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WorksheetsAviation Regulations Final
Total questions: 85
Worksheet time: 43mins
Under 121 Operations, when do you need destination alternate? If so required, what weather condition at the alternate airport must be?
+/- one hour, 2000feet ceiling, 3 miles at least. must be more 600-2 for precision approach
+/- one hour, 2000feet ceiling, 3 miles at least. must be more 800-2 for non-precision approach
+/- one hour, 2000feet ceiling, 3 miles at least. must be meet the operation specification requirement
same as Part 91 operations
When do you require alternate airport for departure? And if required what is alternate airports requirement for aircraft having two engines?
If the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are below the landing minimums: Not more than one hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine operative.
If the weather conditions at the airport of landing are below the landing minimums: Not more than one hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with two engine inoperative.
If the weather conditions at the airport of takeoff are below the landing minimums: Not more than two hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with one engine inoperative.
If the weather conditions at the airport of landing are below the landing minimums: Not more than two hour from the departure airport at normal cruising speed in still air with two engine operative.
Who is responsible, by regulation, for briefing a domestic or flag air carrier pilot in command on all available weather information?
Company meteorologist
Aircraft dispatcher
Director of operations
Who should be thoroughly familiar with report and forecast weather condition on the route to be flown?
Director of flight operation
The dispatcher
The pilot
The dispatcher and the pilot
BLM FAA8260 If A domestic air carrier airplane lands at an intermediate airport at 1215Z. Latest when can the airplane depart without a specific authorization from the dispatcher?
1415Z
1245Z
1315Z
What is the lowest altitude the autopilot with AFM specified approach altitude limitations, can be used for approach?
The minimum use altitude specified for the coupled approach mode selected;
50 feet
An altitude specified by Administrator.
The greater of the above
What is minimum altitude the autopilot can be used after takeoff and initial climb?
500 feet above airport elevation
At a minimum engagement altitude specified in the AFM; or
At an altitude specified by the Administrator, whichever is greater.
All of the above
Which announcement must be made if the seat belt sign will be turned off during flight?
Passenger should keep their seat belts fastened while seated
Passengers are free to leave their seats once the seat belt sign is turned off
Clearly explain the location of the fire extinguishers and emergency exits.
What is meant by "sterile cockpilt"?
Crewmembers are seated and buckled at their required stations
All preflight checks are complete and the aircraft is ready for engine starting
Crewmembers refrain from nonessential activities during critical phase of flight
Cockpit is clean and ready to be used by the crewmember
What action shall the pilot in command take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines on an air carrier airplane?
Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made
Land at the nearest airport, including military, that has a crash and rescue unit
Land at the airport which the pilot considers to be as safe as the nearest suitable airport in point of time
When the pilot in command is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report within
10 days after the deviation
10 days after the deviation
10 days after returning to home base
"Operational control" means;
exercising authority over initiating, conducting, or terminating a flight
exercising the privileges of pilot-in-command of an aircraft
the specific authority of any pilot in command
What are the line check requirements for the pilot in command for an air carrier?
The line check is required every 12 months in each type the pilot is to fly
The line check is required every 12 calendar months in one of the types of airplane the pilot is to fly
The line check is required every 6 months for all type of airplane the pilot is to fly.
required pilot flight crewmember who has not met the requirements must reestablish recency of experience by 3 take offs and landings in the same type, which include?
At least three landings must be made to a complete stop
At least one ILS approach to the lowest ILS minimums authorized for the certificate holder and a landing from that approach.
At least one landing must be made with a simulated failure of the most critical engine.
A pilot in command and second in command (no type experience) crewmembers must each acquire at least 100 hours of line operating flight time for consolidation of knowledge and skills (including operating experience required under paragraph (c) of this section) within ___ days after the satisfactory completion of type rating practical test
180 days
90 days
60 days
120 days
Whenever a crewmember or aircraft dispatcher who is required to take recurrent training, a flight check, or a competence check, takes the check or completes the training in December 2020 and the required annual recurrent check or training in January 2021, the latter check is considered to have been taken in
December 2020
January 2021
November 2020
The training required for crewmembers who have been qualified and served in the same capacity on the other airplane of the same group is:
upgrade training
transition training
difference training
If 149 passengers seats are installed in an airplane. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required with 90 passengers onboard?
1
3
4
2
Which emergency equipment is required for a flag air carrier for a flight from New York to London, England?
A life preserver equipped with an approved survivor locator light or other flotation device for the full seating capacity of the airplane
A self-buoyant, water resistant, portable survival type emergency locator transmitter for each required life raft
A survival kit attached to each required life raft.
For Part 121 operations, if one pilot to leave his station at the controls of the airplane when operating at flight altitudes above flight level 250 but at or below FL410, the other pilot
must have a quick-donning type oxygen mask available
and the flight engineer shall put on their oxygen masks and use oxygen
shall put on the oxygen mask and use oxygen.
When an airplane is operated at flight altitudes up to and including flight level 250, the supplemental oxygen requirements for passenger is dependent upon the airplane's ability to make an emergency descent to a flight altitude of
14,000 feet within 4 min.
10,000 feet within 4 min
12,000 feet within 4 min
When operating at flight altitudes above 10,000 feet, operating a turbine engine powered airplane with a pressurized cabin, the certificate holder shall supply supplemental oxygen for for each flight crewmember on flight deck duty ;
2 hours for constant rate of descent from the airplane's maximum certificated operating altitude to 10,000 feet in ten minutes and followed by 110 minutes at 10,000 feet
Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 8,000 feet cabin pressure altitude.
Sufficient for the duration of the flight above 10,000 feet cabin pressure altitude, not to exceed 1 hour 50 minutes
Part 121 require at cabin pressure altitudes above _______ feet, up to and including ______ feet, oxygen must be provided for and used by each member of the flight crew on flight deck duty and must be provided for other crewmembers for that part of the flight at those altitudes that is of more than ___ minutes duration.
10,000 12,000 10
10,000 12,500 30
10,000 12,000 30
12,000 15,000 5
“conditions conducive to airframe icing” means visible moisture at or below a static air temperature of °C or a total air temperature of °C, in Part 121, operation in icing.
5, 10
- 5, -10
-10, -5
0, 5
In addition to smoke detector, what is required to be installed in lavatory under part 121?
automatically discharging a built-in fire extinguisher for each disposal receptacle for towels, paper, or waste
manual fire extinguisher
Protective Breathing Equipment
oxygen bottle
A third in addition to two gyroscopic bank and pitch indicators (artificial horizons) for use at the pilot stations must be installed in turbojet airplane per Part 121. The third gyroscopic bank-and-pitch indicator must continues reliable operation for a minimum of ___ minutes after total failure of the electrical generating system;
10
20
30
40
No person operating a turbine engine powered airplane may take off that airplane unless its weight on arrival, allowing for normal consumption of fuel and oil in flight would allow a full stop landing at the intended destination airport within ____ percent of the effective length of each runway described below from a point 50 feet above the intersection of the obstruction clearance plane and the runway. (Part 121)
50
60
70
80
Each certificate holder shall prepare and keep current a manual for the use and guidance of flight, ground operations, and management personnel in conducting its operations. Who is responsible for keeping this manual up-to-date with the change and additions?
The person the manual furnished such as crewmembers.
Its appropriate ground operations and maintenance personnel;
Representatives of the Administrator assigned to it.
All of the above
Select the weather report the Part 121 certificate holder cannot use:
For operations within the 48 contiguous States and the District of Columbia, it was prepared by the U.S. National Weather Service or a source approved by the U.S. National Weather Service;
For operations conducted outside the 48 contiguous States and the District of Columbia, it was prepared by a source approved by the Administrator.
The weather report prepared by the any reliable commercial sources.
Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations shall adopt and put into use an approved system for obtaining forecasts and reports of adverse weather phenomena
Each certificate holder conducting domestic or flag operations must show that a two-way communication system, or other means of communication approved by the responsible Flight Standards office, is available over ____________
the route as much as the operator can, whenever possible
250 miles from the origin
the entire route.
250 miles from the certificate holder's primary business location
while operating an airplane within a foreign country,
comply with the air traffic rules of the U.S and the part 121 even if rule of the country concerned is more restrictive.
comply with the air traffic rules of the country concerned and the local airport rules, and disregard the Part 121.
comply with the air traffic rules of the country concerned and the local airport rules, only when the part 121 is same as the country rule.
comply with the air traffic rules of the country concerned and the local airport rules, except where any rule of part 121 is more restrictive and may be followed without violating the rules of that country.
No certificate holder may schedule and no flightcrew member may accept an assignment for any reserve or flight duty period unless the flightcrew member is given a rest period of at least ___ consecutive hours immediately before beginning the reserve or flight duty period measured from the time the flightcrew member is released from duty. The ___ hour rest period must provide the flightcrew member with a minimum of ___ uninterrupted hours of sleep opportunity.
10, 10, 8
12, 12, 9
12, 12, 8
9, 9, 8
If you reported for the duty at 0700 AM and you have four flight legs are scheduled. What time is the latest duty out time for you? (unaugmented and acclimated)
7:00 PM
8:00 PM
9:00 PM
10:00 PM
Per Part 117, if you reported duty at 0700 AM, how many hours can you fly? ( two pilot flight crew )
8
9
10
11
Per Part 117, What is a suitable accommodation
a bunk or other surface that allows for a flat sleeping position and is located separate from both the flight deck and passenger cabin in an area that is temperature-controlled, allows the flightcrew member to control light, and provides isolation from noise and disturbance.
a seat in an aircraft cabin that allows for a flat or near flat sleeping position; is separated from passengers by a minimum of a curtain to provide darkness and some sound mitigation; and is reasonably free from disturbance by passengers or flightcrew members
a seat in an aircraft cabin or flight deck that reclines at least 40 degrees and provides leg and foot support.
temperature-controlled facility with sound mitigation and the ability to control light that provides a flightcrew member with the ability to sleep either in a bed, bunk or in a chair that allows for flat or near flat sleeping position. Suitable accommodation only applies to ground facilities and does not apply to aircraft onboard rest facilities.
FAR Par 117 This part prescribes flight and duty limitations and rest requirements for all flightcrew members and certificate holders conducting _____________________________
passenger operations under part 121
passenger operations under part 135
passenger and cargo operations under part 121
passenger and cargo operations under part 91
No flight crewmember may engage in, nor may any pilot in command permit, any activity during a critical phase of flight which could distract any flight crewmember from the performance of his or her duties or which could interfere in any way with the proper conduct of those duties. What is critical phase of flight?
all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff and landing, and all other flight operations conducted below 10,000 feet, except cruise flight.
all ground operations involving taxi, takeoff, all approach and landing
all flight operations involving take off, climb, approach and landing.
all operations captain considered to be critical.
Under Part 135 If one pilot leaves a pilot duty station of an aircraft when operating at altitudes above _______feet MSL, the remaining pilot at the controls shall put on and use an approved oxygen mask until the other pilot returns to the pilot duty station of the aircraft.
12,000
25,000
35,000
10,000
Part 135 operators should operate flight operation under:
only Part 135 operation rules.
Part 135 and Part 91 operation rules.
Part 135 or Part 121
only Part 91
Under part 135 An “eligible on-demand operation” require the second in command:
with Commercial pilot and instrument ratings.
with ATP
A minimum of 1,500 hours.
A minimum of 1,300 hours.
(i) Nontransport category turbopropeller powered airplanes type certificated after December 31, 1964, that have a passenger seat configuration of 10-19 seats;
(ii) Transport category turbopropeller powered airplanes that have a passenger seat configuration of 20-30 seats; or
(iii) Turbojet engine powered airplanes having a passenger seat configuration of 1-30 seats.
The operators of the above airplanes require (after March 20, 1997):
obtains operations specifications to conduct its scheduled operations under part 121
obtains operations specifications to conduct its scheduled operations under part 135
obtains operations specifications to conduct its scheduled operations under part 119
obtains operations specifications to conduct its scheduled operations under part 91
Who should file a Near Midair Collision (NMAC) Report?
Pilot and/or Flight Crew of the aircraft involved in the incident.
An Operator of the aircraft
ATC
Pilots and/or flight crew members involved in near midair collision (NMAC) to report each incident immediately by
Telephone to the nearest FAA Flight Standards District Office
by radio or telephone to the nearest FAA ATC facility or FSS.
In writing to local law enforcement.
After aborting the take off you find that the elevator control cable has broken. An operator
should submit the report the NTSB within 7 days
must file a NASA report within 10 days
must immediately notify the nearest NTSB office.
How long must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a "serious injury"?
7 days
48 hours; within 7 days after date of the injury.
72 hours; within 10 days after date of the injury.
How soon is a report required to be filed with the nearest NTSB field office after an accident ?
5 days
10 days
7 days
A report on an incident for which immediate notification is required by § 830.5(a) shall be filed
within 10 days
only if requested to do so
within 7 days
Which incident requires an immediate notification to NTSB
Fire on aircraft while in a hangar which results in damage of $25,000.
In-flight fire
Ground fire
Which incident requires an immediate notification to NTSB
Damage to the landing gear
Inability of any required flight crewmember to perform normal flight duties as a result of injury or illness;
Engine failure during flight.
Which substantial damage requires an immediate notification to NTSB
which requires repairs to landing gear.
to an engine damage caused by engine failure in flight.
which adversely affects structural strength, performance or flight characteristics.
Within what time period should the nearest NTSB field office to be notified when an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage?
Immediately.
7 calendar days
10 days
Which incident requires an immediate notification to NTSB
Aircraft colliding on the ground.
Flight control system malfunction.
Damage to property, other than the aircraft, estimated to exceed $10,000.
Select the item the pilot in command of an airplane do not have to carry in the airplane to its destination per Part 121.
A copy of the completed load manifest
A copy of the dispatch release
A copy of the flight plan.
Communication records
Can a pilot continue an approach past the final approach fix in Part 121 operation, when :
officially reported the visibility to be equal to or more than the visibility minimums prescribed for that procedure.
pilot's estimated the visibility to be equal to or more than the visibility minimums prescribed for that procedure.
forcasted visibility to be equal to or more than the visibility minimums prescribed for that procedure.
actual visibility to be equal to or less than the visibility minimums prescribed for that procedure.
How much fuel supply is required for IFR domestic operation per Part 121?
To fly to the airport to which it is dispatched; Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (where required) for the airport to which dispatched; and thereafter, to fly for 45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption
To fly to the airport to which it is dispatched; Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (where required) for the airport to which dispatched; and thereafter, to fly for 30 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption
To fly to the airport to which it is dispatched; and thereafter, to fly for 30 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption
To fly to the airport to which it is dispatched; Thereafter, to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport (where required) for the airport to which dispatched; and thereafter, to fly for 30 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption
A pretakeoff contamination check is conducted within ___________ minutes prior to beginning of take off and must be accomplished from _________ of the aircraft.
pretakeoff check is conducted ___________ the aircraft holdover time and can be accomplished _______ of the aircraft.
5, inside, within, inside
5, outside, after, inside
5, outside, within, inside
10, inside, after, outside
Holdover time is the estimated time deicing/anti-icing fluid will prevent the formation of frost or ice and the accumulation of snow on the protected surfaces of an aircraft. When does holdover time begins?
Holdover time begins when the final application of deicing/anti-icing fluid commences
Holdover time begins when the final application of deicing/anti-icing fluid is completed.
Holdover time begins when the final application of deicing/anti-icing fluid lose its effectiveness.
Holdover time begins when the final application of deicing/anti-icing fluid is about half way through
Select the service that is under Part 119:
Aerial work operations such as crop dusting, banner towing, pipeline patrol.
Student instruction;
common carrier who "hold out" its service
Ferry or training flights
Select incorrect answer: The operation under part 121 or part 135 should meet following requirements:
Obtain management specifications
A person who is operating the carrier should be a citizen of U.S.
Obtains operations specifications
Obtains an Air Carrier Certificate
Which certificate is not issued under FAR part 119?
Air Carrier Certificate.
Flag Air Carrier Certificate (Overseas)
Air Transport Certificate
Operating Certificate
Which operation defined as "private carriage"?
The operation whose three contracts have been the sole basis of the operator's business.
"holds itself out" or to a segment of the public, as willing to furnish transportation within the limits of its facilities to any person who wants it.
Signs and advertising its service to public.
A carrier operating pursuant to 18 to 24 contracts
Part 119 does not applicable to which commercial operations?
Banner towing; Aerial photography or survey; Fire fighting;
Air taxi operation or on-demand cargo operations
Air carrier or passenger commercial operator, or both, in air commerce;
how many hours of flight training in a complex airplane is required for commercial pilot certification course?
5
10
15
20
How many hours ground training on the aeronautical knowledge will be required for initial instrument rating?
20
25
30
35
Select incorrect answer regarding the training records keeping in Part 141 school.
maintain record of The date the student was enrolled in the approved course;
maintain chronological log of the student's course attendance, subjects, and flight operations covered in the student's training, and the names and grades of any tests taken by the student
maintain record of the date the student graduated, terminated training, or transferred to another school.
All the record required to be maintained can be in a student's logbook and that will be sufficient.
How many total flight training is required for Part 141 - Private pilot certification course?
30
35
40
45
Select the item not required to give a flight training as a flight instructor:
a briefing by the school's chief instructor, assistant chief instructor, or check instructor.
an initial proficiency check in each make and model of aircraft used in that training course.
a recurrent proficiency check in one of the aircraft in which the person trains students in every 12 calendar months.
an approved syllabus of training consisting of ground or flight training, or both, or an approved flight instructor refresher course in every 12 calendar months.
Select the incorrect statement:
A check instructor may not conduct a stage check or an end-of-course test of any student for whom the check instructor has served as the principal instructor
A check instructor may not conduct a stage check or an end-of-course test of any student for whom the check instructor has Recommended for a stage check or end-of-course test.
A check instructor may conduct a stage check or an end-of-course test of any student for whom the check instructor has served as the principal instructor
How long is the duration of a pilot school's certificate?
24th calendar month
unlimited until change of ownership
unlimited until change of facilities.
unlimited until aircraft or personnel required are not maintained
To be designated as a check instructor for conducting student stage checks, end-of-course tests, and instructor proficiency checks under 141, a person must meet a certain requirements. Select that is not necessary:
the person must pass a test and proficiency test, given by the chief instructor
Hold a commercial pilot certificate and a current flight instructor certificate and approved by FAA Flight Standard office
Meet the pilot-in-command recent flight experience requirements
3 years and a total of 1,000 flight hours; or 1,500 flight hours.
Part 141 school have to provide training of such quality of pass rate of ____ % at the first attempt for all tests.
70
80
90
100
How often you have to get instrument proficient check if you are a flight crew in Subpart K—Fractional Ownership Operations ?
PIC - 6 months SIC - 12 months
PIC - 12 months SIC - 12 months
PIC - 6 months SIC - 6 months
What is maximum normal flight times for 2 pilots in Subpart K—Fractional Ownership Operations?
8 hours
10 hours
12 hours
14 hours
Fractional ownership programs are subject to an FAA oversight program similar to that provided to air carriers, with the exception of line checks and en route inspections. Fractional Ownership Operation are subject to:
Operation Specification
management specifications
industry specification
self regulated industry standards
The current FAA noise standards applicable to new type certifications of jet and large turboprop aircraft is :
Stage 2
Stage 3
Stage 4
Stage 5
When you operate within a foreign country, comply with the regulations relating to the flight and maneuver of aircraft there in force; and
Disregard entire rules in Part 91 but only comply with rules in foreign country.
comply with Par 91 so far as it is not inconsistent with applicable regulations of the foreign country
only comply with ICAO rules and disregard 91.
disregard foreign rule, but comply with Part 91 rules.
CVR can be used:
in determining the cause of accidents or occurrences in connection with the investigation
in any FAA violation
in any civil penalty or certificate action.
in company disciplinary action
CVR, if installed, must be operated from:
continuously from the instant the airplane begins taxi
use of the checklist before the flight
continuously from the instant the airplane begins the takeoff roll
FDR if equipped must be operated ?
continuously from the instant the airplane is powered up.
continuously from the instant the airplane begins the taxi
continuously from the instant the airplane begins the takeoff roll
What is the factor that does not affect in operation of a turbine-engine-powered transport category airplane for take off:
accelerate-stop distance
Maximum Lading weight
ambient temperature
short field performance data
No person may operate an airplane unless at least the following number of flight attendants are on board the airplane:
For airplanes having more than 19 but less than 51 passengers on board, no flight attendant.
For airplanes having more than 100 passengers on board, two flight attendants plus one additional flight attendant for each unit (or part of a unit) of 50 passengers above 100.
For airplanes having more than 50 but less than 101 passengers on board, one flight attendants.
In which case you may not need SIC (second in command)
large airplane.
The airplane was originally designed with more than one pilot station, but single pilot operations were permitted by the airplane flight manual
commuter category airplane.
airplane that is type certificated for more than one required pilot.
For large Turbine powered Multiengine airplanes, which equipment must be assessible for the pilot?
sunglasses
Protective breathing equipment
A flashlight having at least two size "D" cells, or the equivalent, that is in good working order.
heart defibrillator
Part 91 Subpart F - Large and Turbine-Powered Multiengine Airplanes and Fractional Ownership Program Aircraft is for:
An additional charge equal to 100 percent of the expenses plus profit is charged for the transportation of persons or cargo.
when common carriage is involved,
Flights conducted by the operator of an airplane for the transportation of his guests when charge, assessment, or fee is made for the transportation;
when common carriage is not involved,
An aircraft's operating limitations may be included in the
AFM(Airplane Flight Manual) for that airplane, if one is required, and with any placards, listings, instrument markings, or any combination thereof
Pilot Operating Handbook or Owner's handbook published by the aircraft manufacturer.
FAA-approved aircraft flight manual.
