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Bio Midterm Review

Total questions: 40

Worksheet time: 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which statement summarizes the relationship between DNA, proteins, and amino acids?

a)

The DNA molecule is a protein formed by amino acids that are linked together by peptide bonds.

b)

The type of protein that composes DNA codes for the twenty different amino acids.

c)

The sequence of amino acids in DNA determines the type of protein formed during protein

synthesis.

d)

The sequence of nucleotides in DNA codes for specific amino acids which bond to form proteins.

2.

What factor determines the original shape of a protein?

a)

the amount of DNA in the nucleus

b)

the amount of ATP available in the cell

c)

the location of the protein inside the cell

d)

the amino acid sequence in the protein

3.

Paramecia are common one-celled protists that can be found in lakes, ponds, and rivers all over the United States.

The hair-like structures surrounding the paramecium that are used for locomotion are called

a)
flagella
b)
tentacles
c)
pseudopods
d)
cilia
4.

The image shows an amoeba, a unicellular organism commonly found in pond water.

The outer portions of the amoeba that are used for survival, capturing food, and maintaining homeostasis, are called what?

a)
nucleus
b)
pseudopodia
c)
flagella
d)
cell wall
5.

Why are your muscles sore after a workout?

a)
Lack of hydration
b)
Too much rest between sets
c)

build-up of lactic acid when they run out of O2

d)
Not stretching before the workout
6.

What is the fuel commonly used to provide the energy for cellular respiration?

a)
oxygen
b)
glucose
c)
water
d)
carbon dioxide
7.

Which describes the difference between aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration?

a)

Aerobic respiration is completed in the presence of oxygen, while

anaerobic is not.

b)

Anaerobic respiration is only found in animals, while aerobic is

never found in animals.

c)

Aerobic respiration is only found in animals, while anaerobic is

never found in animals.

d)

Anaerobic respiration is completed in the presence of oxygen, while

aerobic is not.

8.

The freshwater plant, Elodea , produces bubbles when placed in direct light. What is occurring?

a)

Bubbles of oxygen were produced as a result of photosynthesis.

b)

Bubbles of carbon dioxide were produced as a result of cellular respiration.

c)

Bubbles of oxygen were produced as a result of cellular respiration.

d)

Bubbles of carbon dioxide were produced as a result of photosynthesis.

9.

Which word equation best represents the process of cellular respiration?

a)

carbon dioxide + glucose → oxygen + water

b)

carbon dioxide + water → glucose + oxygen

c)

glucose + oxygen → carbon dioxide + water

d)

oxygen + water → carbon dioxide + glucose

10.

Enzymes act as catalysts in biochemical reactions. In the diagram, which represents a catalyst?

a)

W

b)

X

c)

Y

d)

WX

11.

Illustration 1 shows sugar that has formed a bond by the action of an enzyme. Illustration 2 shows the enzyme, and Illustration 3 shows the enzyme after the addition of heat. How does the addition of heat affect the ability of an enzyme to help the sugar molecules form a bond?

a)

Heat allows the sugar molecules to bond more quickly.

b)

Heat provides places on the enzyme for other molecules to bond.

c)

Heat changes the enzyme so that the sugar molecules can no longer bond.

d)

Heat changes the chemical composition of the sugar molecules so they no longer need the enzyme.

12.
The graph shows how enzymes affect reactions in cells. Which statement best summarizes the information shown in the graph?
a)
Enzymes increase the energy of the reactants.
b)
Enzymes decrease the energy level of the products.
c)
Enzyme decrease the activation energy of the reaction.
d)
Enzymes reverse the direction of the reaction.
13.

Which nucleic acid is correctly paired with its function?

a)

mRNA: moves genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosome

b)

DNA: forms peptide bonds between amino acids

c)

mRNA: lines up amino acids at the ribosome

d)

tRNA: moves genetic information from the nucleus to the ribosome

14.

The DNA sequence ACTCG produces which mRNA sequence during transcription?

a)
UGAGC
b)
GCTGA
c)
TGCAG
d)
ACGTA
15.

Which molecules are joined together to make proteins?

a)
Nucleotides
b)
Lipids
c)
Carbohydrates
d)
Amino acids
16.

Sickle cell anemia is a condition that affects the shape of a person’s red blood cells. Normal red blood cells are round, but the red blood cells of a person with sickle cell anemia are shaped like crescent moons.

Sickle cell anemia is passed from parent to offspring. How did a change from the normal red blood cell shape most likely originate?

a)
genetic mutation
b)
bacterial infection
c)
exposure to radiation
d)
lack of oxygen
17.

The table shows a few messenger RNA codons.

Which point mutation would result in the formation of a new protein?

a)

UGU to UGC

b)

UAA to UAG

c)

UUU to UUA

d)

UCA to UCG

18.

Every copy of a particular protein manufactured by a cell shows the same incorrect amino acid at the same point in its structure. According to the central dogma of molecular biology, in which structure does this error originate?

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

tRNA

d)

rRNA

19.

What can be concluded from the table?

a)

Different cells function together to perform a single task.

b)

Different cells are specialized to perform different functions.

c)

The same gene is expressed differently in different cells.

d)

The same task is performed by different structures in different cells.

20.

How is the DNA sequence AATTA replicated in a new strand during semiconservative replication?

a)
TTAAT
b)
GCGCG
c)
AATTA
d)
ATATA
21.

The overall roles of DNA and RNA are illustrated. Which process is represented between RNA and Protein

a)

transcription

b)

replication

c)

translation

d)

mutation

22.

What statement best describes the role of DNA in protein synthesis?

a)

DNA caries the amino acids to the ribosomes

b)

DNA forms the structural parts of the ribosomes.

c)

DNA joins the chains of amino acids to form a protein.

d)

DNA contains the information for building individual proteins.

23.

How many basic units of information in a DNA molecule are required to encode a single amino acid?

a)
3
b)
4
c)
2
d)
1
24.

Which of the following aspects of a DNA molecule is responsible for determining the traits of an organism?

a)
Sequence of nucleotides
b)
Presence of genes
c)
Size of the DNA molecule
d)
Number of chromosomes
25.

Which RNA sequence will result from the transcription of the DNA sequence TTC CGA ATG GGA?

a)
AAG GCU UAC CCC
b)

UUA GCU UAC CCU

c)
AAG GCU UAC CCG
d)
AAG GCU UAC CCA
26.

Which polypeptide would be produced from the DNA segment below?


TAG CAA GTG GCA

a)

Methionine - Leucine - Aspartate - Alanine

b)

Lysine - Glutamine - Aspartate - Alanine

c)

Leucine - Leucine - Valine - Alanine

d)

Isoleucine - Valine - Histidine - Arginine

27.

A section of DNA has these bases:

TAG CAG TAC

Which mRNA sequence is produced from this DNA section?

a)

AUC GUC AUG

b)
AUG GUC UAC
c)
UAC GUC UAC
d)
UAC GUC AUG
28.

During translation, what does the tRNA deliver to the ribosomes?

a)
lipids
b)
amino acids
c)
DNA
d)
mRNA
29.

Which statement best explains the advantage of the hydrogen bonds between the nucleotides in a DNA molecule?

a)
Increased flexibility of the DNA molecule.
b)
Enhanced resistance to DNA damage.
c)
Improved accuracy of DNA replication.
d)
Stability and easy separation of DNA strands during replication and transcription.
30.

Which best describes a strand of DNA?

a)

It is a single-stranded nucleic acid with ribose and uracil.

b)

It is a double-stranded nucleic acid with deoxyribose and uracil.

c)

It is a single-stranded nucleic acid with deoxyribose and thymine.

d)

It is a double-stranded nucleic acid with deoxyribose and thymine.

31.

Why is DNA replication considered a semi-conservative process?

a)

RNA will combine with DNA using the base pair rules during this process.

b)

DNA has two sides of complementary base pairs held together by weak

bonds.

c)

DNA replication must occur before mitosis to produce identical daughter

cells.

d)

The new DNA molecules contain one strand of the original molecule and one

new strand.

32.

Which RNA is a copy made from a DNA strand that can be transported to a ribosome?

a)
sRNA
b)
rRNA
c)
tRNA
d)
mRNA
33.

Why must DNA replication have to occur before a cell can divide by mitosis?

a)
DNA replication helps in repairing damaged DNA.
b)
DNA replication is necessary for cell growth.
c)
Each daughter cell needs a complete set of genetic information.
d)
DNA replication ensures genetic diversity in daughter cells.
34.

Which effect could a mutation in mRNA have on the production of proteins?

a)
It can decrease the production of proteins.
b)
It can have no effect on the production of proteins.
c)
It can increase the production of proteins.
d)
It can change the amino acid sequence of the protein.
35.

Which of the following is a typical example of a unicellular organism?

a)

earthworm

b)

bacteria

c)

fungi

d)

green algae

36.

At the end of mitosis, a cell divides into two cells. What must happen before the cell divides?

a)
The cell must replicate its DNA before it divides.
b)

Chromosomes must be replicated.

c)
The cell must undergo meiosis before it divides.
d)
The cell must enter the G0 phase before it divides.
37.

A scientist studied human skin cells as they produced two genetically identical daughter cells from a single parent cell. The scientist mapped the steps as shown.

Which of the following did the scientist map in this scenario?

a)

photosynthesis

b)

meiosis

c)

the cell cyccle

d)

mitosis

38.

Which event outlines protein synthesis?

a)

(1) mRNA is transcribed; (2) mRNA leaves the nucleus; (3) Ribosomes translates mRNA; (4) Amino Acids form polypeptide chain

b)

(1) mRNA is transcribed; (2) Amino Acids form polypeptide chain; (3) Ribosomes translates mRNA; (4) Ribosomes translates mRNA

c)

(1) Ribosomes translates mRNA; (2) Ribosomes translates mRNA; (3) Amino Acids form polypeptide chain; (4) mRNA is transcribed

d)

(1) Amino Acids form polypeptide chain; (2) mRNA is transcribed; (3) Ribosomes translates mRNA; (4) Ribosomes translates mRNA

39.

In which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?

a)
G1 phase
b)
S phase
c)
G2 phase
d)
M phase
40.

The chemical colchicine disrupts cell division. Which cell process would most likely stop if colchicine were added to a culture of human liver cells?

a)
Mitosis
b)
Protein synthesis
c)
DNA replication
d)
Meiosis