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MMP | Final Exam

Total questions: 98

Worksheet time: 2hrs 26mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Each Cx vertebra has ..... processes

a)

3

b)

5

c)

7

d)

2

2.

Atlantoaxial joint is mostly contributing in Cx

a)

Side bending

b)

Flexion and Extension

c)

Rotation

3.

Cx is .... joint complex

a)

3

b)

5

c)

7

4.

CAD may be misdiagnosed with

a)

inner ear infection

b)

DVT

c)

greater occipital nerve entrapment

5.

Greater occipital nerve may be entrapped due to

a)

Suboccipital muscle spasms

b)

Thoracic outlet syndrome

c)

Flat cervical curve

6.

Neurocentral joint arthritic changes cannot affect the neural tissues

a)

True

b)

False

7.

The fibers of Lamellae are arranged in the same directions to protect the nucleus in all stress directions

a)

True

b)

False

8.

The brachial Plexus passes

a)

Above Scalenae

b)

Below Scalenae

c)

Bet. anterior and middle scalene

d)

Bet. middle and posterior scalene

9.

Pt. who reported diurnal pain (morning Stiffness) this indicates that the following component is part from his problem

a)

Myogenic

b)

Neural

c)

Arthrogenic

d)

Visceral

10.

Vertebral arteries become basilar artery to supply

a)

Mid-brain

b)

Hind-brain

c)

Occipital lope

d)

Forehead

11.

Early signs for CAD prediction including

a)

Dizziness

b)

Numbness

c)

Uncontrolled DM

d)

high BP

12.

Late signs and symptoms of CAD including

a)

loss of consiousness

b)

Dysarthria

c)

Migraine

d)

Nausea

e)

Dysdiadochokinesia

13.

During your movement testing, pt. reported localized pain and limited ROM in Cx extension and end range rotation to the Rt., what is your clinical hypothesis

a)

Neurocentral joint arthritis

b)

internal disc disruption

c)

Facet joint arthritis

d)

Nerve root compression

14.

During your movement testing, pt. reported localized pain with the end range of Rt. and Lt. Side bending with no pain with extension

a)

Neurocentral joint arthritis

b)

internal disc disruption

c)

Facet joint arthritis

d)

Nerve root compression

15.

Considering sensitivity & specificity of transverse ligament stress test, this means

a)

65% may be false positive

b)

35% may be false negative

c)

99% may be true negative

d)

1% may be false negative

16.

Your pt. complaints from tingling sensation and headache at the back of the skull, what are your MUST ttt options today

a)

Tx mobility

b)

Suboccipital release

c)

Rotation Mobilization from Flexion

d)

Low grade mobilization

17.

Its agreed that pt. with thumb paresthesia may have Median nerve entrapment or nerve root affection

a)

C5

b)

C6

c)

C7

d)

C8

18.

What can cause nerve root compression and upper limb paresthesia

a)

Scalenus muscles guarding spasm

b)

Neurocentral joint arthritic changes

c)

Facet joint arthritic changes

d)

Thoracic outlet syndrome

e)

Internal disc disruption

19.

Considering the clinical Correlation of this MRI, your pt. May have weakness in

a)

Rt. elbow flexion

b)

Lt. wrist extension

c)

Lt. shoulder abduction

d)

Rt. cervical rotation

20.

Considering this MRI, the pt. complains from feeling of Instability and loosing the sensation in his both hands finger tips, what's your best clinical decision now

a)

Cx traction

b)

ttt based diagnosis

c)

kick him out

d)

Ask for familial history of idiopathic stenosis

21.

Considering texting neck syndrome pt., one of your critical ttt options is

a)

Milking mobilizations

b)

protraction exersises

c)

Cx Motor control

d)

Cx traction

22.

Whatever the cause, 22-year-old female complains of winging of scapula, weakness while lifting, pulling, and pushing heavy objects which often affects her ability to raise her arm above her shoulder.

a)

The origin of the affected nerve is upper trunk of brachial plexus

b)

The origin of the affected nerve is C5, C6, C7

c)

Long thoracic nerve is mostly damaged

d)

Musculocutaneous nerve is mostly damaged

e)

Serratus Anterior muscle is supplied by this affected nerve

23.

79-year-old woman worked as a volunteer at the information desk of our hospital, complained of numbness and paresthesia in her right thumb and index finger. Her symptoms were constant, but worse when she would drive to work in the morning and during the night when she was trying to sleep. She noted that rubbing or shaking her hand improved the symptoms slightly. She denied weakness; however, she reported dropping objects that she was holding in her hand on occasion. She did not experience any similar symptoms in her left hand.

a)

Median nerve is suspicious nerve to be injured

b)

Ulnar nerve is suspicious nerve to be injured

c)

we can make motor nerve conduction study for this nerve from pronator teres muscle

d)

we can make motor nerve conduction study for this nerve from adductor digiti-minimi muscle

24.

The name of the Legend Al Pacino in Scent of a Woman movie was?

a)

Colonel Frank Slade

b)

Colonel Chris O'Donnell

c)

Colonel James Rebhorn

d)

Colonel Charlie Simms

25.

Posterior rotation of the clavicle is achieved directly by

a)

the tension of serratus anterior muscle

b)

the tension of coracoclavicular ligaments

c)

the tension of upper trap. muscle

26.

Posterior rotation of the clavicle is achieved indirectly by

a)

the tension of serratus anterior muscle

b)

the tension of coracoclavicular ligaments

c)

the tension of upper trap. muscle

27.

Considering the resting position of the ST articulation

a)

Anterior tilted

b)

Posterior tilted

c)

Upward rotated

d)

Internally Rotated

e)

Externally Rotated

28.

Considering the upper trap muscle

a)

Initiate upward rotation

b)

Static stabilizer for the scapula

c)

act as extensor if activated unilaterally

d)

Common site for trigger points

29.

Considering the dynamic centralization mechanism of the shoulder, Deltoid contribute in

a)

Suction or Compressive force

b)

Superior migration

c)

Inferior gliding

d)

Dynamic co-contraction

30.

Considering the dynamic centralization mechanism of the shoulder, Supraspinatus contribute in

a)

Suction or Compressive force

b)

Superior migration

c)

Inferior gliding

d)

Dynamic co-contraction

31.

Your pt. has obvious rounded shoulders, what are your ttt options for this case

a)

Tx mobility in extension

b)

Release pectoralis minor

c)

Stretch pectoralis minor and major

d)

Triceps activation

e)

All of them

32.

MR machine can just deal with proton

a)

H

b)

O2

c)

Ca

d)

K

e)

H2o

33.

Considering this article, the 3 stages of tendinopathy (by sequence) are

a)

Inflammatory
Remodeling
Proliferation

b)

Inflammatory
Deterioration
Proliferation

c)

Proliferation
Inflammatory
Remodeling

d)

Inflammatory
Proliferation
Remodeling

e)

Inflammatory
Deterioration
Reformation

34.

Considering this article, high percentage of collagen type III composed in

a)

Inflammatory stage

b)

Proliferation phase

c)

Remodeling phase

35.

This characteristics describe

a)

Tendinitis

b)

Tendinopathy

c)

Tendinosis

d)

Tenosynovitis

36.

This characteristics describe

a)

Tendinitis

b)

Tendinopathy

c)

Tendinosis

d)

Tenosynovitis

37.

Considering this RST, the acromion morphology (i.e. Hooked shape) has .... association with SIS

a)

Direct

b)

Indipendent

38.

Your report for this MRI will include

a)

Supraspinatus tendinitis

b)

Supraspinatus tendinopathy

c)

Infraspinatus tendinopathy

d)

Subscapularis tendinopathy

39.

Your report for this MRI will include

a)

Supraspinatus full thickness tear

b)

Supraspinatus tendinopathy

c)

Infraspinatus tendinopathy

d)

Acromion bursitis

40.

Who is her?

a)

Geffrey Maitland

b)

Ann Cools

c)

Ali Abd El-Aziz

d)

Scarlett Johansson

41.

Ignoring the Convex-concave rule, if you want to gain full GH flexion ROM, what are your clinical ttt options from here

a)

Tx mobility in extension

b)

GH internal rotation MWM

c)

GH scaption MWM

42.

Considering GIRD pt. before you order by the Guidelines exercises, you have to gain internal rotation ROM by

a)

Release subscapularis

b)

Release deltoid

c)

Hand behind back MWM

d)

Activate infraspinatus

43.

Considering this AIOS pt. the key ttt option to avoid recurrence is

a)

Release pictoralis major

b)

Strength infraspinatus

c)

Tx mobility in extension

d)

Tx mobility in rotation

44.

8 years old boy fracture medial epicondyle may cause

a)

Cubitus varus

b)

Cubitus valgus

c)

None of them

45.

8 years old boy fracture medial condyle (trochlea) may cause

a)

Cubitus varus

b)

Cubitus valgus

c)

None of them

46.
a)

Galeazzi fracture

b)

Montaggia fracture

47.

Considering the clinical findings of Resistive movement testing, Strong and painful elbow flexion may indicate

a)

Muscle strain

b)

Tendinopathy

c)

Muscle tear

d)

Carcinoma

e)

Total nerve disruption

48.

Considering the clinical findings of Resistive movement testing, Weak and painless elbow flexion may indicate

a)

Muscle strain

b)

Tendinopathy

c)

Complete muscle tear

d)

Carcinoma

e)

Total nerve disruption

49.

OK sign for

a)

Posterior interosseous nerve entrapment

b)

Anterior interosseous nerve entrapment

c)

Ulnar nerve entrapment

d)

Radial nerve entrapment

50.

Hitchhike sign for

a)

Posterior interosseous nerve entrapment

b)

Anterior interosseous nerve entrapment

c)

Ulnar nerve entrapment

d)

Radial nerve entrapment

51.

Wartenberg sign for

a)

Posterior interosseous nerve entrapment

b)

Anterior interosseous nerve entrapment

c)

Ulnar nerve entrapment

d)

Radial nerve entrapment

52.

Signs of million dollar nerve involvement may include

a)

Weak thumb adduction

b)

Weak wrist flexion

c)

Paresthesia at the thenar eminence

d)

Atrophied thenar eminence

53.

Your report for this plane x-ray will include

a)

Triceps tendinitis

b)

Triceps avulsion tear

c)

Elbow OA

d)

Elbow RA

54.

According to recent evidence-based practice, your ttt options for LET may include

a)

Tx involvement

b)

Scapular stability ex.

c)

Eccentric loading on flexor-pronator group

d)

Eccentric loading on extensor-supinator group

e)

MWM

55.

The most common affected tendon in LET is

a)

FPL

b)

EPL

c)

ECRL

d)

ECRB

56.

This pt. maybe diagnosed as

a)

OA

b)

RA

c)

Generalized hyperlaxity

d)

Direct trauma

57.

What is your clinical hypothesis

a)

Ape hand

b)

Mallet finger

c)

Jersey finger

d)

Ulnar nerve entrapment

58.

What is your clinical hypothesis

a)

Ape hand

b)

Mallet finger

c)

Jersey finger

d)

Ulnar nerve entrapment

59.

This point of pain which radiate proximally may be due to

a)

Dequervain's tenosynovitis

b)

Intersection syndrome

c)

Extensor indices tendinopathy

d)

Medial nerve entrapment

60.

Your pt. complaints from tingling and burning sensation at the palm of the hand on the thenar eminence area, what is your clinical hypothesis

a)

Deep branch of median nerve entrapment

b)

Anterior interosseous nerve entrapment

c)

Palmar cutaneous branch of median nerve entrapment

d)

Palmar cutaneous branch of ulnar nerve entrapment

61.

Your pt. complaints from tingling and burning sensation at the lateral finger tips bilaterally , what are your clinical hypotheses

a)

Cervical spine may be the source

b)

Bilateral carpal tunnel syndrome

c)

Foraminal disc extrusion C5,C6

d)

Extraforaminal disc extrusion C6,C7

62.

Terry Thomas sign describes

a)

Tear TFCC

b)

Scapho-Lunate dissociation

c)

Ulnar Impaction Syndrome

d)

Scaphoid fracture

63.

Considering this MRI, the bone marrow contusion on the lunate is due to

a)

tear TFCC

b)

-Ve ulnar variance

c)

+Ve ulnar variance

d)

Trauma

64.

According to this RCT, the highest quality evidence ttt options for dequirvan's tenosynovitis are

a)

Paraffine bath

b)

Concentric loading

c)

Thumb spika

d)

Eccentric loading

65.

The 1st line of treatment after immediate scaphoid fracture is

a)

Low grade mobilization

b)

Corticosteroids

c)

Internal or External good fixation

d)

Stability program for the surrounding muscles

66.

Guidelines for rehabilitation of carpal tunnel syndrome can be explained easily by our words

(a)  

67.

The most common carpal bone to be fractured

a)

Scaphoid

b)

Lunate

c)

Hamate

d)

Capitate

68.

The most common carpal bone to be dislocated

a)

Scaphoid

b)

Lunate

c)

Hamate

d)

Capitate

69.

ما هي عاصمة فلسطين الأبدية

a)

رام الله

b)

غزة

c)

بئر السبع

d)

القدس

e)

حيفا

70.

Lumbar puncture is considered safe below L2 mainly because

a)

The spinal cord becomes wider below L2

b)

Only cauda equina roots are present

c)

The dura ends at L2

d)

The lumbar plexus disappears below L2

71.

The nerve supply of the intervertebral disc is mainly through

a)

Femoral nerve

b)

Nervo nervorum

c)

Sinuvertebral nerve

d)

Sciatic nerve

72.

Because of the vertical orientation of lumbar nerve roots, a paracentral disc extrusion may affect

a)

The same exiting nerve root only

b)

The spinal cord

c)

Only the sympathetic chain

d)

A different nerve root from the exiting root

73.

A patient who cannot walk on his heels may have involvement of

a)

L3

b)

L4

c)

L5

d)

S1

74.

In clinical correlation, this patient is mostly suspected to report numbness over

a)

The lateral lower Rt. leg

b)

The middle three toes on the dorsum of the Lt. foot

c)

The medial aspect of the Rt. knee

d)

The Big toe and medial aspect of the Lt. foot

75.

In a patient with severe irritability who cannot tolerate SLR on the symptomatic side, what are your clinical decisions that may help

a)

performing the SLR NM on the opposite limb

b)

Low grade mobilization for Lx

c)

SLR from Lx decompression

d)

NM from SLUMP position

76.

A patient with painful ASLR. When pelvic compression is applied, the ASLR becomes easier and less painful. This finding is most consistent with

a)

Excessive force closure (taught control)

b)

Reduced force closure

(loose control)

c)

Reduced form closure

d)

Excessive form closure

77.

A patient with reduced force closure may benefit primarily from

a)

Local muscle activation and core stability exercises

b)

Fire Hydrants exercise

c)

Iliopsoas march exercise

d)

Muscle release

e)

Relaxation techniques

f)

Cardiovascular exercises

78.

A patient with excessive force closure may benefit primarily from

a)

Local muscle activation and core stability exercises

b)

Fire Hydrants exercise

c)

Iliopsoas march exercise

d)

Muscle release

e)

Relaxation techniques

f)

Cardiovascular exercises

79.

Ely's test is used to assess

a)

Hamstring flexibility

b)

Gluteus medius strength

c)

Rectus femoris flexibility

d)

Quadriceps flexibility

80.

Proximal stability insufficiency may produce

a)

Trendelenburg gait

b)

Waddling gait

c)

Femur Adduction and internal rotation

d)

Lateral patellar tracking

81.

The ideal position in EBP described for the clamshell assessment is approximately

a)

45° hip flexion and 45° knee flexion

b)

60° hip extension and 90° knee flexion

c)

90° hip flexion and 90° knee flexion

d)

30° hip flexion and 90° knee flexion

82.

FBSS

a)
True
b)
False
83.

Report

a)

AVN Stage I

b)

AVN Stage II

c)

Transiant osteoprosis

d)

Stress fracture

84.

Which of the following considered self-limiting disease

a)

Scaphoid fracture

b)

AVN

c)

Femoral head stress fracture

d)

Transiant osteoprosis

e)

Severe's disease

85.

According T-Score, this hip is

a)

Osteoprosis

b)

Osteopenia

c)

Normal

86.

Those positions are aggravating factors for

a)

GTPS

b)

Hip OA

c)

AVN

d)

FAI

87.

GTPS Diagnostic criteria may include

a)

+Ve Palpation

b)

+Ve FADDER

c)

+Ve FABER

d)

+Ve SLS

e)

+Ve Resisted Ext. Derotation Test

88.

Which test is most valuable associated with ACL integrity?

a)

Slocum test

b)

Pivot shift test

c)

Anterior drawer test

d)

Lachman test

89.

During PFPS, anterior knee pain is often aggravated by going downstairs because

a)

The meniscus is not loaded

b)

Proximal insufficincy

c)

The quadriceps works eccentrically and patellofemoral compression increases

d)

The hamstrings work as neutralizer

90.

The major early postoperative goals after ACL reconstruction is to

a)

Prevent extension lag

b)

Subside edema

c)

Reduce pain

d)

Improve proximal stability

e)

Proprioceptive training

91.
a)

Degenarative tear

b)

Posterior horn of lateral meniscus

c)

Posterior horn of medial meniscus

d)

Traumatic tear

92.
a)

Doubble PCL sign

b)

Pocket handle tear

c)

Complex meniscal tear

d)

PCL tear

93.
a)

MCL sprain grade I

b)

MCL sprain grade II

c)

MCL sprain grade III

d)

LCL sprain grade III

e)

LCL sprain grade II

94.
a)

Chronic injury

b)

ACL full thickness tear

c)

Doubble PCL sign

d)

Bone marrow contusion

e)

Empty notch sign

95.

Graft mal-positioning

a)
True
b)
False
96.

A football player sustains an ankle injury with pain located above the ankle joint, relatively little swelling, and pain reproduced during a dorsiflexion + external rotation stress test. Which diagnosis is MOST likely?

a)

Achilles tendon injury

b)

High ankle sprain involving the distal tibiofibular syndesmosis

c)

Deltoid ligament injury

d)

Lateral ankle sprain involving the ATFL

97.

A 12-year-old soccer player develops posterior heel pain that increases with running and jumping. The pain is absent in the morning, and medial/lateral compression of the heel reproduces the symptoms. He also has tight calf muscles and limited ankle dorsiflexion. What is the MOST likely diagnosis?

a)

Tarsal tunnel syndrome

b)

Sever's disease (calcaneal apophysitis)

c)

Achilles tendinopathy

d)

Plantar fasciopathy

98.

A patient has completed the initial management phase following a severe lateral ankle sprain. The clinician wants to reduce the risk of recurrence and restore functional ankle control. Which rehabilitation approach BEST matches the recommendations in the EBP?

a)

Avoid weight-bearing exercises until full ligament healing is confirmed on imaging

b)

Progressive loading combined with sensorimotor/proprioceptive training, balance activities, and sport-related functional training

c)

Ultrasound is not recommended as the primary intervention

d)

Immobilization until all symptoms completely disappear

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