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Post Midterm Risk Exam 2023

Total questions: 60

Worksheet time: 5mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Why we should manage operational risks? Please choose 3 answers *

a)

Minimise operational losses

b)

Achieve business objectives

c)

Better business decision

d)

Common industry practice

e)

Reduce tax

2.

Please select the correct examples of the causal factor contributing to operational risk

a)

Process: Inabsence of dual control function (checker & maker process) for financing

b)

System: Non-maintenance of ATM/CDM machine resulting to frequent breakdown.

c)

External: Staff did not comply to internal policies and procedures

d)

People: Non-comprehensive of SLA (Service Level Agreement) between Bank and vendor.

3.

What is BCM?

a)

Business Compliance Management

b)

Business Contingency Management

c)

Banking Continuity Management

d)

Business Continuity Management

4.

The following are the reasons why Bank requires BCM EXCEPT? *

a)

To carry out the critical business functions at a minimal resources during disaster

b)

Safeguard the Bank's customers and business partners

c)

Protect the Bank’s image and reputation

d)

Protect the banking industries

5.

To understand operational risk, one should understand..

a)

Operational process, corporate environment and the affecting factors

b)

Operational process only

c)

The affecting factors and regulations only

d)

No need to understand others, it just needs to understand the operational risk

6.

Which of the following risk statement is catagorized as operational risk..

a)

PEOPLE RISK

b)

SYSTEM RISK

c)

PROCESS RISK

d)

ALL THE STATMENTS

7.

Based on market best practice, which method provides foundation and framework for linking and integrating Operational risk to enterprise Risk Management..

a)

ISO9001

b)

ISO31000

c)

ISO37000

d)

ISO26000

8.

Which one of the following statements is TRUE..

a)

To achieve goal setting, organization should define their goal achievement

b)

To set the strategy, organization should identify the risks

c)

To define the risks, organization should define the opportunity

d)

During setting up the strategy, organization should be focused on the opportunity exploitation, instead of risks identification

9.

In the SWOT analysis, Strengths and Weaknesses are what?

a)

External Factors

b)

Poor Planning

c)

Internal Factors

d)

Good Management

10.

What is the purpose of performing a SWOT Analysis?

a)

Gives the management team a broader view on the potential opportunity

b)

Evaluates whether the business venture is a good idea.

c)

Identifies internal and external factors that may affect the business future performance.

d)

Access an organization’s performance

11.

Typically, the interest rate on corporate bonds will be ________ the more restrictions are placed on management through restrictive covenants, because ________.

a)

higher; corporate earnings will be limited by the restrictions

b)

higher; the bonds will be considered safer by bondholders

c)

lower; the bonds will be considered safer by buyers

d)

lower; corporate earnings will be higher with more restrictions in place

12.

A stock currently sells for $25 per share and pays $0.24 per year in dividends. What is an investor's valuation of this stock if she expects it to be selling for $30 in one year and requires a 15 percent return on equity investments?

a)

$30.24

b)

$26.30

c)

$26.09

d)

$27.74

13.

Suppose the average industry PE ratio for auto parts retailers is 20. What is the current price of Auto Zone stock if the retailer's earnings per share is projected to be $1.85?

a)

$21.85

b)

$9.25

c)

$10.81

d)

$37

14.

If the 2005 inflation rate in Britain is 6 percent, and the inflation rate in the U.S. is 4 percent, then the theory of purchasing power parity predicts that, during 2005, the value of the British pound in terms of U.S. dollars will

a)

rise by 10 percent.

b)

rise by 2 percent.

c)

fall by 10 percent.

d)

fall by 2 percent.

15.

What type of risk focuses upon mismatched asset and liability maturities and durations?

a)

Liquidity risk

b)

Interest rate risk

c)

Credit risk

d)

Foreign exchange rate risk

e)

Off-balance sheet risk

16.

What type of risk focuses upon mismatched currency positions?

a)

Liquidity risk

b)

Interest rate risk

c)

Credit risk

d)

Foreign exchange rate risk

e)

Off-balance sheet risk

17.

The risk that an investor will be forced to place earnings from a loan or security into a lower yielding investment is known as

a)

liquidity risk

b)

reinvestment risk

c)

credit risk

d)

foreign exchange risk

e)

off-balance-sheet risk

18.

An FI that finances a euro (€) loan with U.S. dollar ($) deposits is exposed to

a)

technology risk

b)

interest rate risk

c)

credit risk

d)

foreign exchange risk

e)

off-balance-sheet risk

19.

The risk that borrowers are unable to repay their loans on time is

a)

credit risk

b)

political risk

c)

currency risk

d)

interest rate risk

e)

liquidity risk

20.

The risk that many borrowers in a particular country fail to repay their loans as a result of a recession in that country relates to

a)

credit risk

b)

sovereign risk

c)

currency risk

d)

interest rate risk

e)

liquidity risk

21.

The risk that many borrowers in a particular country fail to repay their loans as a result of a recession in that country relates to

a)

credit risk

b)

sovereign risk

c)

currency risk

d)

interest rate risk

e)

liquidity risk

22.

The risk that many depositors withdraw their funds from an FI at once is

a)

credit risk

b)

sovereign risk

c)

currency risk

d)

interest rate risk

e)

liquidity risk

23.

The risk that a foreign government may devalue the currency relates to

a)

credit risk

b)

sovereign risk

c)

foreign exchange risk

d)

interest rate risk

e)

liquidity risk

24.

As commercial banks move from their traditional banking activities of deposit taking and lending and shift more of their activities to trading, they are more subject to

a)

credit risk

b)

market risk

c)

foreign exchange risk

d)

interest rate risk

e)

liquidity risk

25.

Instruments of Islamic finance enable risk-sharing and diversification through which individuals can mitigate their idiosyncratic risks.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

Which of the following is a definition of Refinancing Risk?

a)

The risk that the return on funds to be reinvested will be higher than the cost of funding

b)

The risk that an interest rate falls and the maturity of assets is shorter than maturity of liabilities

c)

The risk that the cost of reborrowing will be higher than return on investments

d)

The risk that interest rates will not change and the maturity of assets is longer than liabilities

27.

When does duration of an asset equals its maturity?

a)

Never

b)

When asset is a zero-coupon bond

c)

When asset produces multiple cash flows but only during one year

d)

When maturity of asset is more than one year but only one cash flow is received per year

28.

Which of the following is a problem when estimating interest rate risk using repricing model?

a)

Ignoring off-balance sheet items

b)

Overaggregation

c)

Ignoring runoffs effect

d)

All answers are correct

29.

In a hypothetical bucket value of assets is $100 and value of liabilities is $75. What is the effect of interest rates falling by 2% on banks' net interest income?

a)

-$0.25

b)

-$0.5

c)

$0.5

d)

$25

30.

Specific market risk corresponds to the fraction of market risk associated with the volatility of positions or a portfolio that can be explained in terms of market factors, such as changes in the term structure of interest rates, changes in equity index prices, currency fluctuation, etc.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

31.

value at risk (VaR) is defined as that value which represents the maximum potential change in value of the total position, given a certain confidence level during a pre- determined period of time

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

32.

What is the definition of risk in financial terms?

a)

The guarantee of not losing any investment

b)

The chance that an outcome or investment's actual gains will differ from an expected outcome or return

c)

The possibility of gaining more than the expected outcome

d)

The certainty of achieving the expected outcome

33.

What are the two categories of investment risks affecting asset values?

a)

Interest rate risk and political risk

b)

Market risk and credit risk

c)

Business risk and country risk

d)

Systematic risk and unsystematic risk

34.

What is the risk of losing an investment due to company or industry-specific hazard called?

a)

Unsystematic risk

b)

Market risk

c)

Foreign-exchange risk

d)

Credit risk

35.

Which type of risk refers to the risk that a country won't be able to honor its financial commitments?

a)

Foreign-exchange risk

b)

Interest rate risk

c)

Country risk

d)

Political risk

36.

Which type of risk refers to the risk that a country won't be able to honor its financial commitments?

a)

Foreign-exchange risk

b)

Interest rate risk

c)

Country risk

d)

Political risk

37.

What is the risk that the cash from an investment won't be worth as much in the future due to inflation changing its purchasing power called?

a)

Inflation risk

b)

Systematic risk

c)

Default risk

d)

Sovereign risk

38.

A derivative instrument that suggests a contract between two traders for purchase and delivery of assets at a specific time and future date; it is also traded on stock exchange.

a)

forward

b)

future

c)

swap

39.

Which of the following statements about stress testing are true?

I. Stress testing can complement VAR estimation in helping risk managers identify crucial vulnerabilities in a portfolio.

II. Stress testing allows users to include scenarios that did not occur in the lookback horizon of the VAR data but are nonetheless possible.

III. A drawback of stress testing is that it is highly subjective.

IV. The inclusion of a large number of scenarios helps management better understand the risk exposure of a portfolio.

 

a)

I and II only

b)

III and IV only

c)

I, II, and III only   

d)

I, II, III, and IV

40.

A large, international bank has a trading book whose size depends on the opportunities perceived by its traders. The market risk manager estimates the one-day VAR, at the 95% confidence level, to be USD 50 million. You are asked to evaluate how good a job the manager is doing in estimating the one-day VAR. Which of the following would be the most convincing evidence that the manager is doing a poor job, assuming that losses are identical and independently distributed (i.i.d.)?

a)

Over the past 250 days, there are eight exceptions

b)

Over the past 250 days, the largest loss is USD 500 million

c)

Over the past 250 days, the mean loss is USD 60 million

d)

Over the past 250 days, there are about 12.5 exceptions

41.

When data is good, it is better to use

a)

 Parametric VaR

 

b)

Historical VaR

c)

None of above

42.

Dynamic VaR is important because it allows

a)

Dynamic hedging

b)

To better follow market movements and their impact on risk

c)

Computing VaR more efficiently

43.

A risk matrix is

a)

A 2D grid that helps us to visualise the severity of any risk

b)

A List of risks and their strategies

c)

A rating of each risk

d)

None

44.

On the digital matrix, likelihood is

a)

how bad/severe the risk is.

b)

how possible it is for the risk to happen.

c)

the effect/consequence of the risk.

d)

when the risk will happen.

45.

Examples of cyber risk include

a)

cybercrime

b)

data breaches/leaks

c)

power outages

d)

All of the above

46.

Risk can be calculated as:

a)

Likelihood x Consequence

b)

Severity x Consequence

c)

Consequence + Likelihood

d)

Uncertainty / Impact

47.

is the successful retrieval of sensitive information by an individual, group, or software system.

a)

Data incident

b)

Data breach

c)

Data attack

d)

Virus

48.

is broadly defined as intentionally accessing a computer without authorization or exceeding authorized access.

a)

Cyberthreat

b)

Data breach

c)

Hacking

d)

Virus

49.

Which is the most important distinction between human traders and algorithmic trading?

a)

Humans are better at interpreting Tweets.

b)

Algorithms can make better predictions and without emotion.

c)

Humans understand human factors better.

d)

Algorithms can act quicker than humans.

50.

Which are core components of all trading algorithms?

a)

Obtaining the data

b)

Evaluating the results

c)

Predicting the trends

d)

Making a trading decision

51.

Which is an investment discipline in which investments (such as stocks) are evaluated based on their intrinsic qualities such as financial (income statement, balance sheet, and cash flow statement) or economic data about the underlying company.

a)

Technical analysis

b)

Fundamental analysis

c)

Vertical analysis

d)

Scenario analysis

52.

A 20-day simple moving average is an example of what?

a)

Technical indicator

b)

Trading signal

c)

Crossover strategy

d)

Backtesting

53.

Which is the process for measuring the overall performance of a trading strategy using historical prices.

a)

Technical indicator

b)

Trading signal

c)

Crossover strategy

d)

Backtesting

54.

Which metric(s) focuses on downside risk?

a)

Cumulative return

b)

Downside deviation

c)

Sharpe Ratio

d)

Sortino Ratio

55.

ISO _____ defines Risk as an effect of uncertainty on objectives.

a)

21000

b)

31000

c)

47000

d)

17000

56.

Risk of intentional misstatement to the financial statements by an amount exceeding the tolerable error arising from misstatement or omission of amounts

a)

Error Risk

b)

Fraud Risk

c)

Information and Information Processing Risk

d)

Information for Decision-Making Risk

57.
Most common types of market risks including:
a)
Interest rate risk, default risk, currency risk, and commodity risk
b)
Interest rate risk, equity risk, currency risk, and commodity risk
c)
Interest rate risk, equity risk, downgrade risk, and commodity risk
d)
Interest rate risk, equity risk, currency risk, and liquidity risk
58.
Which one is the example of operational risk?
a)
borrowers default on a principal or interest payment of a loan.
b)
breach of private data resulting from cybersecurity attacks
c)
changes in equity prices or commodity prices
d)
financial institution cannot meet its short-term debt obligations
59.
CaR is the amount of capital required for a bank to cover in advance potential losses in the coming period, and unlike VaR, it can only be calculated at the individual client level.
a)

True

b)

False

60.
Insurance that protects your family against financial loss due to your death is
a)
coinsurance
b)
disability insurance
c)
life insurance
d)
comprehensive insurance