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Test 4 - CCNA 2

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 1hrs 1mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An EtherChannel link using LACP was formed between two switches, S1 and S2. While verifying the configuration, which mode combination could be utilized on both switches?​

a)

S1-passive and S2-passive

b)

S1-on and S2-active

c)

S1-on and S2-passive

d)

S1-passive and S2-active

2.

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure PAgP so that it initiates the EtherChannel negotiation?

(a)  

3.

Which three interface parameters must match for an EtherChannel to form? (Choose three.)

a)

PortFast mode

b)

allowed VLANs

c)

native VLAN

d)

EtherChannel mode

e)

trunking mode

4.

When EtherChannel is implemented, multiple physical interfaces are bundled into which type of logical connection?

a)

port channel

b)

loopback

c)

VLAN interface

d)

interface range

5.

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another device?

(a)  

6.

Which function is provided by EtherChannel?

a)

enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a single Layer 2 link

b)

spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links

c)

dividing the bandwidth of a single link into separate time slots

d)

creating one logical link by using multiple physical links between two LAN switches

7.

Which two protocols are link aggregation protocols? (Choose two.)

a)

EtherChannel

b)

STP

c)

PAgP

d)

802.3ad

e)

RSTP

8.

What will happen if a network administrator puts a port that is part of an EtherChannel bundle into a different VLAN than the other ports in that bundle?

a)

The EtherChannel will fail.

b)

The EtherChannel bundle will stay up if the ports were configured with no negotiation between the switches to form the EtherChannel.

c)

The EtherChannel bundle will stay up if either PAgP or LACP is used.

d)

The EtherChannel bundle will stay up only if LACP is used.

e)

The EtherChannel bundle will stay up only if PAgP is used.

9.

Which interface configuration command will enable the port to initiate an LACP EtherChannel?

a)

channel-group mode active

b)

channel-group mode auto

c)

channel-group mode desirable

d)

channel-group mode on

e)

channel-group mode passive

10.

A DHCP-enabled client PC has just booted. During which two steps will the client PC use broadcast messages when communicating with a DHCP server? (Choose two.)

a)

DHCPNAK

b)

DHCPREQUEST

c)

DHCPOFFER

d)

DHCPACK

e)

DHCPDISCOVER

11.

An administrator issues the commands:
Router(config)# interface g0/1
Router(config-if)# ip address dhcp

What is the administrator trying to achieve?

a)

configuring the router to act as a DHCPv4 server

b)

configuring the router to act as a relay agent

c)

configuring the router to resolve IP address conflicts

d)

configuring the router to obtain IP parameters from a DHCPv4 server

12.

When a client is requesting an initial address lease from a DHCP server, why is the DHCPREQUEST message sent as a broadcast?

a)

The client does not yet know the IP address of the DHCP server that sent the offer.

b)

The client may have received offers from multiple servers, and the broadcast serves to implicitly decline those other offers.

c)

The client does not have a MAC address assigned yet, so it cannot send a unicast message at Layer 2.

d)

The DHCP server may be on a different subnet, so the request must be sent as a broadcast.

13.

If more than one DHCP server is available on the local network, in which order will DHCP messages be sent between a host and a DHCP server?

(a)  

14.

Which destination IPv4 address does a DHCPv4 client use to send the initial DHCP Discover packet when the client is looking for a DHCP server?

(a)  

15.

Under which two circumstances would a router usually be configured as a DHCPv4 client?

a)

This is an ISP requirement.

b)

The administrator needs the router to act as a relay agent.

c)

The router is meant to provide IP addresses to the hosts.

d)

The router is intended to be used as a SOHO gateway.

e)

The router has a fixed IP address.

16.

Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)

a)

Set the command history buffer size.

b)

Recall previously entered commands.

c)

View a list of commands entered in a previous session.

d)

Recall up to 15 command lines by default.

e)

Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

17.

Which statement describes the system LED operation on Cisco Catalyst switches?

a)

If the LED is amber, the system is not powered on.

b)

If the LED is blinking amber, the switch is performing POST.

c)

If the LED is blinking green, the system is operating normally.

d)

If the LED is amber, the system is receiving power but it is not functioning properly.

18.

What type of Ethernet cable would be used to connect one switch to another switch when neither switch supports the auto-MDIX feature?

a)

rollover

b)

crossover

c)

straight-through

d)

coaxial

19.

What advantage does SSH offer over Telnet?

a)

connection-oriented services

b)

more connection lines

c)

username and password authentication

d)

encryption

20.

A network administrator has configured ​VLAN 99 as the management VLAN and has configured it with an IP address and subnet mask. The administrator issues the show interface vlan 99 command and notices that the line protocol is down. Which action can change the state of the line protocol to up?

a)

Configure a transport input method on the vty lines.

b)

Connect a host to an interface associated with VLAN 99.

c)

Remove all access ports from VLAN 99.

d)

Configure a default gateway.

21.

Which prompt is displayed when a network administrator successfully accesses the boot loader on a switch to recover from a system crash?

(a)  

22.

Which router bootup sequence is correct?​

a)

1 – perform the POST and load the bootstrap program
2 – locate and load the Cisco IOS software
3 – locate and load the startup configuration file or enter setup mode

b)

1 – perform the POST and load the startup configuration file
2 – locate and load the bootstrap program
3 – locate and load the Cisco IOS software

c)

1 – perform the POST and load the bootstrap program
2 – locate and load the startup configuration file or enter setup mode
3 – locate and load the Cisco IOS software

d)

1 – perform the POST and load the Cisco IOS software
2 – locate and load the startup configuration file or enter setup mode
3 – locate and load the bootstrap program

23.

What is the first action in the boot sequence when a switch is powered on?

a)

low-level CPU initialization

b)

load boot loader software

c)

load the default Cisco IOS software

d)

load a power-on self-test program

24.

Which command will provide information about the status of all interfaces including the number of giants, runts, and collisions on the interface?

(a)  

25.

What is a function of the switch boot loader?

a)

To control how much RAM is available to the switch during the boot process

b)

To provide an environment to operate in when the switch operating system cannot be found

c)

To provide security for the vulnerable state when the switch is booting

d)

To speed up the boot process

26.

During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites that were visited by users of the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?

a)
  • DoS attack​

b)
  • identity theft

c)
  • spyware

d)
  • zero-day attack

27.

Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?

a)
  • Internet

b)
  • intranet

c)
  • extranet

d)
  • extendednet

28.

A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking trend does this describe?

a)
  • cloud computing

b)
  • online collaboration

c)
  • bring your own device

d)
  • video conferencing

29.

What is an ISP?

a)
  • It is a standards body that develops cabling and wiring standards for networking.

b)
  • It is a protocol that establishes how computers within a local network communicate.

c)
  • It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.

d)
  • It is a networking device that combines the functionality of several different networking devices in one.

30.

An employee at a branch office is creating a quote for a customer. In order to do this, the employee needs to access confidential pricing information from internal servers at the Head Office. What type of network would the employee access?

a)

an intranet

b)
  • the Internet

c)
  • an extranet

d)
  • a local area network

31.

Which statement describes the use of powerline networking technology?

a)
  • New “smart” electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN.

b)
  • A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling.

c)
  • A device connects to an existing home LAN using an adapter and an existing electrical outlet.

d)
  • Wireless access points use powerline adapters to distribute data through the home LAN.

32.

Which statement describes the use of powerline networking technology?

a)
  • New “smart” electrical cabling is used to extend an existing home LAN.

b)
  • A home LAN is installed without the use of physical cabling.

c)
  • A device connects to an existing home LAN using an adapter and an existing electrical outlet.

d)
  • Wireless access points use powerline adapters to distribute data through the home LAN.

33.

A networking technician is working on the wireless network at a medical clinic. The technician accidentally sets up the wireless network so that patients can see the medical records data of other patients. Which of the four network characteristics has been violated in this situation?

a)
  • fault tolerance

b)
  • scalability

c)

security

d)
  • Quality of Service (QoS)

e)
  • reliability

34.

What two criteria are used to help select a network medium from various network media? (Choose two.)

a)
  • the types of data that need to be prioritized

b)
  • the cost of the end devices utilized in the network

c)
  • the distance the selected medium can successfully carry a signal

d)
  • the environment where the selected medium is to be installed

e)
  • the number of intermediate devices installed in the network

35.

What type of network traffic requires QoS?

a)
  • email

b)
  • on-line purchasing

c)
  • video conferencing

d)
  • wiki

36.

A user is implementing security on a small office network. Which two actions would provide the minimum security requirements for this network? (Choose two.)

a)
  • implementing a firewall

b)
  • installing antivirus software

c)
  • installing a wireless network

d)
  • implementing an intrusion detection system

e)
  • adding a dedicated intrusion prevention device

37.

Passwords can be used to restrict access to all or parts of the Cisco IOS. Select the modes and interfaces that can be protected with passwords. (Choose three.)

a)
  • VTY interface

b)
  • console interface

c)
  • privileged EXEC mode

d)
  • router configuration mode

e)
  • Ethernet interface

38.

Which interface allows remote management of a Layer 2 switch?

a)
  • the AUX interface

b)
  • the console port interface

c)
  • the switch virtual interface

d)
  • the first Ethernet port interface

39.

What function does pressing the Tab key have when entering a command in IOS?

a)
  • It aborts the current command and returns to configuration mode.

b)
  • It exits configuration mode and returns to user EXEC mode.

c)
  • It moves the cursor to the beginning of the next line.

d)
  • It completes the remainder of a partially typed word in a command.

40.

While trying to solve a network issue, a technician made multiple changes to the current router configuration file. The changes did not solve the problem and were not saved. What action can the technician take to discard the changes and work with the file in NVRAM?

a)
  • Issue the reload command without saving the running configuration.

b)
  • Delete the vlan.dat file and reboot the device.

c)
  • Close and reopen the terminal emulation software.

d)
  • Issue the copy startup-config running-config command.

41.

An administrator uses the Ctrl-Shift-6 key combination on a switch after issuing the ping command. What is the purpose of using these keystrokes?

a)
  • to restart the ping process

b)
  • to interrupt the ping process

c)
  • to exit to a different configuration mode

d)
  • to allow the user to complete the command

42.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring access control to switch SW1. If the administrator uses a console connection to connect to the switch, which password is needed to access user EXEC mode?

a)
  • letmein

b)

secretin

c)

lineconin

d)

linevty

43.

A technician configures a switch with these commands:

SwitchA(config)# interface vlan 1

SwitchA(config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.1 255.255.255.0

SwitchA(config-if)# no shutdown

What is the technician configuring?

a)
  • Telnet access

b)

SVI

c)
  • password encryption

d)
  • physical switchport access

44.

Which command or key combination allows a user to return to the previous level in the command hierarchy?

a)
  • end

b)

exit

c)

CTRL-Z

d)

CTRL-C

45.

What are two characteristics of RAM on a Cisco device? (Choose two.)

a)
  • RAM provides nonvolatile storage.

b)
  • The configuration that is actively running on the device is stored in RAM.

c)
  • The contents of RAM are lost during a power cycle.

d)
  • RAM is a component in Cisco switches but not in Cisco routers.

e)
  • RAM is able to store multiple versions of IOS and configuration files.

46.

Which two host names follow the guidelines for naming conventions on Cisco IOS devices? (Choose two.)

a)
  • Branch2!

b)
  • RM-3-Switch-2A4

c)
  • Floor(15)

d)
  • HO Floor 17

47.

How is SSH different from Telnet?

a)
  • SSH makes connections over the network, whereas Telnet is for out-of-band access.

b)
  • SSH provides security to remote sessions by encrypting messages and using user authentication. Telnet is considered insecure and sends messages in plaintext.

c)
  • SSH requires the use of the PuTTY terminal emulation program. Tera Term must be used to connect to devices through the use of Telnet.

d)
  • SSH must be configured over an active network connection, whereas Telnet is used to connect to a device from a console connection.

48.

Which statement is true about broadcast and collision domains?

a)

The size of the collision domain can be reduced by adding hubs to a network.

b)

Adding a switch to a network will increase the size of the broadcast domain.

c)

Adding a router to a network will increase the size of the collision domain.

d)

The more interfaces a router has the larger the resulting broadcast domain.

49.

Which switch characteristic helps alleviate network congestion when a 10 Gbps port is forwarding data to a 1 Gbps port?

a)

high port density

b)

fast port speed

c)

fast internal switching

d)

frame buffering

50.

Which switching method makes use of the FCS value?

a)

broadcast

b)

large frame buffer

c)

store-and-forward

d)

cut-through

51.

What does the term “port density” represent for an Ethernet switch?

a)

the memory space that is allocated to each switch port

b)

the number of available ports

c)

the speed of each port

d)

the numbers of hosts that are connected to each switch port

52.

Which information does a switch use to keep the MAC address table information current?

a)

the source MAC address and the incoming port

b)

the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port

c)

the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

d)

the destination MAC address and the incoming port

e)

the destination MAC address and the outgoing port

53.

Which network device can serve as a boundary to divide a Layer 2 broadcast domain?

(a)  

54.

Which network device can be used to eliminate collisions on an Ethernet network?

(a)  

55.

Which switching method forwards the frame immediately after examining the destination MAC address?

a)
adaptive switching
b)
fragment-free switching
c)
store-and-forward switching
d)
cut-through switching
56.

What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the switch?

a)
The port becomes tagged with VLAN 10.
b)
The port becomes inactive or untagged.
c)
The port remains associated with VLAN 10.
d)
The port is automatically assigned to another VLAN.
57.

In which memory location are the VLAN configurations of normal range VLANs stored on a Catalyst switch?

(a)  

58.

What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?

a)

A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANS.

b)

The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced.

c)

The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN mnanagement traffic only.

d)

The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANS.

59.

When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?

(a)  

60.

What are three primary benefits of using VLANs? (Choose three.)

a)

security

b)

a reduction in the number of trunk links

c)

cost reduction

d)

improved IT staff efficiency

e)

end user satisfaction

61.

Which distinct type of VLAN is used by an administrator to access and configure a switch?

(a)  

62.

What must the network administrator do to remove FastEthernet 0/1 from VLAN 2 and assign it to VLAN 3?

a)

Enter the no shutdown interface config command on Fa0/1.

b)

Enter the no vlan 2 and the vlan 3 global config commands.

c)

Enter the switchport access vlan 3 interface config command on Fa0/1.

d)

Enter the switchport trunk native vlan 3 interface config command on Fa0/1.

63.

Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)

a)
  • View a list of commands entered in a previous session.

b)
  • Recall up to 15 command lines by default.

c)
  • Set the command history buffer size.

d)
  • Recall previously entered commands.

e)
  • Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

64.

What must an administrator have in order to reset a lost password on a router?

a)
  • a TFTP server

b)
  • a crossover cable

c)
  • access to another router

d)
  • physical access to the router

65.

When configuring a switch for SSH access, what other command that is associated with the login local command is required to be entered on the switch?

a)
  • enable secret password

b)
  • password password

c)
  • username username secret secret

d)
  • login block-for seconds attempts number within*seconds*

66.

Which command displays information about the auto-MDIX setting for a specific interface?​

a)
  • show interfaces

b)
  • show controllers

c)
  • show processes

d)
  • show running-config

67.

If one end of an Ethernet connection is configured for full duplex and the other end of the connection is configured for half duplex, where would late collisions be observed?

a)
  • on both ends of the connection

b)
  • on the full-duplex end of the connection

c)
  • only on serial interfaces

d)
  • on the half-duplex end of the connection

68.

Which protocol adds security to remote connections?

a)

SSH

b)

FTP

c)

HTTPS

d)

POP

69.

What is a characteristic of an IPv4 loopback interface on a Cisco IOS router?​

a)
  • The no shutdown command is required to place this interface in an UP state.​

b)
  • It is a logical interface internal to the router.

c)
  • Only one loopback interface can be enabled on a router.​

d)
  • It is assigned to a physical port and can be connected to other devices.

70.

What is the minimum Ethernet frame size that will not be discarded by the receiver as a runt frame?

a)

64 bytes

b)
  • 512 bytes

c)

1024 bytes

d)

1500 bytes

71.

Which impact does adding a Layer 2 switch have on a network?

a)
  • an increase in the number of dropped frames

b)
  • an increase in the size of the broadcast domain

c)
  • an increase in the number of network collisions

d)
  • an increase in the size of the collision domain

72.

Which switching method ensures that the incoming frame is error-free before forwarding?

a)
  • cut-through

b)

FCS

c)
  • fragment free

d)
  • store-and-forward

73.

Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast domains are displayed?

a)

1

b)

4

c)

8

d)

16

e)

55

74.

Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)

a)
  • Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.

b)
  • The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.

c)
  • This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.

d)
  • High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.

e)
  • The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.

75.

On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?

a)
  • Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat

b)
  • Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100

c)
  • Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100

d)
  • Switch(config)# no vlan 100

76.

Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing port and VLAN assignments on switch S2 and notices that interfaces Gi0/1 and Gi0/2 are not included in the output. Why would the interfaces be missing from the output?

a)
  • There is a native VLAN mismatch between the switches.

b)
  • There is no media connected to the interfaces.

c)
  • They are administratively shut down.

d)
  • They are configured as trunk interfaces.

77.

Refer to the exhibit. All workstations are configured correctly in VLAN 20. Workstations that are connected to switch SW1 are not able to send traffic to workstations on SW2. What could be done to remedy the problem?

a)
  • Allow VLAN 20 on the trunk link.

b)
  • Enable DTP on both ends of the trunk.

c)
  • Configure all workstations on SW1 to be part of the default VLAN.

d)
  • Configure all workstations on SW2 to be part of the native VLAN.

78.

What happens to switch ports after the VLAN to which they are assigned is deleted?

a)
  • The ports are disabled.

b)
  • The ports are placed in trunk mode.

c)
  • The ports are assigned to VLAN1, the default VLAN.

d)
  • The ports stop communicating with the attached devices.

79.

Refer to the exhibit. In what switch mode should port G0/1 be assigned if Cisco best practices are being used?

a)

trunk

b)

access

c)

natve

d)

auto

80.

A PC is to access a web server on another network. Which inter-VLAN method will provide the highest bandwidth at Layer 3 and also provide a default gateway for the PC?

a)

multilayer switch with routing enabled

b)

router on a stick

c)

trunked interface between the router and the switch

d)

multiple physical interfaces on the router, all connected to a Layer 2 switch

81.

Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast?

a)

forwarding

b)

blocking

c)

listening

d)

learning

82.

After the election of the root bridge has been completed, how will switches find the best paths to the root bridge?

a)

Each switch will analyze the port states of all neighbors and use the designated ports to forward traffic to the root.

b)

Each switch will analyze the sum of all port costs to reach the root and use the path with the lowest cost.

c)

Each switch will analyze the sum of the hops to reach the root and use the path with the fewest hops.

d)

Each switch will analyze the BID of all neighbors to reach the root and use the path through the lowest BID neighbors.

83.

What value determines the root bridge when all switches connected by trunk links have default STP configurations?

(a)  

84.

During the implementation of Spanning Tree Protocol, all switches are rebooted by the network administrator. What is the first step of the spanning-tree election process?

a)

All the switches send out BPDUs advertising themselves as the root bridge

b)

Each switch determines the best path to forward traffic

c)

Each switch determines what port to block to prevent a loop from occurring

d)

Each switch with a lower root ID than its neighbor will not send BPDUs

85.

Which three port states are used by Rapid PVST+? (Choose three.)

a)

listening

b)

learning

c)

forwarding

d)

discarding

e)

blocking

86.

When PVST is running over a switched network, which port state can participate in BPDU frame forwarding based on BPDUs received, but does not forward data frames?

(a)  

87.

An administrator is troubleshooting a switch and wants to verify if it is a root bridge. What command can be used to do this?

(a)  

88.

Which three components are combined to form a bridge ID? (Choose three.)

a)

Bridge priority

b)

Cost

c)

Extended system ID

d)

MAC address

e)

Port ID

89.

What is an advantage of using STP in a LAN?

a)

It combines multiple switch trunk links into a logical port channel link to increase bandwidth.

b)

It decreases the size of the failure domain.

c)

It provides firewall services to protect the LAN.

d)

It temporarily disables redundant paths to stop Layer 2 loops.

90.

What is the primary purpose of the Spanning Tree Protocol (STP) in a network?

a)

To provide redundancy in case of link failure.

b)

To manage IP address allocation in the network.

c)

To ensure a loop-free topology in Layer 2 networks.

d)

To prevent broadcast storms in the network.

91.

In a network using STP, what happens when a link fails?

a)

Only the root bridge will be affected and will stop forwarding traffic.

b)

The network will experience a broadcast storm until the link is restored.

c)

STP will automatically re-calculate the best path and activate a backup link.

d)

All switches will reboot to re-establish the topology.

92.

What type of route allows a router to forward packets even though its routing table contains no specific route to the destination network?

a)
  • dynamic route

b)
  • default route

c)
  • destination route

d)
  • generic route

93.

Why would a floating static route be configured with an administrative distance that is higher than the administrative distance of a dynamic routing protocol that is running on the same router?

a)
  • to be used as a backup route

b)
  • to load-balance the traffic

c)
  • to act as a gateway of last resort

d)
  • to be the priority route in the routing table

94.

A company has several networks with the following IP address requirements:
IP phones – 50

PCs – 70

IP cameras – 10

wireless access points – 10

network printers – 10

network scanners – 2
Which block of addresses would be the minimum to accommodate all of these devices if each type of device was on its own network?

a)
  • 172.16.0.0/25

b)
  • 172.16.0.0/24

c)
  • 172.16.0.0/23

d)
  • 172.16.0.0/22

95.

What happens to a static route entry in a routing table when the outgoing interface associated with that route goes into the down state?

a)
  • The static route is removed from the routing table.

b)
  • The router polls neighbors for a replacement route.

c)
  • The static route remains in the table because it was defined as static.

d)
  • The router automatically redirects the static route to use another interface.

96.

The network administrator configures the router with the ip route 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.2 command. How will this route appear in the routing table?

a)
  • C 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0

b)
  • S 172.16.1.0 is directly connected, Serial0/0

c)
  • C 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

d)
  • S 172.16.1.0 [1/0] via 172.16.2.2

97.

Refer to the exhibit. What two commands will change the next-hop address for the 10.0.0.0/8 network from 172.16.40.2 to 192.168.1.2? (Choose two.)

a)
  • A(config)# no network 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2

b)
  • A(config)# no ip address 10.0.0.1 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2

c)
  • A(config)# no ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 172.16.40.2

d)
  • A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 s0/0/0

e)
  • A(config)# ip route 10.0.0.0 255.0.0.0 192.168.1.2

98.

Which type of static route that is configured on a router uses only the exit interface?

a)
  • recursive static route

b)
  • directly connected static route

c)
  • fully specified static route

d)
  • default static route

99.

Refer to the graphic. Which command would be used on router A to configure a static route to direct traffic from LAN A that is destined for LAN C?

a)
  • A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.5.2

b)
  • A(config)# ip route 192.168.4.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2

c)
  • A(config)# ip route 192.168.5.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.2

d)
  • A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.3.1

e)
  • A(config)# ip route 192.168.3.2 255.255.255.0 192.168.4.0

100.

Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator needs to configure a default route on the Border router. Which command would the administrator use to configure a default route that will require the least amount of router processing when forwarding packets?

a)
  • Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.133.219.5

b)
  • Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 198.133.219.6

c)
  • Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/1

d)
  • Border(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 s0/0/0