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APES Semester Exam Review 1-4

Total questions: 65

Worksheet time: 1hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Place the ecology levels of organization in proper order (smallest to largest)

a)

organism > population > community > ecosystem > biosphere

b)

community > organism > ecosystem > biosphere > population

c)

organism > community > biosphere > population > ecosystem

d)

population > biosphere > ecosystem > community > organism

2.

The cattle egret follows herds of cattle and eat the insects that the cattle stir up as they move through the grassland. The cattle appear to be unaffected by the egrets. This is a _____ type of relationship.

a)

Commensalism

b)

Parasitism

c)

Symbiotic

d)

Mutualism

3.

Which best describes the concept of net primary production?

a)

total amount of energy available from the Sun

b)

total amount of cellular respiration conducted within an ecosystem

c)

energy captured minus energy lost

d)

total amount of energy available from the producer

4.

The direction of an arrow in a food chain represents

a)

the flow of energy from organism B to A

b)

the movement of organisms

c)

the directionality of the sun

d)

the flow of energy from organism A to B

5.

What is the process that moves nitrogen from the atmosphere to the organic compound within the cycle?

a)

denitrification

b)

decomposition

c)

nitrogen fixation

d)

photosynthesis

6.

plants lose water to the atmosphere through stomata.

a)

evaporation

b)

condensation

c)

runoff

d)

transpiration

7.

The symbiosis that is beneficial to both organisms involved.

a)

Competition

b)

Mutualism

c)

Predation

d)

Parasitism

8.

Which nitrogen cycle process is occurring when plant roots absorb ammonium ions and nitrate ions for use in making molecules such as DNA, amino acids, and proteins?

a)

nitrogen fixation

b)

nitrification

c)

denitrification

d)

ammonification

e)

assimilation

9.

The sun provides the energy for almost all life on Earth. Approximately how much of the sun's energy captured by producers would move up to the next trophic level?

a)

10%

b)

90%

c)

50%

d)

25%

10.
Which nutrient is not cycled through the atmosphere and stays only on ground level?
a)
carbon
b)
nitrogen
c)
phosphorus
d)
water
11.
What process occurs when coal (fossil fuel) is used for energy?
a)
Decomposition
b)
Combustion
c)
Pressurization 
d)
Respiration 
12.
If there is 1000 Kcal available in the producers in trophic level 1, how much energy is available in the herbivores in trophic level 2?
a)
10 Kcal
b)
1 Kcal
c)
100 Kcal
d)
1000 Kcal
13.

The largest reservoir for nitrogen

a)

ocean

b)

sedimentary rock

c)

atmosphere

d)

soil

14.

Largest reservoir for phosphorus

a)

rock

b)

soil

c)

atmosphere

d)

ocean

15.

Which of the following correctly describes the disruption of an ecosystem service by an anthropogenic activity?

a)

Regulating services are disrupted by flash flooding from a hurricane, which decreases available food resources.

b)

Cultural services are disrupted by a tornado that causes the loss of acres of forest, which reduces the amount of harvestable timber.

c)

Supporting services are disrupted by an earthquake that causes habitat destruction, which displaces plants and animals.

d)

Provisioning services are disrupted by increased combustion of fossil fuels, which leads to an increase in air pollution.

16.

A 163 square-kilometer (km2) small island is found 2,000km from the mainland. A second, larger, 230,000km island is found 1,000km from the mainland. Based on the theory of island biogeography, which of the following statements is most likely true about the small island when compared with the large island?

a)

The small island has more available resources than the large island.

b)

The rate of immigration is lower for the small island than for the large island.

c)

The small island has niches that are more like the mainland than the large island.

d)

The rate of species extinction is lower on the small island than on the large island.

17.

Click the image to enlarge it. Which community has higher biodiversity RICHNESS?

a)

Community 1

b)

Community 2

c)

They are the same

18.

Click the image to enlarge it. Which community has higher biodiversity EVENNESS?

a)

Community 1

b)

Community 2

c)

They are the same

19.

Tourism in Yellowstone National Park would be considered what type of ecosystem service?

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Supporting

d)

Cultural

20.

Obtaining coal from the earth would be considered what type of ecosystem service?

a)

Provisioning

b)

Regulating

c)

Supporting

d)

Cultural

21.

A population's zone of intolerance is...

a)

the range where organisms survive, grow, and reproduce

b)

the range where organisms survive, but experience lack of growth and decreased activity

c)

the range where organisms will die

22.

The Chatham Island robin is a small endangered bird found in scrub forests off the coast of New Zealand. The robin is preyed upon by introduced species such as cats and rats. In 1980, the population decreased to only 5

individuals and every individual today is a descendant of a single female. Which of the following is best illustrated in the decline of the Chatham Island robins?

a)

Carrying capacity

b)

Population bottleneck

c)

Population overshoot

d)

Type I survivorship

23.

What is the difference between primary and secondary succcession?

a)

Primary succession already has soil

b)

Lichen and moss come in for secondary succession

c)

Secondary succession already has soil

d)

Climax community is achieved quickly in primary succession

24.

Which below is TRUE?

a)

Generalist species occupy very narrow niches

b)

Specialist species have a limited diet

c)

Generalist species can't make use of a variety of environmental resources

d)

Specialist species have a broad range of tolerance

25.

What is the definition of biodiversity?

a)

The variety of different species in an area

b)

The number of individuals of a particular species in an area

c)

The variety of different species and the number of individuals within each species

d)

The variety of different species and the number of individuals within each species in an area

26.

Introduced species can become invasive if they;

a)

Produce only a few young after a long period of gestation.

b)

Inhabit only niches that have recently become available after the local extinction of another species.

c)

Can live in many niches, easily adapting to many variables and eating a wide variety of food.

d)

Have a low genetic variability, enabling them to live in a wide variety of habitats.

e)

Increase biodiversity because they attract more species to the areas in which they settle.

27.

What type of organism helps define an entire ecosystem? Without this organism, the ecosystem would be forced to radically change.

a)

endemic species

b)

invasive species

c)

keystone species

d)

native species

28.

Which of the following defines an indicator species?

a)

A species that is at a high risk for extinction

b)

A species whose presence, absence, or abundance reflects a specfic environmental condition

c)

A species not native to a specific area that can harm the ecosystem

d)

A species that is vital to the ecosystem and without this organism, the ecosystem would drastically change.

29.
What is the name given to lichen or algae after a primary succession?
a)
pioneer species
b)
volunteer species
c)
founder species
d)
conqueror species
30.

The area that includes the highest point of the curve of the graph is called

a)

The zone of tolerance

b)

Geographic isolation

c)

Population bottleneck

d)

Founder Effect

e)

Species richness

31.

Which type of survivorship curve represents an r-selected species?

a)

Type I survivorship curve

b)

Type II survivorship curve

c)

Type III survivorship curve

32.

Which type of survivorship curve represents an k-selected species?

a)

Type I survivorship curve

b)

Type II survivorship curve

c)

Type III survivorship curve

33.

Which type of survivorship curve represents animals that have constant mortality?

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

34.

Which type of survivorship curve represents organisms that produce many offspring that mainly die early in life

a)

Type I

b)

Type II

c)

Type III

35.

When a population goes over the carrying capacity this is known as

a)

oscillation

b)

overshoot

c)

dieback

d)

exponential

36.

Populations whose age structure diagrams are narrower at the bottom than at the top have

a)

high death rates

b)

the same proportion of individuals in each age group

c)

a declining population

d)

a high growth rate

e)

all of the above

37.

During what two stages of demographic transition does most of a country's population increase occur?

a)

Stages 1 and 2.

b)

Stages 2 and 3.

c)

Stages 4 and 5.

d)

Stages 1 and 4.

e)

Stages 1 and 5.

38.

Which correctly describes the term demographic transition?

a)

The transition from low birth rates and death rates to high birth rates and death rates as a country develops.

b)

The transition from high birth rates and death rates to low birth rates and death rates as a country develops.

c)

The transition from high birth rates to low death rates as a country develops.

d)

The transition from low birth rates to high death rates as a country develops.

39.
According to the population pyramid of this country, its population is most likely...
a)
growing slowly.
b)
growing rapidly.
c)
decreasing.
d)
not changing.
40.
The human population is currently following roughly a j-shaped curve.  This means that the population is growing
a)

linearly

b)

logistically

c)
at a decreasing rate.
d)
exponentially.
41.
What is the carrying capacity for this sheep population?
a)

1.6 million

b)

1.9 million

c)

1.4 million

d)

1 million

42.
Which of the following is a density-dependent limiting factor?
a)
human activities 
b)
unusual weather
c)
competition
d)
natural disaster
43.

These organisms occupy stable environments, are larger in size and have longer life expectancies. They produce, during their life spans, fewer offspring, but place a greater investment in each.

a)

K-strategist

b)

r-strategist

c)

m-strategist

d)

s-strategist

44.

Which of the following statements about total fertility rate is correct

a)

TFR is equal to the crude birth rate minus the crude death rate.

b)

TFR is the average number of children each woman must have to replace the current population.

c)

TFR is generally higher in developed countries than in developing countries

d)

TFR is equal to the growth rate of a country

e)

TFR is the average number of children each woman will give birth to during her childbearing years.

45.
Which limiting factor is independent of the number of individuals in a population?
a)
competition
b)
parasitism/disease
c)
stress
d)
natural disasters
46.
The lowest crude birth rates (CBRs) are found in countries in which stage of the DTM?
a)
Stage 1
b)
Stage 2
c)
Stage 3
d)
Stage 4
47.
A country with an age distribution like that shown in the figure above, is most likely a country that
a)
Is expecting rapid growth
b)
Is experiencing slow or no population growth
c)
Is experiencing a high death rate
d)
Is a less-developed country
48.

The Coriolis effect is responsible for

a)

the mixing of two Hadley cells

b)

the falling effect of warm air

c)

the cooling effect of air as it rises and expands

d)

the deflection of atmospheric currents

49.

The type of plate boundary where two plates come together is a .....

a)

Convergent Boundary

b)

Divergent Boundary

c)

Transform Boundary

d)

Plate Boundary

50.
Which horizon is made up of partially weathered rocks?
a)
Horizon A
b)
Horizon B
c)
Horizon C
d)
Horizon D or R
51.

A divergent boundary occurs when plates ....

a)

Pull apart

b)

Come together

c)

Slide past each other

d)

subducting

52.
_______ is the type of soil used most often with plants. It is a mixture of clay, sand, and silt.
a)
loam
b)
humus
c)
mud
d)
dirt
53.
Soil sample that is 60% clay, 30% silt, and 10% sand has which texture? 
a)
clay
b)
clay loam
c)
sandy loam
d)
silt 
54.
Which is the correct order of soil horizons starting at the surface?
a)

A, B, C, O

b)

A, B, O, C

c)

A, O, B, C

d)

O, A, B, C

55.
Which soil component has the least capacity for holding water?
a)
silt
b)
clay
c)
sand
d)
humus
56.

What is the correct sequence of layers of the earth's atmosphere from earth's surface to space?

a)

troposphere, stratosphere, mesosphere, thermosphere.

b)

mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere, troposphere.

c)

troposphere, mesosphere, stratosphere, thermosphere.

d)

stratosphere, troposphere, mesosphere, thermosphere.

57.
All of the land that drains into a particular body of water is called a(n):
a)
watershed
b)
bedrock
c)
island
d)
aquifer
58.
The process when rocks break into smaller pieces due to exposure to natural elements is called
a)
erosion
b)
weathering
c)
sediments
59.
Which of the following is the correct order of soil particles in order of increasing particle size?
a)
clay-sand-silt
b)
sand-clay-silt
c)
silt-clay-sand
d)
clay-silt-sand
60.

In which layer of the atmosphere do all the pressure, wind, and precipitation changes occur?

a)

Outer space

b)

stratosphere

c)

troposphere

d)

mesosphere

61.

In which layer of the atmosphere does ozone help block UV radiation from striking the Earth?

a)

troposphere

b)

mesosphere

c)

stratosphere

d)

thermosphere

62.
What is "upwelling"?
a)
when wind near a shore pushes surface water away, nutrient rich cold water rises from the depths
b)
water rises from springs at the bottom of lakes
c)
it is when cold water sinks in the Norwegian Sea
d)
It is when the Coriolis effect makes currents go around in a circle
63.

Sea surface temperature changes great than 0.5oC for greater than 5 months across the central tropical Pacific Ocean are known as

a)

the arctic effect

b)

the get stream

c)

a typhoon

d)

El Nino-Southern Oscillation

64.
Due to the Coriolis Effect, water in the northern hemisphere moves
a)
clockwise
b)
counter clockwise
c)
both
d)
neither
65.
High productivity and nutrient availability in the ocean occurs in the areas with
a)
gyres
b)
upwelling
c)
warm waters
d)
prevailing wersterlies