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Worksheets

genetics

Total questions: 69

Worksheet time: 35mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

During base excision repair, what is the enzyme that removes the deaminated uracil?

a)

Glycoslyase

b)

DNA exonuclease

c)

AP endonuclease

d)

DNA ligase

2.

What is the enzyme that catalyzes the phosphodiester bond between adjacent nucleotides during DNA replication?

a)

DNA polymerase III

b)

Hydroxylating agent

3.

Name two chemical mutagenic agent?

a)

Hydroxylating agent, Alkylating agent, Deaminating agent, Intercalating agent

b)

Exonuclease

4.

Where does transcription occur in a cell?

a)

Nucleus

b)

DNA polymerase III 

5.

Peptidyl transferase catalyzes formation of peptide bonds between amino acids during translation

a)

T

b)

F

6.

What is the enzyme that removes the primer during DNA replication?

a)

Exonuclease

b)

DNA polymerase III/DNA ligase/DNA polymerase

c)

RNA polymerase and sigma factor

7.

What is the enzyme and protein that binds to the promoter sequence located near the beginning of the gene during initiation of transcription?

a)

RNA polymerase and sigma factor

b)

DNA polymerase III/DNA ligase/DNA polymerase

8.

Griffith experiment

a)

Transformation

b)

Bacteriophage

c)

Pyrimidine

9.

a virus that infects bacteria

a)

Deoxyribose

b)

Bacteriophage

c)

Transformation

10.

the sugar within the nucleotide subunits of DNA

a)

Deoxyribose

b)

Ribose

11.

non-covalent bonds that hold the two strands together of the double helix together

a)

Hydrogen bond

b)

Origin

12.

two nitrogenous bases that can pair via hydrogen bond

a)

Complementary bases

b)

Purine

c)

Okazaki fragments

13.

a short sequence of bases where unwinding of the double helix for replication begins

a)

Origin

b)

Purine

c)

Semiconservative replication

14.

short DNA fragments formed by discontinuous replication in one of the strands

a)

Okazaki fragments

b)

Lagging strand

15.

a nitrogenous bases containing a double ring

a)

Purine

b)

Pyrimidine

16.

Meselson and Stahl experiment

a)

Semiconservative replication

b)

Complementary bases

17.

a nitrogenous base containing a single ring

a)

Pyrimidine

b)

Purine

18.

What is the enzyme that catalyzes the phosphodiester bond between adjacent nucleotides?

a)

RNA polymerase and sigma factor

b)

DNA polymerase III/DNA ligase/DNA polymerase

19.

Lagging strand

a)

short DNA fragments formed by discontinuous replication in one of the strands

b)

the strand that is synthesized discontinuously during replication

20.

DNA stands for _______________.

a)

Ribonucleic acid

b)

Deoxyribosenucleic acid

c)

Deoxyribusenucleic acid

d)

Deoxyribonucleic acid

21.

The sequence AACGTTATCG is changed to AATGTTATCG correspond to what type of mutation?

a)

Transition substitution

b)

Transversion substitution

c)

Transformation mutation

d)

Forward mutation

22.

Transition substitution

a)

a block or 1 nucleotide base pair lost from DNA

b)

Purine replaced by another purine

c)

a block or 1 nucleotide base pair added to DNA

d)

Purine replace by pyrimidine

23.

Transversion substitution

a)

Purine replace by pyrimidine

b)

a block or 1 nucleotide base pair added to DNA

c)

a 180°  rotation of a segment of DNA

d)

Purine replaced by another purine

24.

Deletion

a)

a block or 1 nucleotide base pair lost from DNA

b)

a 180°  rotation of a segment of DNA

c)

parts of two non-homologous chromosomes change places

d)

Purine replaced by another purine

25.

Insertion

a)

a block or 1 nucleotide base pair added to DNA

b)

a block or 1 nucleotide base pair lost from DNA

26.

Inversion

a)

a 180°  rotation of a segment of DNA

b)

a block or 1 nucleotide base pair lost from DNA

c)

Purine replace by pyrimidine

d)

Purine replaced by another purine

27.

Reciprocal translocation

a)

a 180°  rotation of a segment of DNA

b)

parts of two non-homologous chromosomes change places

28.

A portion of one DNA strand for the human gene responsible of cystic fibrosis is

51  ATAGCAGACACCATTCTGGCC  31

Which of the following below is the corresponding region of the other DNA strand of this gene?

a)

51  TATCGTCTGTGGTAAGACCGG  31

b)

31  TATCGTCTGTGGTAAGACCGG  51

c)

31  TATCGACAGTGGTAAGACCGG  51

d)

31  TATCGTCTGTGGTAACTCCGG  51

29.

 What does the nucleotide above show? 

a)

Ribose sugar, phosphate group and a purine group containing adenine

b)

Deoxyribose sugar, phosphate group and a purine group containing guanine

c)

Ribose sugar, phosphate group and a purine group containing guanine

d)

Deoxyribose sugar, phosphate group and a purine group containing adenine

30.

1 centiMorgan equals to recombination frequency of 100%

a)

False

b)

True

31.

Initiation phase of the translation is described below:

a)

Small subunit of the ribosome reads from the 51 methylated cap of the mRNA and encounters the start codon

b)

Initiator tRNA carries whose 51 CAU 31 anticodon (carries methionine) is complementary to AUG

c)

Initiator tRNA sits in the P site of the completed ribosome

d)

All the above describes the initiation phase of the translation.

32.

The list below shows the correct complementary base pairing between nitrogen bases of DNA molecules except for

a)

A = U

b)

A = T

c)

G ≡ C

d)

T = A

33.

The recombination frequency between two genes is 60%. This means _________.

a)

the two genes are not linked

b)

the two genes are linked

c)

the two genes are united on the same chromosome

d)

the two genes are close together on the same chromosome

34.

What occurs during termination phase of translation?

a)

Release factors recognize the termination codons and binds to the stop codons

b)

Last tRNA releases the complete polypeptide

c)

mRNA separates from the ribosome

d)

The large and small subunits of the ribosomes dissociates

e)

All above is the correct sequence of termination phase of translation

35.

During initiation of transcription what happens?

a)

RNA polymerase and sigma factor binds at the promotor sequence

b)

The region of DNA unwound to form an open promoter complex

c)

Phosphodiester bonds are formed between the first two nucleotides

d)

Sigma factor release from the open promoter complex

e)

All above describes the process of initiation of transcription

36.

What occurs during elongation phase of translation?

a)

Initiating tRNA at the P site and the second tRNA at its A site so that peptidyl transferase can catalyze formation of a peptide bond between the amino acids carried by the two tRNAs

b)

All the sequence above describes the elongation phase of translation

c)

As the ribosome moves, the initiating tRNA, which no longer carries an amino acid, is transferred to the E site and the other tRNA carrying the dipeptide shifts from the A site to the P site.

d)

The empty A site now receives another tRNA, whose identity is determined by the next codon in the mRNA.

e)

The uncharged initiating tRNA is bumped off the E site and leaves the ribosome.

37.

Hershey and Chase identified DNA as the genetic material in bacteriophages.

a)

True

b)

False

38.

During methyl-directed mismatch repair, what does the adenine methylase do?

a)


Adds methyl group on the adenine of the parent strand

b)

Adds ethyl group on the adenine of the parent strand

c)

Removes methyl group on the adenine of the parent strand

d)

Removes ethyl group on the adenine of the parent strand

39.

Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty performed an experiment that prove DNA was responsible for the genetic change from rough (R) cells into smooth (S) cells. The outcome where no S cells are formed is a result from following below:

a)

The heat-killed S cells are treated with RNase first and mix with R cells.

b)

The heat-killed S cells are treated with lipase first and mix with R cells.

c)

The heat-killed S cells are treated with DNase first and mix with R cells.

d)

The heat-killed S cells are treated with protease first and mix with R cells.

40.

MutL and MutS detect and bind to mismatch nucleotides during methyl-directed mismatch repair

a)

True

b)

False

41.

What is the enzyme that removes the primer during DNA replication?

a)

Exonuclease

b)

Mutation

42.

A change in a DNA sequence of an organism due to the error in DNA replication during cell division, exposure to mutagens or a viral infection is called ____________.

a)

Mutation

b)

RNA polymerase and sigma factor

43.

What is the enzyme and protein that binds to the promoter sequence located near the beginning of the gene during initiation of transcription?

a)

RNA polymerase and sigma factor

b)

MutL and MutS

44.

What are the names of the proteins that detect and bind to mismatch nucleotides during methyl-directed mismatch repair?

a)

MutL and MutS

b)

Transposable elements

45.

What are DNA segments several hundred to several thousand base pairs long that move or “transpose” or “jump” from place to place in the genome?

a)

DNA ligase

b)

Transposable elements

46.

What is the enzyme that joins DNA fragments together?

a)

DNA ligase

b)

Mutation

47.

What is the name of the proofreading function of the DNA polymerase that recognizes and excises mismatch base pairing?

a)

Mutation

b)

31-to-51 exonuclease

48.

A change in a DNA sequence of an organism is called ___________.

a)

Mutation

b)

Mutagen

c)

Mutensis

d)

Mitosis

49.

What mediate translation of mRNA codons to amino acids?

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

Amino acid

d)

Viral RNA

50.

The recombination frequency between two genes is 30%. This means _________.

a)

the two genes are not linked on the same chromosome

b)

the two genes are linked on the same chromosome

c)

the two genes are on different chromosome

d)

the two genes are not linked

51.

Okazaki fragments are synthesized on the lagging strand

a)

T

b)

F

52.

During termination, the last stage of transcription. Below describes the sequence of events, select which is true.

a)

Terminators either within the RNA polymerase or with the help of rho proteins will signal the end of transcription

b)

Terminators often form hairpin loops in which nucleotides within the mRNA pair with nearby complementary nucleotides.

c)

RNA polymerase and complete RNA chain are released from the DNA

d)

All the above is correct.

53.

If recombination frequency is less than 50 %, the linked genes are close together on the same chromosome and they do not assort independently

a)

T

b)

F

54.

What are the types of mutagenic agent that results in adding ethyl group?

a)

Alkylating agents

b)

Intercalating agents

c)

Hydroxylating agents

d)

Deaminating agents

55.

Deaminating agent like nitrous acid can change adenine to hypoxanthine or modified adenine (A*). When this happens, the modified A will readily pair with what base during DNA replication?

a)

Cytosine

b)

Thymine

c)

Guanine

d)

Adenine

56.

Recombinant phenotype is when offspring do not look like parents

a)

T

b)

F

57.

Transcription occurs in cytoplasm of a eukaryotic cell.

a)

T

b)

F

58.

Plant X with green leaves (Y) is dominant over yellow (y) leaves. Big stems (S) is dominant over small (s) stems. Wide roots (R) is dominant over thin (r) roots. Those genes are linked. A trihybrid (YySsRr) is testcrossed with a triple mutant (yyssrr). In this testcross the following number of offspring were produced for each of the possible phenotypes, with a total of 7000 offspring:

Green leaves (Y), big stems (S), wide roots (R):          2290

Yellow leaves (y), small stems (s), thin roots (r):          2400

Green leaves (Y), big stems (S), thin roots (r):              770

Yellow leaves (y), big stems (S), wide roots (R):            770

Green leaves (Y), small stems (s), thin roots (r):           360

Yellow leaves (y), small stems (s), wide roots (R):         300

Yellow leaves (y), big stems (S), thin roots (r):                 54

Green leaves (Y), small stems (s), wide roots (R):           56

a)

y ‒ s = 17.7 cM; s ‒ r = 16.2 cM; y ‒ r = 30.9 cM

b)

y ‒ s = 17.7 cM; s ‒ r = 16.9 cM; y ‒ r = 31.4 cM

c)

y ‒ s = 17.5 cM; s ‒ r = 14.5 cM; y ‒ r = 30.7 cM

d)

y ‒ s = 17.7 cM; s ‒ r = 16.4 cM; y ‒ r = 31.9 cM

59.

When the sigma factor separates from RNA polymerase during elongation, this do not allow the RNA polymerase to starts the formation of mRNA strand

a)

T

b)

F

60.

What scientific name of organism was used in Thomas Hunt Morgan’s research in chromosome theory of heredity?

a)

Pisum sativum

b)

Anopheles gambiae

c)

Musca domestica

d)

Drosophila melanogaster

61.

Ultraviolet (UV) light causes adjacent thymines to form abnormal covalent bonds. What are they called?

a)

Thymine dimers

b)

Timing dimers

c)

Thyiomine dimers

d)

Thymoid dimers

62.

Damage bases can be repaired by the following repair mechanism:

a)

Base excision repair

b)

Baseless excision repair

c)

Bond excision repair

d)

Bonding excision repair

63.

Genes located close together on the same chromosome are called linked genes

a)

T

b)

F

64.

The ability of a substance to change the genetic characteristics of an organism is called ______________.

a)

Transformation

b)

Transcription

c)

Translocation

d)

Translation

65.

DNA polymerase catalyze new phosphodiester bonds         

a)

T

b)

F

66.

An enzyme that synthesizes the RNA primer at the replication fork is called ___________.

a)

Primatase

b)

Primase

c)

Helicase

d)

Promase

67.

Adenine methylase adds a methyl group to adenine in the sequence 51- GATC – 31           

a)

T

b)

F

68.

Below describes the elongation stage during transcription. Select the most apt description.

a)

Sigma factor separates from the RNA polymerase in the open promoter complex

b)

Core RNA polymerase loses affinity for promoter and moves in 31 to 51 direction on template strand

c)

Core RNA polymerase extends the mRNA in the 51 to 31direction and moves in antiparallel 31 to 51 direction along the DNA template strand

d)

The region of DNA unwound by RNA polymerase called transcription bubble, within this bubble nucleotides are added at 31 of growing mRNA strand

e)

All the above is true

69.

Removal of an adenine by the process of hydrolysis is called __________.

a)

Depurination

b)

Deamination

c)

Radiation

d)

Mutation