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Unit 4B Test Review

Total questions: 176

Worksheet time: 3hrs 18mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Heterozygous is when...
a)
the alleles are the same
b)
the alleles are different
c)
the alleles are absent
d)
the alleles are present
2.
In a heterozygous genotype, the ___________ allele takes over in the phenotype.
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
c)
lower case letter
d)
both 
3.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
4.
G = green, g = yellow
The genotype for a yellow plant is...
a)
GG
b)
Gg
c)
gg
d)
all of the choices result in yellow
5.
B = brown fur  b = white fur
In the punnett square, what is the probability for white fur? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
6.
Which of the following alleles is homozygous (purebred) recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
t
7.
Two brown eyed parents (Bb) have a baby. What is the chance the baby is blue eyed?
a)
0 %
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
8.
Dominant alleles are represented by a:
a)
Male gene
b)
lowercase letter
c)
recessive trait
d)
capital letter
9.
Aa, DD, bB, yy are all examples of
a)
genotypes
b)
phenotypes
10.
In a heterozygous genotype, the ___________ allele takes over in the phenotype.
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
c)
lower case letter
d)
both 
11.
What you see, or the physical appearance.
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Homozygous
d)
Heterozygous
12.
AA and Aa always show up as
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
13.
aa always shows up as
a)
dominant
b)
recessive
14.
Aa is
a)
homozygous
b)
heterozygous
15.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
Aa
b)
red hair
c)
heterozygous
d)
DNA
16.
What is a punnett square?
a)
graph used to predict the possible genotypes of offspring in a given cross
b)
a graph used to predict the possible birth rate of offspring.
c)
a graph used to predict the possible behavioral characteristics an offspring could have
d)
None of the above
17.
In a punnet square where are the parent alleles written?
a)
Top and inside the boxes
b)
Only on the left and right side of the boxes. 
c)
outside of the boxes (top and left side)
d)
All on the top side of the boxes
18.
What you see, or the physical appearance.
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Homozygous
d)
Heterozygous
19.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)
the possible combination of alleles in a gene
c)
whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d)
how an organism will appear
20.
What is the dominant trait?
a)
yellow pea seeds
b)
green pea seeds
c)
there is no dominant seed
d)
Jolly green giant
21.

Mama Isabella has a blood type of O. Her son, Norman, has also a blood type of O. What is the blood type of Norman's father?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

22.

If the image were real, it would represent what type of inheritance pattern?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Multiple Alleles

d)

Polygenic Inheritance

23.

The two cows on the top are the parents and the cow on the bottom is the offspring. What is the type of inheritance pattern is being exhibited?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Multiple Alleles

d)

Polygenic Inheritance

24.

What type of inheritance pattern does the diagram represent?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Multiple Alleles

d)

Polygenic Inheritance

25.

In humans, the gene for curly hair (H) is incompletely dominant to the gene for straight hair (h). Individuals that are heterozygous (Hh) have wavy hair.

Two wavy-haired heterozygous parents have a child.

What is the likeliness that the child will have wavy hair?

a)

1/4

b)

1/2

c)

3/4

d)

4/4

26.

The different forms of a gene are called ---

a)

traits

b)

hybrids

c)

alleles

27.

The blending of two traits in which one is not completely dominant over the other is known as ---

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

codominance

28.

____ is an inheritance pattern that results in offspring that are a MIXTURE of the two traits of its parents, like yellow and blue flowers making green offspring.

a)

incomplete dominance.

b)

codominance

29.

An inheritance pattern in which both alleles for a gene are expressed in the offspring so that both traits show up on its body is known as ---

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

30.

What type of inheritance pattern do two alleles for a gene follow if their traits blend together on the offspring?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

31.

What type of inheritance pattern is shown here?

a)

Codominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

32.

A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

33.

If you cross a black chicken with a white chicken and only black AND white feathered chickens are produced, then feather color follows the inheritance pattern of ---

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

34.

The green fish offspring in this image is an example of ---

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

35.

This cow with brown and white spots is an example of ---

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

36.

Snap dragon color is a incomplete dominant trait. A red flower (RR) is crossed with white flower (WW)? What color are flowers that are RW?

a)

Red and white spotted

b)

Red

c)

Pink

d)

White

37.

A red flowered plant (RR) is crossed with a white flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance. What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

38.

A tall plant (TT) is crossed with a short plant (SS). The result is a medium plant (TS). This is what type of inheritance pattern?

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

39.

A red flowered plant (RR) is crossed with a white flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance. What percentage of the offspring will have red (RR) flowers?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

40.

The hair form gene shows incomplete dominance. If your genotype is SS, you will have straight hair. If your genotype is CC, you will have curly hair. If your genotype is SC, you will have wavy hair. Mr. and Mrs. Anderson both have wavy hair (SC). What percentage of their children will also have wavy hair (SC)?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

41.

What do the phenotypes of the offspring in this Punnett square represent?

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

codominance

42.

Codominance occurs in calico cats, which allows for the Black and Tan colors to show. What percentage of the offspring represented in this P square will be calico (black and tan spotted)?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

43.

Incomplete dominance occurs in cats, which allows them to be Black, White, or gray as shown on this Punnett square. What percentage of the offspring will be black?

a)

25

b)

50

c)

75

d)

100

44.

Incomplete dominance occurs in cats, which allows them to be Black, White, or gray as shown on this Punnett square. What percentage of the offspring will be white?

a)

25

b)

50

c)

0

d)

100

45.

Incomplete dominance occurs in cats, which allows them to be Black, White, or gray as shown on this Punnett square. What percentage of the offspring will be gray?

a)

25

b)

50

c)

75

d)

100

46.
What do we use pedigrees for?
a)

To determine the phenotype of the offspring

b)

To determination the genotype of the offspring

c)

To trace traits in families

d)

To determine which gene is dominante

47.

Which of the following genotypes shows a CARRIER for a trait?

a)

XBXb

b)

XbXb

c)

XBXB

d)

XbY

48.

Colorblindness is a recessive X-linked disorder.

Which genotype represents a male with normal vision?

a)

XN YN

b)

Xn Yn

c)

XN Y

d)

Xn Y

49.

What is 1 examples of an X-linked genetic disorder?

a)

Huntington's Disease

b)

Down's Syndrome

c)

Colorblindness

d)

Diabetes

50.

Huntington's Disease is an autosomal dominant disorder. What would the genotype of an affected person be?

a)

Hh

b)

hh

c)

HH

d)

none of these

51.

A gene that is located on 1 of the first 44 chromosomes is called _____.

a)

autosomal

b)

x-linked

c)

dominant

d)

recessive

52.
Which of the following genotypes belongs in the red box in the Punnett square?
a)
XBXb
b)
XbXb
c)
XbY
d)
XBY
53.
Different variations of a gene are called?
a)
Alleles
b)
DNA
c)
Chromosome
d)
Gene
54.

Colorblindness is more common in males than in females because......

a)

fathers pass the allele for colorblindness to their sons only

b)

the allele for colorblindness is located on the Y chromosome

c)

the allele for colorblindness is recessive and located on the X chromosome

d)

males who are colorblind have two copies of the allele for colorblindness

55.

Colorblindness is a recessive X-linked disorder.

Which genotype represents a male with normal vision?

a)

XN YN

b)

Xn Yn

c)

XN Y

d)

Xn Y

56.
The sex of a child is determined by
a)

whether the father's sperm contains an x or y chromosome

b)

whether the mother's egg contains an x or y chromosome

c)

the age of the parents

d)

whether the mother's egg contains an xx or xy

57.

What would the genotype be of a colorblind male?

a)

XNY

b)

XNYn

c)

XnY

d)

XnYn

58.

How many recessive genes does a carrier female have for colorblindness?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

0

d)

3

59.

Colorblindness is a sex-linked recessive trait. A colorblind woman marries a male with normal color vision. What is the percent chance of them having a color blind son?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

60.

The woman who is colorblind marries a man with normal vision. What is the probability that their sons will be colorblind?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

61.
What is the genotype of the mother?
a)
BB
b)
bb
c)
Bb
d)
BB or Bb
62.
This pedigree represents the inheritance of hemophilia in this family. How many of the females have the hemophilia trait?
a)

8

b)

5

c)

2

d)

3

63.
What do half colored symbols represent?
a)
The individual is a carrier (heterozygous).
b)
The individual expresses the trait.
c)
The individual has both recessive alleles.
d)
The individual has both dominant alleles.
64.

Which best explains why males cannot be carriers of X-linked traits?

a)

Males only have one X chromosome

b)

Males have two copies of the X chromosome

c)

Males can be heterozygous for a particular trait

d)

Males do not have an X chromosome

65.

A woman who is a carrier for the sex-linked trait hemophilia has children with a man with hemophilia. What percentage of offspring would be expected to have hemophilia?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

75%

66.
Occurs when a person has an extra chromosome on the 21st pair.

a)
Down syndrome
b)
Huntington's disease
c)
Parkinson's disease
d)
Zika syndrome
67.
A chart that tracks which members of a family have a particular trait.
a)
pedigree
b)
genetic diagram
c)
manuscript
d)
flow chart
68.
having two of the same genes for the trait (sometimes called purebred).
a)
homozygous
b)
hetrozygous
c)
protein
d)
chromosome
69.
having two different genes for a trait (sometimes called hybrid).
a)
protein
b)
homozygous
c)
heterozygous
d)
genotype
70.
Universal blood donors have type ______ blood.
a)
A
b)
AB
c)
B
d)
O
71.

If one of your parents is blood type A and the other is type B, which of the following blood types could you be?

a)

O

b)

AB

c)

A or B

d)

Any of these

72.
What are the blood types of the possible children that a woman (type O) and man (type AB) can have?
a)
O and AB
b)
O and A
c)
O and B
d)
A and B
73.
What do we use pedigrees for?
a)
To look at families
b)
To make determinations about the offspring
c)
To track traits in families
d)
Nothing
74.

On a pedigree, this symbol represents a ---

a)

not affected female.

b)

not affected male.

c)

affected male.

d)

affected female.

75.

How many individuals are there in the 3rd generation?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

76.
If this pedigree shows an autosomal recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual II-3 be?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
None of the above
77.
There are no carriers for Huntington's Disease- you either have it or you don't. Is Huntington's disease caused by a dominant or recessive trait?
a)
Dominant
b)
Recessive
78.
What is the genotype of the mother?
a)
BB
b)
bb
c)
Bb
d)
BB or Bb
79.
What is the genotype of the father?
a)
AA
b)
aa
c)
Aa
d)
AA or aa
80.

Generation 2 individuals 5 and 6 are

a)

brother and sister.

b)

cousins.

c)

married.

d)

not related.

81.

What is the gender of this person?

a)

Male

b)

Female

82.

What syndrome does this person have and what is their gender?

a)

Male

b)

Female

c)

Edwards

d)

Patau

e)

Downs

83.

How many alleles does a person carry for a trait?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

84.

How many alleles does a child get from each parent for a trait?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

85.

Dominant alleles are represented by a ---

a)

capital letter.

b)

lowercase letter.

86.

Aa, DD, Bb, yy are all examples of ---

a)

genotypes.

b)

phenotypes.

87.

In a heterozygous genotype, the _____ allele takes over in the phenotype.

a)

recessive

b)

dominant

c)

both

88.

What you see, or the physical appearance of an organism, is called the ---

a)

genotype.

b)

phenotype.

89.
What do we use pedigrees for?
a)
To look at families
b)
To make determinations about the offspring
c)
To track traits in families
d)
Nothing
90.

In a pedigree, which shape represents a male?

a)

circle

b)

square

91.

Which gender has an X and a Y chromosome?

a)

male

b)

female

92.

On a pedigree, this symbol represents a ---

a)

not affected female.

b)

not affected male.

c)

affected male.

d)

affected female.

93.

On a pedigree, this symbol represents a ----

a)

not affected male.

b)

not affected female.

c)

affected male.

d)

affected female.

94.

How many individuals are there in the 3rd generation?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

4

d)

6

95.

How are individuals III-2 and II-4 related?

a)

Brother and sister

b)

Dad and daughter

c)

Uncle and niece

d)

Grandfather and granddaughter

96.

What is the mode of inheritance shown here?

a)

Recessive because it "skips" a generation

b)

Dominant because it shows up in every generation

97.

In the second generation of this pedigree, how many people are carriers of the trait? *Remember: a carrier does not have the disorder/disease, but can pass it on to his/her children.

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

5

98.

On this pedigree, the allele for curly hair is dominant. The couple labeled 2 both have curly hair, but have a daughter who does not have curly hair. Therefore, we can tell from the chart that for the couple labeled 2 -

a)

the male is heterozygous and the female is heterozygous.

b)

the male is homozygous recessive and the female is homozygous dominant.

99.

Why do all the daughters in Generation II carry the colorblind gene?

a)

Because mom passed on the gene.

b)

Because dad passed on the X chromosome.

100.

The trait this pedigree traces is recessive because it skips a generation and individuals can be carriers. What is the most likely genotype for person III-3?

a)

GG

b)

Gg

c)

gg

101.

Which individual in the first generation is a carrier?

a)

I-1

b)

I-2

102.

If this pedigree shows a recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual II-3 be?

a)

HH

b)

Hh

c)

hh

103.
What part of our cells holds our DNA?
a)
cytoplasm
b)
cell membrane
c)
nucleus
d)
ribosomes
104.
What has DNA?
a)
animals
b)
plants
c)
bacteria
d)
all of the above
105.
What does DNA stand for?
a)
Deoxyribonucleic acid
b)
Denitrogenous acid
c)
Deribonucleic acid
d)
Diribonucleic acid
106.
Which of the following best describes a DNA molecule?
a)
double helix
b)
contains ribose
c)
made of amino acids
d)
contains Uracil
107.
Which of the following units are repeatedly joined together to form a strand of DNA?
a)
amino acids
b)
nucleotides
c)
fatty acids
d)
polysaccharides
108.
Which shows the correct complementary base pairing for DNA?
a)
C-A, T-G
b)
A-G, C-T
c)
C-G, U-A
d)
T-A, G-C
109.
What is the relationship between a protein, the cell, and DNA?
a)
DNA is produced by protein which is produced in the cell
b)
Protein is composed of DNA which is produced in the cell
c)
DNA controls the production of protein in the cell
d)
A cell is composed of DNA and protein
110.
The process of making RNA (i.e. mRNA) from DNA is called
a)
Replication
b)
Transcription
c)
Translation
d)
Protein synthesis
111.
The DNA sequence TACGAA would be transcribed to
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
112.

Where does transcription take place?

a)

mitochondria

b)

ribosome

c)

nucleus

d)

cytoplasm

113.
A segment of DNA that codes for a protein is called a...
a)
Enzyme
b)
Mutation
c)
Gene
d)
Complimentary
114.
mRNA is important, because it __________.
a)
Carries info from genes to ribosomes
b)
Carries amino acids to ribosomes
c)
Helps with RNA splicing
d)
Makes up ribosomes
115.

Protein synthesis (Translation) is important because it __________.

a)

Converts mRNA into a protein

b)

Copies the genetic information in DNA

c)

Produces RNA from DNA molecules

d)

Recycles tRNA molecules for reuse

116.

Where does protein synthesis (translation) take place?

a)

in the nucleus

b)

in the cytoplasm on ribosomes

c)

in the chloroplasts

d)

in the mitochondria

117.

What is the term for a three nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid? For example: AUG

a)

Nitrogen base

b)

Codon

c)

Anticodon

d)

Phosphate group

118.
Transfer RNA (tRNA) is important because it __________.
a)
Carries amino acids to the ribosome
b)
Carries ribosomes to the ER
c)
Carries glucose to mitochondria
d)
Carries mRNA out of the nucleus
119.
In RNA, Adenine bonds with __________.
a)
Uracil
b)
Thymine
c)
Guanine
d)
Cytosine
120.
Which 2 molecules forms the sides (backbone) of the DNA ladder?
a)
deoxyribose and adenine
b)
deoxyribose and a hydrogen bond
c)
sugar and the nucleus
d)
deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate
121.
Which of the following bases is NOT found in RNA?
a)
Thymine
b)
Adenine
c)
Guanine
d)
Cytosine
122.
Which of the following is a correct difference between RNA and DNA?
a)
RNA is single stranded and DNA is double stranded
b)
RNA is double stranded and DNA is single stranded
c)
DNA uses Uracil and RNA uses Thymine
d)
RNA has deoxyribose and DNA has ribose
123.

Name this structure

a)

double helix

b)

nucleotide

c)

twisted ladder

d)

hydrogen bond

124.

Which of the following is correct?

a)

Proteins are made of nucleotides

b)

Nucleic acids are of amino acids

c)

Proteins are made of amino acids

125.

Mutations are

a)

changes in DNA

b)

changes in RNA

c)

changes in amino acids

d)

changes in tRNA

126.

DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG

The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.

a)

Base Substitution

b)

Base Insertion

c)

Base Deletion

127.

ATTTGAGCC- Original

ATTGAGCC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion- Frameshift

b)

Substitution

c)

Deletion -Frameshift

128.
Which of the following are mutagens?
a)
UV radiation
b)
X-rays
c)
pollution
d)
all of the them
129.

Which of the following is true about mutations?

a)

Mutations are always harmful.

b)

Mutations are always helpful.

c)

Mutations can be helpful, harmful, or neutral.

d)

Mutations always have no effect on the protein.

130.

In RNA, adenine binds with ?

a)

thymine

b)

uracil

c)

cytosine

d)

guanine

131.
Which of the following is a nucleotide of RNA?
a)
ribose-phosphate-uracil
b)
deoxyribose-phosphate-thymine
c)
ribose-phosphate-thymine
d)
deoxyribose-phosphate-uracil
132.

The process of making mRNA from DNA is called?

a)

replication

b)

translation

c)

transcription

d)

duplication

133.

mRNA is made in the ?

a)

nucleus

b)

ribosome

c)

mitochondria

d)

cytoplasm

134.
What type of RNA travels outside the nucleus?
a)
transfer
b)
messenger
c)
ribosomal
d)
nuclear
135.

The actual decoding of mRNA to a protein is called ?

a)

translation

b)

replication

c)

transcription

d)

nuclear fission

136.
The building blocks of proteins are?
a)
carbs
b)
sugars
c)
lipids
d)
amino acids
137.
The three letter code is called a?
a)
script
b)
codon
c)
tri code
d)
gene
138.

What organelle does the mRNA attach to in order to make the protein?

a)

ribosome

b)

mitochondria

c)

chloroplast

d)

lysosome

139.

mRNA is made from what?

a)

proteins

b)

DNA

c)

mitochondria

d)

Sugar

140.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
141.
What mutation has occurred here? 
T-G-A-C-C-A
T-G-A-G-C-A
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Frameshift 
142.
Normal-
GAG-CTC-GAC-AGA
Mutant
GAG CTC-CAC-AGA
a)
no mutation
b)
substitution
c)
insertion
d)
deletion
143.
Normal-
AGA-TTC-ATA-GCG
Mutant-
AGA-TTC-AAT-AGC-G
a)
deletion frameshift
b)
insertion frameshift
c)
substitution
d)
nonsense
144.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTACGCAAC. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Insertion
c)
Inversion
d)
Translocation
145.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
146.
What type of chromosomal mutation is this?
a)
Translocation
b)
Inversion
c)
Deletion
d)
Duplication
147.
If you are missing or have an extra base  at the end of your mutated DNA . What type of mutation occurred?
a)
Substitution
b)
Frameshift
c)
Duplication 
d)
Insertion
148.
ATTTGAGCC- Original
ATTGAGCC - Mutated
The example above is an example of a 
a)
Insertion- Frameshift
b)
Deletion- Substitution
c)
Deletion -Frameshift
d)
All of the above
149.
Any change in the sequence of DNA is...
a)
transgenic shift
b)
Single Genotype
c)
Monohybrid Trait
d)
Mutation
150.

A mutation in which only one nucleotide is altered is called a:

a)

Frameshift Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Point Mutation

d)

Insertion Mutation

151.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

152.
The survival of a species depends on its ability to adapt to changes in the environment. Which statement correctly describes a way that mutations increase the likelihood that a species will survive in a changing environment?
a)
Mutations are a source of variation in the species
b)
Mutations are the cause of disease in the species
c)
Mutations are not harmful when they occur in somatic cells
d)
Mutations are always passed on to subsequent generations
153.

Genetic mutations can be...

a)

beneficial, harmful, or neutral

b)

beneficial only

c)

harmful only

d)

neutral only

154.
What is a Gene?
a)
A segment of RNA that encodes for a protein
b)
A chromosome
c)
A segment of DNA that encodes for a protein
d)
Your genome
155.

Why are insertion and deletion mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

156.

A change in a gene, group of genes or chromosome that results in a change in the proteins

a)

Replication

b)

Mutations

c)

Translation

d)

Transcription

157.

Mutations that involve parts of or all of

a chromosome

a)

Replication

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Chromosomal Mutation

d)

Transcription

158.

Part of a chromosome

is deleted

a)

Deletion Mutation-Gene

b)

Translocation

c)

Deletion Mutation -Chromosomal

d)

Crossing Over

159.

Part of a chromosome is repeated

a)

Gene Mutation

b)

Point Mutation

c)

Deletion Mutation

d)

Duplication Mutation

160.

WHAT DOES MEIOSIS CREATE?

a)

CHROMOSOMES

b)

GAMETES

c)

DNA

d)

TRAITS

161.

MEIOSIS IS NEEDED BECAUSE...

a)

IT ACTUALLY ISN'T, BUT CAN BE HELPFUL IN SOME ORGANISMS

b)

TO REDUCE THE CHROMOSOME NUMBER BY HALF

c)

SO THAT EVERY CELL IS EXACTLY IDENTICAL

d)

TO MAKE SURE EVERY HUMAN CELL HAS 92 CHROMOSOMES

162.

THE END RESULT OF MEIOSIS IS...

a)

FOUR UNIDENTICAL GAMETES

b)

FOUR IDENTICAL GAMETES

c)

TWO IDENTICAL GAMETES

d)

TWO UNIDENTICAL GAMETES

163.

THE GAMETES ARE CONSIDERED TO HAVE ONE HALF OF THE GENETIC INFO SO IT IS CALL

a)

DIPLOID (2N)

b)

DIPLOID (N)

c)

HAPLOID (2N)

d)

HAPLOID (N)

164.

THE STRUCTURE THAT CONTAINS THE DNA IS CALLED (CHOOSE THE MOST SPECIFIC ANSWER)

a)

CHROMOSOME

b)

CELL BODY

c)

CELL

d)

NUCLEUS

165.

MALE GAMETE IS KNOWN AS

a)

EGG

b)

SPERM

166.

A FEMALE GAMETE IS KNOWN AS

a)

EGG

b)

SPERM

167.

HOW MANY CHROMOSOMES DO HUMAN GAMETES HAVE?

a)

46

b)

23

c)

47

d)

22

168.

CROSSING OVER ALLOWS FOR WHAT TO HAPPEN?

a)

ALL CELLS TO STAY THE SAME

b)

GENETIC VARIATION

c)

REDUCTION OF CHROMOSOMES

d)

CHROMOSOME NUMBER TO INCREASE

169.

WHEN THE SPERM FERTILIZES THE EGG WHAT IS FORMED

a)

ZYGOTE

b)

EMBRYO

c)

FETUS

d)

FERTILIZATION

170.

FERTILZATION IS ...

a)

THE FUSION OF A HAPLOID EGG AND SPERM

b)

THE FUSION OF A DIPLOID EGG AND SPERM

c)

THE FUSION OF A HAPLOID EGG AND DIPLOID SPERM

d)

THE FUSION OF TWO EGGS

171.

WHY ARE THE CHROMOSOMES EVEN NUMBERED FOR ORGANISIMS?

a)

JUST A COINCIDENCE

b)

BECAUSE 75% OF THE INFO COMES FROM MOM AND 25% COMES FROM DAD

c)

BECAUSE 51% OF THE INFO COMES FROM MOM AND 49% COMES FROM DAD

d)

BECAUSE HALF OF THE GENTIC INFORMATION COMES FROM MOM AND HALF COMES FROM DAD

172.

THIS IMAGE SHOWS WHAT IS HAPPENING WITH THE CHROMOSOMES?

a)

NON- DISJUNCTION

b)

METAPHASE

c)

TELOPHASE

d)

CROSSING OVER

173.

The idea of non-disjunction of the 21st chromosome means the following:

a)

complete seperation of chromosomes

b)

complete seperation of genes

c)

failure for chromosomes to seperate

d)

failure for genes to seperate

174.

To find out how much variation an organism with a diploid number of 20 chromosomes would have you would need to do the following

a)

20^2

b)

2^10

c)

2^20

d)

10^2

175.

Chromosomes assort independantly, not genes because of the following

a)

The chromosomes contain the genes, genes can't leave the chromosome

b)

The genes contain the chromosomes

c)

It depends on the sex of the offspring

d)

In sexual selection of most organisms the genes will be directed by the DNA to assort independantly

176.

Explain the karyotype of this individual

a)

Male - no genetic defect

b)

Male - Down's Syndrome

c)

Female - no genetic defect

d)

Female - Down's Syndrome

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