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nptel2

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 40mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which is not a TRAIT as stated in the Trait Definition of Leadership?

a)

a) A group is a collection of individuals who interact and independently work towards some objectives.

b)

A group is formed when two or more individuals collaborate to achieve specific goals.

c)

A group consists of atleast 10 individuals who have come together to achieve their individual objective

d)

) A group is an assembly of individuals who interact and but does not e) depend on each other to accomplish shared goals.

2.

What can be said when ‘a collection of individuals who have a regular contact and frequent interaction, mutual interest, the fellow feeling and who work together to achieve a common set of goals’?

a)

a) A Team

b)

b) A Class

c)

c) A group

d)

d) A family

3.

Which of the following is NOT a need for becoming a member of a group?

a)

) Need for security

b)

b) Need for status

c)

c) Need of self-esteem

d)

d) None of these

4.

‘It helps to work like a vehicle for training to new employees which helps to learn method of operation and norms.’ How is the statement related with?

a)

a) Characteristics of group

b)

b) Type of group

c)

c) Functions of group

d)

d) Need of a group member

5.

Which of the following is among the four sources of group norms?

a)

a) Carry over from other experiences

b)

b) Primacy first behavioural precedents

c)

c) Explicit statements from leaders or members

d)

d) All of these

6.

Statement 1: Different groups impose different role requirements on individuals. Statement 2: We all play a number of roles, and our behaviour varies with each. Which of the following is correct about the above two statements?

a)

a) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is false.

b)

b) Statement 2 is correct, but Statement 1 is false.

c)

c) Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.

d)

d) Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false.

7.

Abilities include the physical and intellectual both found to be related to overall group performance. Which determinant does the statement belong to?

a)

a) Organisational culture

b)

b) Resource of the members of group

c)

c) Physical work environment

d)

d) Authority structure of the organisation

8.

tatement 1: Status is a socially defined position or rank given to groups or group members by others. Statement 2: Status can’t be derived from a person’s ability to contribute to a group’s goals. Which of the following is correct about the above two statements?

a)

a) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is false.

b)

b) Statement 2 is correct, but Statement 1 is false.

c)

c) Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct.

d)

d) Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false.

9.

What is the name of the stage of group formation where disagreements tend to get expressed among the group members and feelings of anxiety and resentment are also expressed?

a)

a) Forming

b)

b) Norming

c)

c) Storming

d)

d) Performing

10.

What is the name of the stage of group formation where group members try to comprehend where they stand in the group and the way they are being perceived by others in the group?

a)

a) Forming

b)

b) Norming

c)

c) Storming

d)

d) Performing

11.

1. What type of improvements can be realized when recommendations from problem-solving teams are paired with implementation processes?

a)

(a) Minimal improvements

b)

(b) Insignificant improvements

c)

(c) No improvements

d)

(d) Significant improvements

12.

2. It is empowered to share various management and leadership functions. What does ‘It’ refer to?

a)

(a) Group

b)

(b) Community

c)

(c) Organisation

d)

(d) Team

13.

3. Which of the followings are prerequisites of a Good Team?

a)

(a) Members between 6 and 10 members

b)

(b) Clear and documented purpose

c)

(c) Mutual support to each other

d)

(d) All of these

14.

Find out suitable option on how to enhance team performance?

a)

(a) Making team with large size of members

b)

(b) Having no structure for teams

c)

(c) Ensuring team members develop high mutual trust

d)

(d) Developing no commitment to realize the goals

15.

Which of the following refers to the degree to which members are attracted to, and motivated to remain in team? (

a)

a) Norms

b)

(b) Roles

c)

(c) Cohesiveness

d)

(d) Reinvigorating

16.

Which teams have the authority to unilaterally implement their suggestions, but if their recommendations are paired with implementation processes, some significant improvements can be realized?

a)

(a) Problem solving teams

b)

(b) Self-managed teams

c)

(c) Cross-functional teams

d)

(d) None of these

17.

Which teams are groups of employees (typically 10 to 15 in number) who perform highly related or interdependent jobs?

a)

(a) Problem solving teams

b)

(b) Self-managed teams

c)

(c) Cross-functional teams

d)

(d) None of these

18.

Which of the following helps to enhance team performance?

a)

(a) Having proper leadership and structure for teams.

b)

(b) Establishing suitable performance evaluation and reward system.

c)

(c) Ensuring members with at least skills on technical, problem-solving, decision making, interpersonal skills.

d)

(d) All of these.

19.

Which of the following refers to how the team affects the organization, individual team members, and the team’s existence?

a)

(a) Team Unity

b)

(b) Team Affiliation

c)

(c) Team Collaboration

d)

(d) Team Effectiveness

20.

Trust is built up on the basis of which of the following?

a)

(a) Communication among members

b)

(b) Respecting to others

c)

(c) Competency

d)

(d) All of these

21.

. Which approach involves a search for a mutually beneficial outcome and solving problems by clarifying differences?

a)

a) Conflict

b)

b) Collaboration

c)

c) Competition

d)

d) Coordination

22.

How can cooperation and competition be blended in conflict management?

a)

a) By prioritizing competitive components over cooperative components

b)

b) By avoiding any form of collaboration

c)

c) By using cooperative and competitive components simultaneously or in succession

d)

d) By disregarding the importance of interpersonal cooperation-competition dilemm

23.

3. What advantage does an organization with a historical legacy of high status have?

a)

a) Greater access to limited resources

b)

b) Strong collaboration with other high-status organizations

c)

c) Independence from competitive performance

d)

d) Improved social reputation

24.

4. In which factor contributing to competitive teamwork, do you see that individuals placed in competitive reward structures may be inclined to deter the progress of others in an effort to gain personal advantage?

a)

a) Performance management

b)

b) Goals.

c)

c) Rewards.

d)

d) Employee personality

25.

What distinguishes monopolistic competition from perfect competition?

a)

a) The presence of many small companies

b)

b) The presence of differentiated products

c)

c) The ability to control prices

d)

d) The absence of supply and demand factors

26.

6. How would you define oligopoly?

a)

a) A market structure with a large number of sellers

b)

b) A market structure where each seller controls prices

c)

c) A market structure with a few sellers

d)

d) A market structure with only one seller

27.

. The Prisoner's Dilemma highlights the tension between:

a)

a) Self-interest and cooperation

b)

b) Competition and collaboration

c)

c) Individual gain and collective benefit

d)

d) All of the above

28.

Primary cooperation is predominantly found in primary groups like families and peer groups. What is a defining characteristic of primary cooperation?

a)

a) Individuals working towards a specific purpose

b)

b) Competition among individuals in the group

c)

c) Face-to-face relations and merging of interests

d)

d) Interaction between big and small groups

29.

9. What is a common characteristic of both competition and cooperation?

a)

a) Joint problem-solving and collaboration

b)

b) Prioritizing individual interests over others

c)

c) Working towards mutually beneficial outcomes

d)

d) Engaging in direct confrontation and conflict

30.

Tertiary cooperation involves different groups coming together for a specific purpose, with opportunistic attitudes. Which of the following best exemplifies tertiary cooperation?

a)

a) Collaboration between industry and trade unions for workers' rights

b)

b) Primary group interactions within a religious institution

c)

c) Direct cooperation within a government agency

d)

d) Joint efforts between peers for personal development

31.

The process by which the receiver understands and comprehends what the sender wants to convey is known as _____________.

a)

a. Cognizes

b)

b. Grasping

c)

c. Decoding

d)

d. All of these

32.

Noise may be ____________.

a)

a. Physiological

b)

b. Psychological

c)

c. Both of these

d)

d. None of these

33.

State whether the following is True or False. Cyber meetings and video conferences are examples of asynchronous computer mediated communication.

a)

a. True

b)

b. False

34.

Grapevine follows different types of networks. Which of the following is NOT one of the networks?

a)

a. Wheel

b)

b. Cluster

c)

c. Gossip

d)

d. Probability

35.

State whether the following is True or False. Rumors wherein people intentionally say nasty things about others to damage their reputation are known as bogie rumors.

a)

a. True

b)

b. False

36.

Information broadcast through newspapers, films, and radio exemplifies ___________________ communication.

a)

a. Bulk

b)

b. Mass

c)

c. Public

d)

d. None of these

37.

State whether the following is True or False. Rich media is used to communicate ambiguous messages.

a)

a. True

b)

b. False

38.

In ______________ context cultures, managers give oral orders.

a)

a. High

b)

b. Low

c)

c. Medium

d)

d. None of these

39.

Credibility is a function of ____________ and ___________.

a)

a. Expertise, Trustworthiness

b)

b. Expectation, Trustworthiness

c)

c. Experience, Responsibility

d)

d. None of these

40.

Which of the following is NOT a form of non-verbal communication?

a)

a. Proxemics

b)

b. Eye Gaze

c)

c. Instant messaging

d)

d. Haptics: Touch

41.

According to the ____________view of conflict, conflict is bound to occur when people/groups interact.

a)

a. Traditional

b)

b. Human Relations

c)

c. Interactionist

d)

d. OB

42.

State whether the following is True or False. Process conflict, at lower levels, is dysfunctional in nature.

a)

a. True

b)

b. False

43.

Robbins and Judge have delineated five stages in the conflict process. Which of the following is NOT a stage?

a)

a. Potential opposition

b)

b. Cognition and personalization

c)

c. Negotiation

d)

d. Behaviour

44.

In which of the following stages of the conflict resolution process does the person/party involved in the conflict happily place the other person’s/party’s interests above their own?

a)

a. Cooperativeness

b)

b. Accommodating

c)

c. Collaborating

d)

d. Avoiding

45.

According to Eric Berne’s Transactional Analysis, the ______________ego state reflects the 'grown up' rational person who talks logically and practically, often assertively.

a)

a. Parent

b)

b. Adult

c)

c. Both of these

d)

d. None of these

46.

In a __________________transaction, the response from the receiving ego state to the sending ego state is not parallel.

a)

a. Complementary

b)

b. Crossed

c)

c. Both of these

d)

d. None of these

47.

According to transactional analysis, the best type of communication is the ____________relationship.

a)

a. Adult-Adult

b)

b. Adult-Parent

c)

c. Child-Child

d)

d. None of these

48.

As per the Johari window, the ____________________has the maximum potential for conflict.

a)

a. Open self

b)

b. Hidden self

c)

c. Blind self

d)

d. Undiscovered self

49.

Which of the following is NOT a strategy for conflict management?

a)

a. Avoidance

b)

b. Diffusion

c)

c. Containment

d)

d. Bargaining

50.

State whether the following is True or False. Distributive bargaining leads to a long-term solution and builds healthy relationships to work together.

a)

a. True

b)

b. False

51.

______________ is the capacity that person A has to influence the behaviour of person B, so that B does something she or he would not otherwise do.

a)

a. Power

b)

b. Force

c)

c. Leadership

d)

d. None of these

52.

Power is a function of ____________________.

a)

a. Leadership

b)

b. Dependency

c)

c. Both of these

d)

d. None of these

53.

________________ is associated with a position in an organization; it increases as one goes up the organizational hierarchy.

a)

a. Authority

b)

b. Power

c)

c. Dependency

d)

d. All of these

54.

Some power bases are derived from the organization, while some lie with the individual. Which of the following is NOT an organizational-based power?

a)

a. Coercive power

b)

b. Reward power

c)

c. Legitimate power

d)

d. Expert power

55.

____________ power and _____________ power affect employees positively when it comes to performance, job satisfaction, and organizational commitment.

a)

a. Expert, Referent

b)

b. Expert, Reward

c)

c. Position, Reward

d)

d. Legitimate, Coercive

56.

Robbins and Judge mention nine influence tactics. Which of the following is one of the power tactics proposed by Robbins and Judge?

a)

a. Legitimacy

b)

b. Altercation

c)

c. Leadership

d)

d. Strikes

57.

State whether the following is True or False. In rational persuasion as a power tactic, the influence flows downwards.

a)

a. True

b)

b. False

58.

State whether the following is True or False. Political behaviour in an organization is illegitimate.

a)

a. True

b)

b. False

59.

The __________________technique is a tactic which is used to make a person comply with a larger request by first making him agree to smaller requests.

a)

a. Foot-in-the-door

b)

b. Camel’s Head in the Tent

c)

c. Either Foot-in-the-door or Camel’s Head in the Tent

d)

d. None of these

60.

In _____________ as a demotion preventive strategy, an employee attempts to excuse himself or tries to justify his/her action.

a)

a. Accounts

b)

b. Apologies

c)

c. Disassociation

d)

d. None of these

61.

Simple, routine, and repetitive problems are known as ______________decisions.

a)

a. Programmed

b)

b. Standardized

c)

c. Automatic

d)

d. None of these

62.

Decision making in organizations is made on _____________________ probabilities.

a)

a. Objective

b)

b. Subjective

c)

c. Both of these

d)

d. None of these

63.

According to Simon, the three phases in the decision making process are________________ activity.

a)

a. Intelligence, Design, and Choice

b)

b. Information, Design, and Choice

c)

c. Information, Development, and Implementation

d)

d. None of these

64.

The _______________ oriented techniques make use of participation, which may be formal or informal, and which may range across a continuum from no participation to full participation.

a)

a. Cognitive

b)

b. Classical

c)

c. Behavioural

d)

d. None of these

65.

State whether the following is True or False. The administrative model recognizes bounded rationality. The decision maker looks for a satisficing solution. a. True b. False

a)

a

b)

b

66.

Which of the following is NOT a heuristic type?

a)

a. Availability

b)

b. Representative

c)

c. Escalation of commitment

d)

d. Escalation of past experience

67.

__________________is also known as the leveling effect.

a)

a. Think tank

b)

b. Groupthink

c)

c. Groupshift

d)

d. Risky shift

68.

The Management Science Approach is equivalent to the ___________ approach of decision making by individual managers.

a)

a. Rational

b)

b. Conceptual

c)

c. Behavioural

d)

d. Heuristics

69.

According to Luthans, people who use the _____________ style of decision making, have a lower tolerance for ambiguity and focus on the task and the technical concerns.

a)

a. Analytical

b)

b. Directive

c)

c. Behavioural

d)

d. Conceptual

70.

State whether the following is True or False. When one assesses the likelihood of an occurrence by matching it with a pre-existing category, it is known as an anchoring bias. a. True b. False

a)

a

b)

b

71.

Choose correct answer from the alternatives given against each question as follows: 1. What behaviors constitute leadership? (a) Establishing and communicating vision (b) Empowering (c) Facilitating (d) All of these

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

72.

Which is not a TRAIT as stated in the Trait Definition of Leadership?

a)

(a) Height

b)

(b) Weight

c)

(c) Intelligence

d)

(d) Extraversion

73.

3. What are the importance of leadership in organizational management? a) It influences the behaviour of people b) It helps to solve conflicts effectively c) It helps employees in fulfilling their needs d) All of these

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

74.

4. Which kind of leadership consults employees and seriously considers their ideas when making decisions?

a)

a) Democratic Leadership

b)

b) Autocratic Leadership

c)

c) Bureaucratic Leadership

d)

d) None of these

75.

5. Which type of leadership is committed to the organization and believes more in him rather than his team?

a)

a) Democratic Leadership

b)

b) Autocratic Leadership

c)

c) Charismatic Leadership

d)

d) None of these

76.

6. Which leadership theory has the merits like, leaders tend to be consistently better adjusted, influence of personality on one’s effectiveness and organisations would become sophisticated if traits could be identified?

a)

a) Situational

b)

b) Need theory

c)

c) Trait theory

d)

d) Contingency

77.

7. Statement 1: The leader guides and directs by eliminating uncertainties as to what should be done, and thereby coordinates individual efforts in order to streamline them into one direction. Statement 2: The leader does not motivate people and integrates individual needs with the needs of the organization. Which of the following is correct about the above two statements? (a) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is false. (b) Statement 2 is correct, but Statement 1 is false. (c) Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct. (d) Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

78.

8. What is an explicit agreement that lays down the ground rules for team members’ behaviors?

a)

(a) Corporate Governance

b)

(b) Appointment letter

c)

(c) Social contract

d)

(d) None of these

79.

Whom can be referred to as anyone who helps an organization transform by improving business processes and interpersonal interactions.? a) Change Agent b) Counsellor c) Coordinator d) None of these

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d

80.

10. Statement 1: While managers lay down the structure and delegates authority and responsibility, leaders provide direction by developing the organizational vision and communicating it to the employees and inspiring them to achieve it. Statement 2: While a leader gets his authority from his followers, a manager gets his authority by virtue of his position in the organization. Which of the following is correct about the above two statements? (a) Statement 1 is correct, but Statement 2 is false. (b) Statement 2 is correct, but Statement 1 is false. (c) Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are correct. (d) Both the Statement 1 and Statement 2 are false.

a)

a

b)

b

c)

c

d)

d