form.

128.

The key purpose of internal auditing is to:

a)

A. detect errors and fraud.

b)

B. evaluate the organisation’s risk management processes and systems of control.

c)

C. give confidence as to the truth and fairness of the financial statements.

d)

D. express an internal opinion on the truth and fairness of the financial statements.

129.

Internal check is defined as:

a)

A. ensuring that no single task is executed from start to finish by only one person.

b)

B. providing reasonable assurance about the achievement of the organisation’s objectives.

130.

Internal auditors have an unavoidable …………… problem, as they report to those people whose activities they are reporting on. Which word correctly completes this sentence?

a)

A. Integrity

b)

B. Independence

c)

C. Loyalty

131.

It is considered to be best practice for the internal auditors of a large company to report directly to:

a)

A. the board of directors

b)

B. the external auditors

c)

C. the shareholders

d)

D. the audit committee

132.

Marc is preparing a receivables ledger reconciliation to check for any errors or frauds that may have occurred the month. What type of control is this an example of?

a)

A. Preventive

b)

B. Detective

c)

C. Corrective

d)

D. Physical

133.

External auditors have no interest in the internal controls of the organisation they are auditing. Is this statement TRUE or FALSE?

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

134.

An organisation is owned and run by central government agencies. The organisation is best described as which of the following statements?

a)

A. A voluntary sector organisation

b)

B. A private sector organisation

c)

C. A public sector organisation

135.

Which of the following organisations would rely most heavily on value for money indicators and efficiency rather than information on performance and profitability?

a)

A. A private accountancy college

b)

B. A local authority

c)

C. A small retailer

136.

According to Mendelow’s matrix, stakeholders in segment C (low interest, high power) should be kept informed. Is this true or false?

a)

A. True

b)

B. False

137.

A private sector organisation is one owned or run by:

a)

A. Central government

b)

B. Local government

c)

C. Government agencies

d)

D. None of the above