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NCTest EOC Check in 3 Review

Total questions: 158

Worksheet time: 3hrs 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A nucleotide is composed of

a)

A phosphate, sugar and nitrogenous base

b)

A protein, sulfur and Guanine

c)

A phosphate, something and a base

d)

A protein, sugar and nitrogenous base

2.

The weak bonds between base pairs is a ___

a)

Covalent Bond

b)

Polar Bond

c)

Non Polar Bond

d)

Hydrogen

3.
Adenine bonds with ______________.
a)
Guanine
b)
Thymine
c)
Cytosine
d)
Adenine
4.

What would the other side of this strand of DNA be:  AATCATGGA

a)
AATCATGGA
b)
TTAGTACCT
c)

AGGTACTAA

d)
GGATAUCUA
5.

What is true of RNA? (select all that apply)

a)

Single Strand

b)

Contains uracil

c)

Ribose Sugar

d)

Deoxyribose Sugar

6.

What is true of DNA?

a)

Double Helix

b)

Contains Thymine

c)

Deoxyribose Sugar

d)

Ribose Sugar

7.

Which amino acid will be added to a protein chain if the codon is UAA?

a)

Ser

b)

Lys

c)

Ala

d)

STOP

8.

Which of the following are differences in the structure between RNA and DNA

a)

DNA uses deoxyribose sugar, RNA uses sugar ribose

b)

DNA pairs Adenine with Uracil, RNA pairs Adenine with Thymine

c)

DNA is a double helix, RNA is a single helix

d)

DNA pairs Adenine with Thymine, RNA pairs Adenine with Uracil

9.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

10.

There are a total of ____ different amino acids

a)

20

b)

1

c)

4

d)

unlimited

11.

How many amino acids are found on one tRNA?

a)

20

b)

4

c)

1

d)

3

12.
The process where mRNA is read and made into an amino acid chain.
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Transportation
d)
Transient
13.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
14.
This is the triplet of bases on the end of a tRNA molecule
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
15.
The principle shown in the image is called what?
a)
Transcription
b)
The Central Dogma
c)
Translation
d)
The Principle of Proteins
16.
DNA holds the code for
a)
lipids
b)
carbohydrates
c)
protein
d)
sugar
17.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

18.

Which of the following is the complementary mRNA sequence to this DNA strand: AACTGAA

a)

UUGACUU

b)

TTGACTT

c)

AACTGAA

d)

AACUGAA

19.

What brings the amino acids to the ribosome to assemble a protein?

a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)

DNA

20.
What is occurring in this picture?
a)
Translation
b)
DNA Replication
c)
Polymerase is unzipping the DNA
d)
Transcription
21.
This diagram shows the process of 
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
d)
Mitosis
22.
What does Letter C indicate?
a)
Polypeptide Chain
b)
Anticodon
c)
Codon
d)
Amino Acid
23.
What process is occurring in the diagram?
a)
Transcription
b)
Translation
c)
Replication
d)
Mitosis
24.
Which codon can code for Serine?
a)
U G G 
b)
A G U
c)
C A A
d)
A U G
25.
In order to insert a human gene into plasmid, both must 
a)
code for the same gene product.
b)
be cut by the same restriction enzyme.
c)
originate from the same type of cell.
d)
have identical sequences.
26.
Restriction enzymes are used to ___ DNA.
a)
glue together
b)
cut
c)
reconnect
d)
exchange
27.

An enzyme that cut DNA molecules at a specific “recognition site” is called

a)

Restriction enzyme

b)

DNA polymerase

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

Taq polymerase

28.

Millions of Individuals have identical DNA profiles

a)

True

b)

False

29.

A hospital had three babies born on the same day. Unfortunately, they had a mixup during bathing the babies and the identification bracelets were lost. Determine which Baby belongs to which family

a)Baby 3
b)Baby 2
c)Baby 1
1
2
3
1)
2)
3)
30.

To make a DNA Fingerprint, you use ​ (a)​ ​ ​ (a)     to cut a DNA sample into fragments, and then use ​ (b) ​ (b)   _   to separate the fragments by size

Choose from the below words
restriction enzymes
Gel Electrophoresis
31.
Mr. Jones was killed in a car accident.  Afterwards, a former girlfriend filed a paternity suit claiming that Mr. Jones was the father of her child, and thus she was entitled to the man’s estate.  Which sample of DNA would have to be from Mr. Jones if he were the child’s father? 
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
32.
Bob was found dead in his home.  Crime scene analysis showed signs of a struggle.  Blood was collected from the crime scene, the victim, and three suspects.  Which suspect likely committed the crime? 
a)
Sue
b)
Lisa
c)
John
d)
None of these
33.
Which two bear species are most closely related?
a)
Bear 1 and Bear 2
b)
Bear 1 and Bear 3
c)
Bear 2 and Bear 3
d)
There’s no way to tell
34.

DNA fingerprinting may be used to do which of the following?

a)

Identify gender

b)

Identify criminals

c)

Identify parents and offspring

d)

Identify genetic disorders

35.

Gel electrophoresis separates fragments of DNA by:

a)

Size/weight

b)

Genes

c)

Base pairs

d)

Electromagnetic charge

36.

In a DNA fingerprint, lighter-weight fragments can be found at the:

a)

Top

b)

Bottom

c)

Middle

d)

Front

37.

Match the following

a)

Cloning

1.

Making an exact copy of an organism

b)

Gene Therapy

2.

Replacing faulty genes

c)

Transgenic Organisms

3.

Inserting genes from one organism into another's genome

d)

DNA Fingerprints

4.

Using DNA fragments for identification

e)

Restriction Enzymes

5.

Used to cut DNA into pieces

38.

Reorder the following

a)

Cut out gene you want

b)

Put into bacterial plasmid

c)

Put plasmid into bacteria

d)

Bacteria will make the protein

1)
2)
3)
4)
39.

Match the following

a)

Restriction Enzyme

1.

Made of Protein

b)

Plasmid

2.

Made of DNA (found in prokaryotes not eukaryotes)

c)

Prokaryotes

3.

Cells with plasmids

d)

Transformed Bacteria

4.

Bacteria with new gene

40.

Which of the following represents a transgenic organism? Choose ALL that apply.

a)

Mule

b)

Corn with genes from bacteria

c)

Breeding two varieties of apples together

d)

GMOS (Genetically Modified Organisms)

e)

A pig with a human gene added to it.

41.

A type of transformation that results in an organism that that contains genes from different species.

a)

Hybridization

b)

Recombinant DNA

c)

Transgenic

42.

A project that analyzes the order of bases for all the genes in the human DNA.

a)

Human Genome Project

b)

Gene Therapy

c)

Cloning

43.

The process of making changes in an organism's DNA is known as?

a)

Genetic Engineering

b)

Hybridization

c)

DNA Recombination

d)

DNA

Fingerprinting

44.
The unpaired nucleotides produced by the action of restriction enzymes are referred to as
a)
sticky end.
b)
base sequence.
c)
single strands.
d)
restriction fragments.
45.
What is the name of the process that inserts a recombinant plasmid into a bacterium?
a)
gene cloning
b)
transformation
c)
binary fission
d)
meiosis
46.
The process to the right is best used for which of the following?
a)
Cloning humans
b)
Creating antibiotics
c)
Creating human insulin
d)
Causing cells to divide
47.
Insecticide resistance is one of the main reasons for GMO crops.
a)
True 
b)
False
48.
GMO stands for
a)
genetically made organism
b)
genetically modified organism
c)
gene manipulated organism
d)
Genetic mutant organism
49.
An argument in favor of food biotechnology is that it
a)
provides foods that cure disease.
b)
provides more food to feed a growing population.
c)
provides a cash crop for low income nations.
d)
biotech foods are not controversial
50.

Which of the following best describes bacterial transformation? 

a)

Changing bacterial DNA by adding genes to it

b)

Any organism that has DNA from a different species

c)

Any organism that has DNA from the same species

d)

A tool used by scientists to separate chunks of DNA

51.
An example of the benefits of transgenic animals is:
a)
A cow that produces pork.
b)
A chicken that lays hard boiled eggs.
c)
Larger sheep that grow more wool.
d)
A pig that makes no waste.
52.

Clones have the exact same:

a)

Personalities

b)

Physical appearances

c)

Intelligence levels

d)

Genetic material

53.
Scientists have produced plants that are resistant to herbicides. Which application of biotechnology is most likely being used?
a)
genetic cloning
b)
electrophoresis
c)
DNA fingerprinting
d)
genetic engineering
54.

Which of the following are ways that Biotechnology can be used?

a)

Diagnosis of disease

b)

Gene therapy

c)

Production of pharmaceuticals (medicine)

d)

DNA profiling

e)

Agriculture - creating GMOS (Genetically modified organisms)

55.

The fossils found closer to the surface of the ground are generally -


(a)  
Choose from the below words
Younger & more complex
Older & simpler
Younger & simpler
Older & more complex
56.

A human arm and a whale fin have similar bone structure but the whale fin is used for swimming and the arm is used for reaching and grabbing. What type of structures are these?

a)

Homologous structures

b)

Analogous structures

c)

Vestigial structures

d)

Fossil structures

57.

When comparing the DNA of two different organisms, the more differences in the DNA base pairs the more-

a)

Closely related they are.

b)

Distantly related they are.

c)

It doesn't prove anything.

d)

They look alike.

58.

Which of the pictures above would be examples of homologous structures? (pick 2)

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

59.

The similarities of bone structure in the diagram provide evidence of what?

a)

The organisms probably use there forelimbs for the same thing.

b)

The organisms evolved from a common ancestor.

c)

The organisms have the same DNA.

d)

All vertebrate species have identical forelimbs.

60.
Which of the following is an example of a vestigial structure?
a)
the wings of a red-tailed hawk
b)
the hind limbs of a house cat
c)
the fins of sharks
d)
the tailbone of a human
61.
Which is not evidence for evolution?
a)
many animals have homologous structures due to common ancestry
b)
Many animals have vestigial structures from an ancestor
c)
We can observe changes in life forms by observing the fossil record
d)
All of these are evidence for evolution
62.

The appendix, which is not needed to survive, is conisdered to be a

a)

Homologous Structure

b)

Analagous Structure

c)

Vestigial Structure

d)

Homology

63.

Why are similar fossils found all over the world?

a)

The animals swam to new parts of the world before going extinct

b)

The land masses were once connected

c)

The organisms were transported to different areas of the world

d)

They are not similar fossils.

64.
What genetic change allows organisms to survive natural selection in their environments? 
a)
learned behavior
b)
acquired traits
c)
analogies
d)
adaptations
65.
Predict which moth would increase in population
a)
light 
b)
dark
66.
Which statement does not accurately describe natural selection?
a)
Individual organisms change their genes to adapt to their environment
b)
The genetic composition of a population changes from one generation to the next
c)
More advantageous traits become more common in population
d)
Beneficial and useful traits are inheritable
67.

What is an adaptation of the snowshoe hare that allows it to remain unseen by predators in the winter time?

a)

heavy fur on feet to stay warm

b)

small ears to prevent heat loss

c)

turns white in winter to match snow

d)

sense of smell to detect food

68.

Natural selection occurs during the lifetime of a single organism.

a)

True

b)

False

69.

TRUE or FALSE: Natural selection will still occur if individuals are exactly the same.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

70.

How do you "win" at natural selection?

a)

survive

b)

go extinct

c)

survive & reproduce

71.

Due to pollution, a pond becomes darker over time. Which trait variation became more common?

a)

light fish

b)

dark fish

72.
Where the better adapted organisms survive to pass traits along to offspring.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artifical Selection
73.
Why are advantageous traits more likely to be passed onto offspring?
a)
Because they are more likely to survive and reproduce.
b)
Because they come from dominant alleles.
c)
Because they come from recessive alleles.
d)
Because the trait is an acquired phenotype.
74.
Why is the mouse population changing over time?
a)
The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice
b)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better
c)
The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily
d)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily
75.
Most organisms have more offspring than will survive 
a)
True
b)
False
76.

Many different groups of organisms have wings, even though they do not share a recent common ancestor. This is because they evolved in environments with similar selective pressures. Wings are an example of a(n) ______________ structure.

a)

vestigial

b)

analogous

c)

homologous

77.
He belived that having cowpox gave people ___________ from smallpox
a)
Immunity
b)
Vaccinaton
c)
Innoculation
d)
Innocence
78.
__________ immunity is when the bodies makes its own antibodies.
a)
passive
b)
active
c)
cell mediated
d)
false
79.
Which is an example of passive immunity?
a)
people being vaccinated against disease
b)
people taking vitamins to boost their immune response
c)
people receiving antibodies from their mothers before birth
d)
people producing antibodies against organisms that cause diseases they have had previosuly
80.
People are making antibiotic resistance worse by:
a)
taking antibiotics only when they need them
b)
putting antibiotics into our food and environment
c)
not sharing antibiotics with others
81.
A change in DNA is a ...
a)
clone
b)
protein
c)
accident
d)
mutation
82.
A  population of cockroaches was sprayed with an insecticide.  Some cockroaches survived and produced a population of cockroaches that was resistant to this spray.  What can BEST be inferred from this example?
a)
species will adapt no matter what the environment
b)
environment has no effect on the survival of an organism
c)
Individuals with favorable variations survive and reproduce
d)
Insecticides cause mutations that are passed on to the next generation
83.

Why is it important to finish ALL of an antibiotic, even if you feel better?

a)

If all of the infectious bacteria are not killed, the bacteria may continue to multiply. Some of these bacteria may have a mutation that makes them resistant to the antibiotic. This could cause resistant bacteria to spread.

b)

If all of the antibiotic is not used, the surviving bacteria may learn how to fight off the antibiotic, causing the sickness to get even worse.

c)

If all of the antibiotic is not used, the bacteria may begin ingesting your skin cells, causing a new sickness to arise.

d)

If all of the antibiotic is not used, the surviving bacteria may cooperate with other infectious bacteria, resulting in two separate infections at the same time.

84.

In classifying organisms, orders are grouped directly together into larger

a)

classes

b)

phyla

c)

families

d)

genera (genus) 

85.

The most specific taxon is the

a)

family

b)

order

c)

species

d)

class

86.

Which taxon that has the most variety of organisms?

a)

kingdom

b)

phylum

c)

genus

d)

class

87.

The science of classifying living things is called___.

a)

identication

b)

classification

c)

taxonomy

d)

speciation

88.

Scientific names are written in what language?

a)

English

b)

Greek

c)

Arabic

d)

Latin

89.
Using this dichotomous key, identity the name of the circled fish.
a)
band-tail puffer
b)
spotted goat fish
c)
peacock flounder
d)
trumpet fish
90.
a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

91.
An illustration and a dichotomous key are given. What is the correct classification for this organism?
a)
Class Insecta
b)
Order Amblygygi
c)
Order Araneae
d)
Order Scorpiones
92.
What is the scientific name of housefly?
a)
Musca domestica
b)
Insect domestica
c)
Animalia domestica
d)
Diptera domestica
93.

On the cladogram, which organism is the closest relative of the parrot?

a)

Frog

b)

Hare

c)

Caiman

d)

Parrot

94.

All the animals to the right of the salamander would have the common characteristic of...

a)

Fur

b)

Claws or nails

c)

Lungs

d)

Jaws

95.
According to this data, the unknown bacterial species is most closely related to: 
a)
Species I
b)
Species II
c)
Species III
d)
Species IV
96.

In a phylogenetic tree, the branching points represent common ancestors.

a)

Yes

b)

NO

97.

What is the common ancestor of Letters A, B, C, D, E?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

98.

Which group of animals on this tree are most closely related to birds?

a)

Saurischian dinosaurs

b)

Ornithischian dinosaurs

c)

Crocodiles

d)

None of these are related to birds

99.

______ and ________ are organelles that arose from the endosymbiotic theory

a)

flagellum and chloroplast

b)

mitochondria and chloroplasts

c)

Smooth and Rough ER

d)

mitochrondria and cell wall

100.

The Theory of Endosymbiosis explains:

a)

how bacteria live

b)

the origin of Eukaryotes

c)

Why cells rely on one another

d)

how species develop

101.

Which of the following is evidence to support the endosymbiotic theory?

a)

Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA, which is similar to prokaryotic DNA.

b)

Fossil evidence shows that the first forms of life were prokaryotic cells.

c)

All eukaryotic cells have a double-layered membrane composed of phosplipids and proteins.

d)

Prokaryotes have the same number and types of enzymes as eukaryotes.

102.

Two students are reading an article about the evidence of the endosymbiotic theory. As they are reading, they have drawn images of what they believe to be occurring on index cards. The two students are engaging in a discussion on how the index cards should be ordered to accurately show the evolution of eukaryotic cells.


Student A claims the order should be B, E, D, A, C. Their reasoning is that since the small circles without lines in the index cards represent chloroplasts, photosynthesizing organisms evolved before aerobic organisms.

Student B claims the order should be B, A, C, E, D. Their reasoning is that since the small ovals with lines in the index cards represent mitochondria, respiratory organisms evolved before photosynthesizing organisms


Use the diagram to answer the question. Which statement below is accurate about the discussion above?

a)

student A has a correct ordering of index cards but incorrect reasoning.

b)

student B has a correct ordering of index cards and correct reasoning.

c)

Student A has a correct ordering of index cards and correct reasoning.

d)

Student B has a correct ordering of index cards but incorrect reasoning.

103.

Which evidence supports the endosymbiotic theory?

a)

Presence of circular DNA in mitochondria and chloroplasts

b)

Ability of mitochondria and chloroplasts to divide independently

c)

Double membranes of mitochondria and chloroplasts

d)

All of the above

104.
Some grasses grow in hot dry areas. Why might they grow deep roots?
a)
to protect the plant from sun damage
b)
to take in as much light as possible
c)
to spread seeds to new places
d)
to reach water down below
105.

What type of dominance is shown in the picture?

a)

Complete dominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Codominance

106.

The physical appearance of a trait is known as the-

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

Homozygous

d)

intelligence

107.
Aa, DD, bB, yy are all examples of
a)
genotypes
b)
phenotypes
108.
B = brown fur  b = white fur
In the punnett square, what is the probability for white fur? 
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
75%
109.
In a flowering plant species, red flower color (R) is dominant over white flower color (r). What is the genotype of any red-flowering plant resulting from this species?
a)
rr
b)
R
c)
RR
d)
RR or Rr
110.
This is an example of ___________?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
111.
This is an example of ___________.
a)
 Incomplete Dominance
b)
 Codominance
112.

A black male and white female produced this grey offspring:

a)

Incomplete dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Complete dominance

113.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co dominance
114.
Different variations of a gene are called?
a)
Alleles
b)
DNA
c)
Chromosome
d)
Gene
115.
What are the possible genotypes for this cross?
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
116.
Which of the following genotypes is homozygous dominant?
a)
A
b)
Aa
c)
AA
d)
aa
117.

A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

c)

Independent assortment

d)

Recessive inheritance

118.
A red flowered plant (RR) breeds with a White flowered plant (WW). The gene for petal color in these plants expresses incomplete dominance.  What percentage of the offspring will have pink (RW) flowers?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
50%
d)
100%
119.

This type of inheritance pattern shows BOTH traits in possible offspring

a)

complete dominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

codominance

d)

dominant pattern

120.
A white flower (rr) is crossed with a white flower (rr). What is the genotype of the offspring? Draw a Punnett square and answer the question.
a)
100% homozygous dominant
b)
100% heterozygous dominant
c)
100% homozygous recessive
d)
100% heterozygous recessive
121.

The physical appearance of a trait is known as the-

a)

genotype

b)

phenotype

c)

Homozygous

d)

intelligence

122.

Gretford is heterozygous for his head shape. If (R) is for a Round head, and (r) is for an Egg head, what is Gretford's genotype?

a)

RR

b)

Rr

c)

rr

d)

rR

123.

What is the probability of heterozygous offspring?

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

0%

d)

100%

124.

X and Y are ​​ (a)   chromosomes. Females are ​ (b)   and males are ​ (c)   .

Choose from the below words
SEX
XX
XY
Autosomes
46
23
125.

In fruit flies, eye color is a sex-linked trait.  Red (R) is dominant to white (r).

Which genotype shows a female fly with white eyes?

a)

XRXrX^{R^{ }}X^r

b)

XRXRX^RX^R

c)

XrXrX^rX^r

126.

Which genotype shows a male with white eyes?

R = Red, r= white

a)

XrYX^rY

b)

XRYX^RY

127.

Match the following. H= no hemophilia, h = hemophilia

a)

Male without hemophilia

1.

XHY

b)

Female with hemophilia

2.

XhXh

c)

Female Carrier

3.

XH Xh

d)

Male with hemophilia

4.

XhY

e)

Female who is NOT a carrier

5.

XHXH

128.
Which of the following genotypes belongs in the red box in the Punnett square?
a)

XBXb

b)

XbXb

c)

XbY

d)

XBY

129.

The following punnett square depicts the x-linked cross of a female who carries hemophilia with a man showing no symptoms. Fill in the genootype represented by the blank box in the punnett square.

a)

XH XH

b)

Xh XH

c)

XH Y

d)

Xh Y

130.

What is the likelihood of this cross have a child that is colorblind?

a)

100%

b)

75%

c)

50%

d)

25%

131.

What is the chance that a daughter will be colorblind?

a)

100%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

0%

132.

What chance will a boy will be colorblind?

a)

100%

b)

50%

c)

25%

d)

0%

133.

Who is more likely to have an X-linked trait?

a)

Males

b)

Females

c)

Both males and females

134.
Jim has type AB blood. His dad could be type O.
a)
True
b)
False
135.

In the image above, what is the percentage of the offspring has the possibility of inheriting blood type O?

a)

0%

b)

25%

c)

50%

d)

100%

136.

Which of the following are genotypes for blood type B?

a)

IA IA and IA IB

b)

IB IB and ii

c)

IB IB and IB i

d)

IA IB and IA IB

137.
What is this?
a)
Pedigree
b)
Karyotype
c)
Venn diagram
d)
Punnett Square
138.
In a pedigree, what shape represents a male?
a)
circle
b)
square
c)
triangle
d)
diamond
139.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
140.
What does an open circle represent?
a)
Not Affected Male
b)
Not Affected Female
c)
Affected Male
d)
Affected Female
141.
What does a filled in square represent?
a)
Not affected Female
b)
Not affected Male
c)
Affected Male
d)
Affected Female
142.

What is the Genotype for Type A that had a type O parent

a)

IᴬIᴮ

b)

Iᴬi

c)

IᴬIᴬ

d)

ii

143.

Punnett Square: A man is homozygous for the B allele, and a woman is type O. What are ALL the possible blood types of their baby?

a)

IᴮIᴮ

b)

ii

c)

IᴬIᴬ

d)

Iᴮi

144.

The karyotype diagram below represents a human female with the genetic disorder known as Turner syndrome. Chromosomal analysis of this karyotype reveals the mutation is a result of

a)

a missing X chromosome

b)

a missing Y chromosome

c)

an extra 21 chromosome

d)

missing chromosome #9

145.

The karyotype diagram below represents a human male. Chromosomal analysis of this karyotype reveals the abnormality in this karyotype is:

a)

a missing X chromosome

b)

a missing Y chromosome

c)

an extra 21 chromosome

d)

missing chromosome #9

146.

The trait this pedigree traces is recessive because it skips a generation and individuals can be carriers. What is the most likely genotype for person III-3?

a)

GG

b)

Gg

c)

gg

147.
If this pedigree shows an autosomal recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual II-3 be?
a)
HH
b)
Hh
c)
hh
d)
None of the above
148.

If this pedigree shows a recessive disorder, what MUST the genotype of individual 4 be?

a)

HH

b)

Hh

c)

hh

149.
There are no carriers for Huntington's Disease- you either have it or you don't. Is Huntington's disease caused by a dominant or recessive trait?
a)
Dominant
b)
Recessive
150.
The end of meiosis results in  ____ to each other.
a)
2 cells that are identical
b)
4 cells that are identical
c)
2 cells that are not identical
d)
4 cells that are not identical
151.
The process of crossing over occurs in what phase of meiosis?
a)
anaphase 1
b)
prophase 1
c)
prophase 2
d)
telophase 1
152.
This image shows chromosomes during Prophase 1. Which of the following correctly describes the process shown?
a)

segregation of sister chromatids

b)

condensation and segregation of alleles

c)

mutationin which the DNA content of the gene is altered

d)

crossing - over in which genes are exchanged

153.

A chromosome is composed of two identical sister

a)

centromeres

b)

chromatids

c)

autosomes

d)

somatic cells

154.

A pair of homologous chromosomes (a tetrad) is composed of ​ ​ (a)   matching chromosomes, and ​ (b)   sister chromatids.

Choose from the below words
two
four
one
three
155.

In which type of cell division does crossing over occur?

a)

mitosis

b)

meiosis

156.

During meiosis, if an organism has 10 chromosomes, how many will the new daughter cells have?

a)

10

b)

8

c)

5

d)

2

157.

Which event is an important factor in increasing variety among sexually reproducing organisms?

a)

crossing over

b)

gene linkage

c)

testcross

d)

mitosis

158.

Select the image that represents meiosis:

a)
b)

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