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cisco midterm

Total questions: 106

Worksheet time: 57mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which attack slows down or crashes equipment and programs

a)

   - Denial of Service (DoS)

b)

- Encryption (Incorrect)

c)

- Firewall (Incorrect)

d)

- Antivirus (Incorrect)

2.

2. Which option creates a secure connection for remote workers?

a)

- Internet of Things (IoT)

b)

- Bluetooth

c)

   - Virtual Private Network (VPN)

d)

- Wi-Fi

3.

 

3. Which option blocks unauthorized access to your network:

a)

   - Router

b)

   - Firewall

c)

- Modem

d)

- Switch

4.

Which option describes a network attack that occurs on the first day that a vulnerability becomes known?

a)

   - Two-day

b)

One-week

c)

- Zero-day or Zero-hour

d)

- Three-month

5.

 Which option describes malicious code running on user devices?

a)

   - Switch

b)

- Firewall

c)

- Router

d)

- Virus, worm, or Trojan horse

6.

During a routine inspection, a technician discovered that software that was installed on a computer was secretly collecting data about websites that were visited by users of the computer. Which type of threat is affecting this computer?

a)

- Spyware

b)

   - Adware

c)

Malware

d)

Phishing

7.

7. Which term refers to a network that provides secure access to the corporate offices by suppliers, customers and collaborators?

a)

Internet

b)

Extranet

c)

Intranet

d)

Ethernet

8.

8. A large corporation has modified its network to allow users to access network resources from their personal laptops and smart phones. Which networking trend does this describe?

a)

   - Internet of Things (IoT)

b)

   - Internet of Things (IoT)

c)

Bring Your Own Device (BYOD)

d)

   - Cloud Computing

9.

9. What is an ISP?

a)

- It is a type of virus.

b)

   - It is a programming language

c)

   - It is an organization that enables individuals and businesses to connect to the Internet.

d)

It is a hardware device

10.

10. In which scenario would the use of a WISP be recommended?

a)

- A farm in a rural area without wired broadband access

b)

    - A downtown office with high-speed fiber-optic internet

c)

    - A downtown office with high-speed fiber-optic internet

d)

    - A downtown office with high-speed fiber-optic internet

11.

11. What characteristic of a network enables it to quickly grow to support new users and applications without impacting the performance of the service being delivered to existing users?

a)

Security

b)

Scalability

c)

Redundancy

d)

Reliability

12.

12. A college is building a new dormitory on its campus. Workers are digging in the ground to install a new water pipe for the dormitory. A worker accidentally damages a fiber optic cable that connects two of the existing dormitories to the campus data center. Although the cable has been cut, students in the dormitories only experience a very short interruption of network services. What characteristic of the network is shown here?

a)

Scalability

b)

Redundancy

c)

Reliability

d)

Fault tolerance

13.

13. What are two characteristics of a scalable network?

a)

Grows in size without impacting existing users

b)

Uses the latest technology

c)

Requires constant maintenance

d)

Has a limited number of users

14.

14. Which device performs the function of determining the path that messages should take through internetworks?

a)

firewall

b)

switch

c)

router

d)

firewall

15.

15. Which two Internet connection options do not require that physical cables be run to the building? (Choose two.)

a)

DSL

b)

Satellite

c)

Cellular

d)

Fiber-optic

16.

16. What type of network must a home user access in order to do online shopping?

a)

VPN

b)

The Internet

c)

Intranet

d)

LAN

17.

17. How does BYOD change the way in which businesses implement networks?

a)

- BYOD increases security risks

b)

    - BYOD reduces the need for networks

c)

    - BYOD provides flexibility in where and how users can access network resources.

d)

BYOD restricts access to network resources.

18.

18. An employee wants to access the network of the organization remotely, in the safest possible way. What network feature would allow an employee to gain secure remote access to a company network?

a)

- IP (Internet Protocol)

b)

    - WAN (Wide Area Network)

c)

    - LAN (Local Area Network)

d)

- VPN (Virtual Private Network)

19.

19. What is the Internet?

a)

    - It provides connections through interconnected global networks

b)

It is a private network for businesses.

c)

- It is a social media platform.

d)

- It is a type of virus.

20.

20. What are two functions of end devices on a network? (Choose two.)

a)

    - They are the interface between humans and the communication network.

b)

    - They manage the network infrastructure.

c)

They provide power to the network.

d)

    - They originate the data that flows through the network

21.

21. Which access method would be most appropriate if you were in the equipment room with a new switch that needs to be configured?

a)

- Aux (Auxiliary)

b)

SSH (Secure Shell) (

c)

Telnet

d)

Console

22.

22. Which access method would be most appropriate if your manager gave you a special cable and told you to use it to configure the switch?

a)

Telnet

b)

Console

c)

- SSH (Secure Shell)

d)

Aux (Auxiliary)

23.

23. Which access method would be the most appropriate in-band access to the IOS over a network connection?

a)

Telnet/SSH

b)

Console

c)

Aux (Auxiliary)

d)

FTP (File Transfer Protocol)

24.

24. Which access method would be the most appropriate if you call your manager to tell him you cannot access your router in another city over the internet and he provides you with the information to access the router through a telephone connection?

a)

Console

b)

Telnet/SSH

c)

- Aux (Auxiliary)

d)

HTTP (Hypertext Transfer Protocol)

25.

25. Which IOS mode allows access to all commands and features?

a)

ROM monitor mode

b)

- Global configuration mode

c)

    - User EXEC mode

d)

Privileged EXEC mode

26.

 Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch(config)# prompt is displayed?

a)

Privileged EXEC mode

b)

    - Global configuration mode

c)

User EXEC mode

d)

ROM monitor mode

27.

27. Which IOS mode are you in if the Switch> prompt is displayed?

a)

User EXEC mode

b)

Global configuration mode

c)

Privileged EXEC mode

d)

    ROM monitor mode

28.

28. Which two commands would return you to the privileged EXEC prompt regardless of the configuration mode you are in? (Choose two.)

a)

reload

b)

CTRL+Z (

c)

end

d)

configure terminal

29.

29. What is the command to assign the name “Sw-Floor-2” to a switch?

a)

- hostname Sw-Floor-2

b)

    - name Sw-Floor-2

c)

- switch-name Sw-Floor-2 (

d)

- set hostname Sw-Floor-2

30.

30. How is the privileged EXEC mode access secured on a switch?

a)

    - password enable class

b)

enable secret class

c)

secret enable class

d)

    - privilege enable class

31.

31. Which command enables password authentication for user EXEC mode access on a switch?

a)

enable secret

b)

enable password

c)

 login

d)

password

32.

32. Which command encrypts all plaintext passwords access on a switch?

a)

enable secret

b)

secret password

c)

encryption password

d)

service password-encryption

33.

33. Which is the command to configure a banner to be displayed when connecting to a switch?

a)

configure banner $ Keep out $

b)

banner motd $ Keep out $

c)

display banner $ Keep out $ (

d)

set banner $ Keep out $

34.

34. What is the structure of an IPv4 address called?

a)

- Dashed-binary format

b)

Hexadecimal format (

c)

    - Octal format

d)

    - Dotted-decimal format

35.

35. How is an IPv4 address represented?

a)

    - Four binary numbers separated by dashes.

b)

    - Four decimal numbers between 0 and 255 separated by periods

c)

- A single hexadecimal number

d)

- A single octal number.

36.

36. What type of interface has no physical port associated with it?

a)

- Ethernet Interface

b)

- Serial Interface

c)

- Switch Virtual Interface (SVI)

d)

    - Console Interface (

37.

37. Which statement is true about the running configuration file in a Cisco IOS device?

a)

    - It affects the operation of the device immediately when modified.

b)

    - It is a backup file. (

c)

    - It is stored in ROM.

d)

    - It requires a reboot to take effect.

38.

38. Which two statements are true regarding the user EXEC mode? (Choose two.)

a)

    - Global configuration mode can be accessed by entering the enable command

b)

  -The device prompt for this mode ends with the ">" symbol.

c)

    - Only some aspects of the router configuration can be viewed.

d)

- It allows access to all configuration commands.

39.

39. Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable secret command?

a)

Global configuration

b)

- User EXEC

c)

Privileged EXEC

d)

- Console access

40.

39. Which type of access is secured on a Cisco router or switch with the enable secret command?

a)

Privileged EXEC

b)

User EXEC

c)

Global configuration

d)

Console access

41.

40. What is the default SVI on a Cisco switch?

a)

GigabitEthernet0/1

b)

FastEthernet0

c)

VLAN10

d)

VLAN1

42.

41. When a hostname is configured through the Cisco CLI, which three naming conventions are part of the guidelines? (Choose three.)

a)

It interfaces between the users and the kernel

b)

- The hostname should be fewer than 64 characters in length

c)

- The hostname should contain no spaces

d)

- The hostname should begin with a letter

e)

- The hostname should be case-insensitive

43.

43. A router with a valid operating system contains a configuration file stored in NVRAM. The configuration file has an enable secret password but no console password. When the router boots up, which mode will display?

a)

Privileged EXEC mode

b)

Global configuration mode

c)

ROM monitor mode

d)

User EXEC mode

44.

44. An administrator has just changed the IP address of an interface on an IOS device. What else must be done in order to apply those changes to the device?

a)

    - The enable password must be changed. (

b)

- The device must be rebooted

c)

The configuration must be saved to NVRAM.

d)

    - Nothing must be done. Changes to the configuration on an IOS device take effect as soon as the command is typed correctly and the Enter key has been pressed

45.

45. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch will lose all content when the device is restarted?

a)

NVRAM

b)

Flash

c)

RAM

d)

ROM (Read-Only Memory)

46.

46. Why would a technician enter the command copy startup-config running-config?

a)

- To copy an existing configuration into RAM

b)

- To save the current configuration to NVRAM (

c)

To erase the current configuration

d)

- To reload the device

47.

47. Which functionality is provided by DHCP?

a)

Encryption of network traffic

b)

Automatic assignment of an IP address to each host

c)

Creation of virtual networks

d)

Routing of data between networks (

48.

48. Which two functions are provided to users by the context-sensitive help feature of the Cisco IOS CLI? (Choose two.)

a)

Offering suggestions for a user's personal life

b)

Displaying a list of all available commands within the current mode

c)

Providing real-time weather information

d)

- Determining which option, keyword, or argument is available for the entered command

49.

49. Which memory location on a Cisco router or switch stores the startup configuration file?

a)

RAM

b)

Flash

c)

NVRAM

d)

ROM

50.

50. To what subnet does the IP address 10.1.100.50 belong if a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0 is used?

a)

10.1.100.0

b)

10.1.0.0

c)

10.1.0.50

d)

10.1.100.50

51.

51. What is the process of converting information into the proper form for transmission?

a)

Decoding

b)

Routing

c)

Encoding

d)

Switching

52.

Which step of the communication process is concerned with properly identifying the address of the sender and receiver?

a)

Encoding

b)

Transmitting

c)

Receiving

d)

Formatting

53.

Which of the following is the name for all computers connected to a network that participate directly in network communication?

a)

Servers

b)

Cables

c)

Hosts

d)

Hubs

54.

When data is encoded as pulses of light, which media is being used to transmit the data?

a)

Fiber-optic cable

b)

Ethernet cable

c)

Fiber-optic cable

d)

Wireless

55.

Which two devices are intermediary devices? (Choose two)

a)

Printers

b)

Refrigerators

c)

Routers

d)

Computers

56.

Which connection physically connects the end device to the network?

a)

Keyboard

b)

Modem

c)

Speaker

d)

Monitor

57.

Which connections are specialized ports on a networking device that connect to individual networks?

a)

Switches

b)

Alarm clocks

c)

Toaster ovens

d)

Coffee makers

58.

Which type of network topology lets you see which end devices are connected to which intermediary devices and what media is being used?

a)

Square topology

b)

Circular topology

c)

Triangular topology

d)

Logical topology

59.

Which type of network topology lets you see the actual location of intermediary devices and cable installation?

a)

Virtual topology

b)

Physical topology

c)

Magical topology

d)

Supernatural topology

60.

Which network infrastructure provides access to users and end devices in a small geographical area, which is typically a network in a department in an enterprise, a home, or small business?

a)

WAN

b)

PAN

c)

VPN

d)

LAN

61.

Which network infrastructure might an organization use to provide secure and safe access to individuals who work for a different organization but require access to the organization’s data?

a)

Extranet

b)

Internet

c)

Intranet

d)

Ethernet

62.

Which network infrastructure provides access to other networks over a large geographical area, which is often owned and managed by a telecommunications service provider?

a)

CAN

b)

WAN

c)

LAN

d)

MAN

63.

When designers follow accepted standards and protocols, which of the four basic characteristics of network architecture is achieved?

a)

Compatibility

b)

Flexibility

c)

Scalability

d)

Agility

64.

Confidentiality, integrity, and availability are requirements of which of the four basic characteristics of network architecture?

a)

Performance

b)

Efficiency

c)

Redundancy

d)

Security

65.

With which type of policy, a router can manage the flow of data and voice traffic, giving priority to voice communications if the network experiences congestion?

a)

QoS

b)

CPU

c)

RAM

d)

SEO

66.

Having multiple paths to a destination is known as redundancy. This is an example of which characteristic of network architecture?

a)

Cost-effectiveness

b)

Bandwidth

c)

Speed

d)

Reliability

67.

Which feature is a good conferencing tool to use with others who are located elsewhere in your city, or even in another country?

a)

Teleportation

b)

Telekinesis

c)

Video communications

d)

Telepathy

68.

Which feature is being used when connecting a device to the network using an electrical outlet?

a)

Landline

b)

Skyline

c)

Shoreline

d)

Powerline

69.

Which feature describes using personal tools to access information and communicate across a business or campus network?

a)

AYCD

b)

BYOD

c)

DIY

d)

WYFD

70.

Which feature contains options such as Public, Private, Custom and Hybrid?

a)

Cloud computing

b)

Local storage

c)

Stone tablets

d)

Paper storage

71.

Which feature uses the same cellular technology as a smart phone?

a)

Wired narrowband

b)

Wireless broadband

c)

Fiber broadband

d)

Satellite broadband

72.

Which of the following components are related to message timing? (Choose three)

a)

Flow control

b)

Encoding

c)

Decoding

d)

Response timeout (

e)

Access method

73.

What delivery method is used to transmit information to one or more end devices, but not all devices on the network?

a)

Broadcast

b)

Unicast

c)

Anycast

d)

Multicast

74.

BGP and OSPF are examples of which type of protocol?

a)

Transport

b)

Data link

c)

Routing

d)

Application

75.

Which two protocols are service discovery protocols? (Choose two)

a)

SMTP

b)

DHCP

c)

HTTP

d)

DNS

76.

What is the purpose of the sequencing function in network communication?

a)

To convert data to a readable message

b)

To convert information into the proper form for transmission

c)

To guarantee the reliable delivery of information (Correct)

d)

To provide feedback from the destination host to the source host

77.

This protocol is responsible for guaranteeing the reliable delivery of information

a)

UDP

b)

TCP

c)

HTTP

d)

DNS

78.

UDP and TCP belong to which layer of the TCP/IP protocol?

a)

Network

b)

Application

c)

Transport

d)

Data Link

79.

Which two protocols belong in the TCP/IP model application layer? (Choose two)

a)

DHCP

b)

IP

c)

DNS

d)

Ethernet

80.

Which of the following are protocols that provide feedback from the destination host to the source host regarding errors in packet delivery? (Choose two)

a)

HTTP

b)

ICMPv4

c)

ICMPv6

d)

SMTP

81.

A device receives a data link frame with data and processes and removes the Ethernet information. What information would be the next to be processed by the receiving device?

a)

Transport layer information

b)

Application layer data

c)

IP at the internet layer

d)

Physical layer information

82.

Which services are provided by the internet layer of the TCP/IP protocol suite? (Choose three)

a)

Routing protocols

b)

Messaging

c)

Data link protocols

d)

Internet Protocol

e)

Transport protocols

83.

True or false. Standards organizations are usually vendor-neutral.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

This standards organization is concerned with the Request for Comments (RFC) documents that specify new protocols and update existing ones.

a)

IEEE

b)

ISO

c)

IETF

d)

IANA

85.

This standards organization is responsible for IP address allocation and domain name management.

a)

IETF

b)

IEEE

c)

ISO

d)

IANA

86.

What types of standards are developed by the Electronics Industries Alliance (EIA)?

a)

Networking protocols

b)

Electric wiring and connectors

c)

Software development

d)

Fiber-optic standards

87.

What is the process of dividing a large data stream into smaller pieces prior to transmission?

a)

Segmentation

b)

Concatenation

c)

    - Compression

d)

Encryption

88.

What is the PDU associated with the transport layer?

a)

Packet

b)

Frame

c)

Segment

d)

Bit

89.

Which protocol stack layer encapsulates data into frames?

a)

Transport

b)

Network

c)

Physical

d)

Data link

90.

What is the name of the process of adding protocol information to data as it moves down the protocol stack?

a)

Segmentation

b)

Decapsulation

c)

Fragmentation

d)

Encapsulation

91.

True or false? Frames exchanged between devices in different IP networks must be forwarded to a default gateway.

a)

True

b)

False

92.

True or false? The right-most part of an IP address is used to identify the network that a device belongs to.

a)

True

b)

False

93.

What is used to determine the network portion of an IPv4 address?

a)

DNS server

b)

Default gateway

c)

MAC address

d)

Subnet mask

94.

Which of the following statements are true regarding network layer and data link layer addresses? (Choose three)

a)

Data link layer addresses are physical, and network layer addresses are logical.

b)

Network layer addresses are logical, and data link addresses are expressed as 12 hexadecimal digits.

c)

Network layer addresses are either 32 or 128 bits in length.

d)

Data link layer addresses are either 32 or 128 bits in length.

95.

True or False? Data Link addresses are physical, so they never change in the data link frame from source to destination.

a)

True

b)

False

96.

Which three acronyms/initialisms represent standards organizations? (Choose three)

a)

IETF

b)

IANA

c)

ITU

d)

IEEE

e)

ISO

97.

What type of communication will send a message to all devices on a local area network?

a)

Multicast

b)

Broadcast

c)

Unicast

d)

Anycast

98.

In computer communication, what is the purpose of message encoding?

a)

To convert information into the appropriate form for transmission

b)

To guarantee the reliable delivery of information

c)

To send a message to a group of host destinations simultaneously

99.

Which message delivery option is used when all devices need to receive the same message simultaneously?

a)

Anycast

b)

Multicast

c)

Unicast

d)

Broadcast

100.

What are two benefits of using a layered network model? (Choose two)

a)

It simplifies the physical infrastructure.

b)

It assists in protocol design

c)

It speeds up data transmission.

d)

It prevents technology in one layer from affecting other layers.

101.

What is the purpose of protocols in data communications?

a)

Managing hardware and software resources

b)

Enhancing network performance

c)

Encrypting data for secure transmission

d)

Providing the rules required for a specific type of communication to occu

102.

Which logical address is used for delivery of data to a remote network?

a)

Subnet mask

b)

Destination IP address

c)

Default gateway

d)

MAC address

103.

What is the general term that is used to describe a piece of data at any layer of a networking model?

a)

Ethernet Frame

b)

Packet

c)

Protocol Data Unit (PDU)

d)

Segment

104.

Which two protocols function at the internet layer? (Choose two)

a)

TCP

b)

ICMP

c)

UDP

d)

IP

105.

Which layer of the OSI model defines services to segment and reassemble data for individual communications between end devices?

a)

Data Link

b)

Transport

c)

Network

d)

Physical

106.

What process is used to receive transmitted data and convert it into a readable message?

a)

Encoding

b)

Decoding

c)

Encapsulation

d)

Segmentation