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Worksheetsagm5
Total questions: 120
Worksheet time: 3600secs
Name
Class
Date
1.
The total amount deposited in a Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme account shall not exceed Rs. in a financial year.
a)
1 lacs
b)
2 Lacs
c)
1.5 Lacs
d)
2.5 lacs
2.
The account shall be operated by the guardian till the account holder attains the age of eighteen years. The account shall be operated by the account holder herself after attaining age of eighteen years by submitting necessary documents.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
3.
In the event of death of the account holder, the Sukanya Samriddhi account shall be closed immediately on application in
a)
Form 1
b)
Form 2
c)
Form 3
d)
Form 4
4.
In Sukanya Samriddhi account, deposits shall be in multiples of Rs. subject to the condition that a minimum of two hundred and fifty rupees shall be made as deposit in a financial year in one account.
a)
10
b)
25
c)
50
d)
100
5.
In a Sukanya Samriddhi account, the interest shall be calculated for the calendar month on the lowest balance in the account between the close of the day and the end of the month.
a)
1st
b)
5th
c)
7th
d)
10th
6.
In a Sukanya Samriddhi account, the Withdrawal request can be made on an application in .
a)
Form 1
b)
Form 2
c)
Form 3
d)
Form 4
7.
In a Sukanya Samriddhi account, withdrawal of upto a maximum of of the amount in the account at the end of the financial year preceding the year of application, can be allowed.
a)
0.25
b)
0.33
c)
0.5
d)
0.75
8.
In a Sukanya Samriddhi account, the closure of the account may be permitted before completion of twenty- one years if the account holder on an application makes a request for such closure for the reason of intended marriage of the account holder.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
9.
The total amount deposited in a Sukanya Samriddhi account shall not exceed Two Lakh Fifty thousand rupees in a financial year.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
10.
A Sukanya Samriddhi account in which minimum _ has not been deposited shall be considered as an account under default.
a)
Rs. 500/-
b)
Rs. 100/-
c)
Rs. 1000/-
d)
Rs. 250/-
11.
Sukanya Samriddhi Yojana Account can be opened by a guardian in the name of a beneficiary Girl child, who has not attained the age of 15 as on the date of opening of the Account.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
12.
What is the theme of World Environment Day 2023?
a)
Plant for the Planet
b)
Don’t desert drylands
c)
Beat plastic pollution
d)
Only One Earth
13.
Who wrote the World Environment Day Anthem?
a)
Abhay Kumar
b)
Aranya Johar
c)
Harnidh Kaur
d)
Pavana Reddy
14.
What is the World Environment Day anthem called?
a)
Environment Anthem
b)
Save Earth Anthem
c)
Earth Anthem
d)
One Earth Anthem
15.
Who started Environment Day?
a)
UN General Assembly
b)
UNEP
c)
UN Security Council
d)
UN Peacekeeping Force
16.
What is the other name of the UN Conference on the Human Environment 1972?
a)
Stockholm conference
b)
Rio Conference
c)
Johannesburg Conference
d)
New York Conference
17.
When was Environment Day observed for the first time?
a)
1996
b)
1976
c)
1972
d)
1992
18.
When is World Environment Day observed?
a)
6th June
b)
3rd June
c)
4th June
d)
5th June
19.
What is the focus of World Environment Day?
a)
Biodiversity awareness
b)
Economic and Environmental awareness
c)
Universal awareness
d)
Raising global awareness
20.
World Environment Day was celebrated for the first time under which slogan?
a)
Only One Future for Our Children
b)
Only One Earth
c)
A Tree for Peace
d)
Gift to the Earth
21.
Which country will host World Environment Day 2023?
a)
Zimbabwe
b)
Denmark
c)
Côte d'Ivoire
d)
Netherlands
22.
Who coined the word ‘ecology’?
a)
Ernst Haeckel
b)
Charles Darwin
c)
Gregory Mendel
d)
Saun Marine
23.
Name the atmospheric layer closest to the ground
a)
Troposphere
b)
Mesosphere
c)
Thermosphere
d)
Stratosphere
24.
The most abundant gas on the earth’s atmosphere is
a)
Oxygen
b)
Carbon
c)
Nitrogen
d)
Hydrogen
25.
The study of weather is called?
a)
meteorology
b)
climatology
c)
aeronomy
d)
aerology
26.
Which one of the following is NOT a primary layer of the atmosphere?
a)
Mesosphere
b)
Troposphere
c)
Exosphere
d)
Stratosphere
27.
Who is known as the father of evolution?
a)
Gregory Mendel
b)
Charles Darwin
c)
Albert Einstein
28.
The region of air close to the earth and extending up to 10km high is called
a)
Atmosphere
b)
Stratosphere
c)
Troposphere
29.
What is the instrument used to detect earthquakes?
a)
Radiometer
b)
Barometer
c)
Seismograph
30.
The Ramsar Convention is an international treaty for the conservation and sustainable use of wetlands.[1] It is also known as the Convention on Wetlands. What does Ramsar stand for?
a)
An environmentalist
b)
A city
c)
An endangered animal
d)
A Greek God
31.
What does UNEP stand for?
a)
United Nations Educational Plan
b)
United Nations Environmental Protection
c)
United Nations Environmental Programme
d)
United Nations Environmental Policy
32.
Which is the longest mountain range in the world?
a)
Karakoram
b)
Rockies
c)
Himalayas
d)
Andes
33.
PVC is a very toxic form of plastic. What is the full form of PVC?
a)
Plastic vinyl compounds
b)
Polymer vinyl chloride
c)
Polyvinyl chloride
d)
Polyvinyl camphor
34.
What is the safe level of noise intensity for humans?
a)
Up to 90 decibels
b)
up to 70 decibels
c)
up to 80 decibels
d)
Up to 60 decibels
35.
Which country is popularly knowns as ‘land of the windmills’?
a)
The Netherlands
b)
Poland
c)
Norway
d)
Japan
36.
Who was the first man to travel in space?
a)
Edwin Aldrin
b)
Neil Armstrong
c)
Yuri Gagarin
d)
Gregory Mendel
37.
The decision affecting employees such as during recruitment, promotions, transfers and trainings are solely based on performance, knowledge and potential and Bank’s business needs.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
38.
Unless one clearly identifies through his belief, feelings and actions with the organization, one cannot be engaged in productive activities all through the work hours of a day and hence can be called .
a)
Un ethical at work
b)
Low on Work Ethic
c)
Burden on the organization
d)
Misfit in the organization
39.
Of the following, which is NOT a cause for unethical behaviour of employees?
a)
Non-
availability of Code of
Ethics Manual
b)
Stringent regulatory requirements
c)
Lack of fear of action
d)
Unrealistic Targets
40.
Which of the following does not form part of Code of Ethics?
a)
Employees’ Commitm ent to the Bank
b)
Core Values
c)
Commitment to Communities
d)
Investment in selling Bank’s stock
41.
Bank’s obligation to customers does not include:
a)
Maintain secrecy of t he account
b)
Honour cheques which fulfil the Bank’s rules
c)
Follow instructions given by the customer
d)
Closing customer account without prior information
42.
Ethical dilemmas in marketing occur when we:
a)
Understand the econ omic and business cy cles
b)
Prepare projections of customer data on sales, revenues, expense
c)
Following due diligence properly
d)
Reject or approve proposals with vested interests
43.
We value all our customers and understand their
and needs and provide the best available solutions.
a)
Past, Future
b)
Previous, Potential
c)
Good, Bad
d)
Current, Potential
44.
A and market benefits us all and ensures that our customers receive the best products and services at the best prices.
a)
Closed, Fair
b)
Free, Fair
c)
Free, Collusive
d)
Liberal, Collusive
45.
We never engage in behavior like collusion among competitors, participation in cartels or inappropriate exchange of information with competitors.
a)
Non-competitive
b)
Anti-competitive
c)
Uncompetitive
d)
None of the above
46.
We are committed to protect the of our customers and are aware of our responsibility to use or process the information of customers with confidentiality unless authorized by law.
a)
Sensitivity of Informa tion
b)
Secret Information
c)
Concealment of Infor mation
d)
Confidentiality of Information
47.
A person aged around 55 years enters the branch and asks one of the front desk employees to share the address of one of our customers, saying that, he is trying to get his daughter married to the said customer. The front desk employee should share the address since he/she finds it is a social responsibility.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
48.
Creating a positive customer experience; responding to any requests/queries and concerns of our customers promptly is our following Core Value.
a)
Courage
b)
Integrity
c)
Customer Centricity
d)
Passionate Ownershi p
49.
We select our suppliers
through processes.
a)
Reference of Higher Officials
b)
Competitive bid
c)
Political reference
d)
Only lowest bid
50.
The Integrity of our financial transactions and records is critical to the operation of our business.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
51.
We adhere to the best disclosure standards with complete and accurate records of our accounts.
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
52.
We deal with intermediaries in a transparent manner and are committed to and payment terms with them in return for the quality of outsourced services they provide to us.
a)
Unclear guidelines
b)
Fair contract
c)
Receivables
d)
Unfair practices
53.
A senior citizen customer enters the branch and as a front desk employee, you are disrespectful, having indifferent attitude, using improper body language and not maintaining eye contact with the customer. These are some of the non- conforming behaviours of the Core
Value .
a)
Integrity
b)
Passionate Ownershi p
c)
Customer Centricity
d)
Excellence
54.
A bidding process for outsourcing of hospitality services is in progress, one of the vendors is a friend of an employee. He is trying to get the information, so that his bid will be successful. What should the employee do in this case?
a)
Help his friend
b)
Advise to come through proper bidding channel
c)
Ignore
d)
Advise to meet the off icer in-
charge of the bidding process
55.
Which of the following is not a Conforming Behaviour of our core value “Innovation”:
a)
Adopting new perspe ctives, being curious, and open to novel ide as
b)
Encouraging self and others to demonstrate “Out of t he Box” thinking in or der to stimulate inno vation
c)
Hesitating to share new ideas and share own perspective with superiors or appropriate authorities
d)
Actively and continuo usly seeking solution s which add value
56.
We treat all our customers fairly and do not on any basis be it caste, creed, race, disability, religion, gender, age, financial background or profession.
a)
Participate
b)
Discriminate
c)
Advocate
d)
Contribute
57.
Which of these is not a form of anti-competitive behaviour?
a)
Collusion among com petitors
b)
Participation in cartel s
c)
Free and Fair Market
d)
Inappropriate exchan ge of information wit h competitors
58.
Not following proper objective business standards when we are in a position to approve orders, commitments or contracts to vendors can lead to following,
except .
a)
Actual or Perceived F avouritism
b)
Actual or Potential Co nflict of Interest
c)
Lack of trust and conf idence
d)
Improved Vendor Relations
59.
Which one of the following does not help build Shareholders’ trust?
a)
Confidence in accurat e recording of our fin ancial transactions
b)
Best disclosure standards
c)
Limited compliance of regulations in records, disclosures and audits
d)
Complete and accurat e records of accounts
60.
Which of the following policies are not relevant to the way we deal ethically with our customers?
a)
Code of Bank’s Comm itment to Customers
b)
Customer Protection Policy
c)
CSR Policy
d)
Grievance Redressal Policy
61.
Which of the following is not an aspect of serving our customers in the context of “Our Code of Ethics”?
a)
Treating customers fa irly and not discrimin ating on any basis
b)
Not mis-selling of products/services
c)
Understanding curre nt and potential need s of customers
d)
Not making donations to Political Parties
62.
We deliver customer service with an aim to resolve any real or potential problems by adhering to:
a)
Honesty
b)
Responsiveness
c)
Transparency
d)
All of the above
63.
What is the purpose of the Code of Ethics?
a)
To provide guidelines for ethical conduct only
b)
To set out a guiding framework for how to behave with colleagues and others
c)
To provide clear understanding of service rules and contract terms
d)
To take disciplinary action against employees who breach the Code
64.
Who is expected to comply with the Code of Ethics?
a)
Only employees of Bank of Baroda
b)
Only customers of Bank of Baroda
c)
Employees, customers, suppliers, vendors, partners, agents, and others acting on behalf of Bank of Baroda
d)
Only those communities within which Bank of Baroda operates
65.
What is the consequence of breaching the Code?
a)
Warning letter will be issued
b)
Termination of contractual relationship with customers
c)
Corrective or disciplinary action in terms of service rules and guidelines
d)
No consequence will be faced
66.
Bank has launched its presence in Social Media in the year
a)
2016-01-01 00:00:00
b)
2015-01-01 00:00:00
c)
2017-01-01 00:00:00
d)
2018-01-01 00:00:00
67.
What is the purpose of social Media Policy of our Bank
a)
Do’s and Don’ts of Social Media for Employees, consultants, contractors, trainees, part time and fixed time employees and agency staff
b)
To update and caution the employees about the consequences of violating the Bank’s social media policy.
c)
Regulations, Legal and compliance involved in implementing social media.
d)
Provide guidelines for information security
e)
All of the above
68.
Bank’s Social Media presence has been launched on
a)
Facebook, Twitter
b)
Youtube
c)
Instagram
d)
Linkedin
e)
All of the above
69.
No employee should without taking approval from the competent authority) as defined in the communication policy of the Bank) express views or opinions on behalf of the Bank or in the official of his position in the Bank.
a)
TRUE
b)
FASLE
70.
Using social media at work during office our is permitted
a)
Yes
b)
No
c)
Minimal
d)
None of the above
71.
Breach of Policy is forwarded to the for the employee for appropriate action.
a)
Regional Head
b)
Disciplinary Authority
c)
DRM
d)
None of the above
72.
Which department is responsible for reviewing the policy
a)
Social Media
b)
Marketing
c)
Wealth
d)
None of the above
73.
The Social Media policy shall be in force
a)
2024-09-30 00:00:00
b)
2023-12-31 00:00:00
c)
2023-03-31 00:00:00
d)
None of the above
74.
Bank's e-mail addresses or other online tools should be avoided for use.
a)
Monetary
b)
Official
c)
Personal
d)
All of the above
75.
Which of the following can be considered to be a necessary piece of information in order to avoid a Social Media Policy Breach?
a)
Circulars, policies and internal/confidential information of the bank are only meant for internal circulation
b)
Disclosure of the internal documents on social media platforms, harms the bank's competitive position
c)
Ignorance of the policy also can not be allowed as an excuse to breach the social media policy
d)
All of the above
76.
State TRUE or FALSE : Always be aware of the bank's service conditions, statutory and regulatory guidelines, business ethics etc. before randomly commenting on any issue.
a)
TRUE
b)
FASLE
77.
Which of the following are the objectives of the Team Barodians community page ?
a)
General form for people to chat
b)
Discuss ideas help and inputs on specific business issues that they are grappling with etc
c)
Sharing articles of the interest and value which are beneficial to the members of the group
d)
all of the above
78.
Teammates and co workers should communicate and interact with each other gracefully without crossing the line of basic
.
a)
knowledge
b)
etiquettes
c)
information
d)
None of the above
79.
State TRUE or FALSE : Employees and associates are encouraged to RT (Retweet), Share (on Facebook, LinkedIn etc.), any brand posts made by the Bank. This improves our brand visibility and helps the image.
a)
TRUE
b)
FASLE
80.
State TRUE or FALSE : If an employee has any grievances, it may be raised via social media channels.
a)
TRUE
b)
FASLE
81.
Which of the following is a in-appropriate behavior?
a)
(A) Employees should avoid clicking on links in posts, updates and links which look suspicious.
b)
(B) Posting, uploading or forwarding any kind of material that is false or defamatory statement about any person or Bank.
c)
(C) Posting, uploading or forwarding any kind of confidential information about customers, staff members or the Bank.
d)
(B) and (C) both
82.
Which committee approves the Global Credit Exposure Management Policy and set all the major credit risk appetite and monitoring limits ?
a)
Risk Management Committee of the Board
b)
Credit Policy Committee
c)
Product & Process Approval Committee
d)
Credit Committee of the Board
e)
Management Committee of the Board
83.
Which committee provides support and advice to the Board in all matters relating to credit risk exposure management, including the formulation of the Policy and its periodic review?
a)
Risk Management Committee of the Board
b)
Credit Policy Committee
c)
Product & Process Approval Committee
d)
Credit Committee of the Board
e)
Management Committee of the Board
84.
Which committee is responsible for formulating credit policies and procedures on standards for credit proposals, financial covenants, rating thresholds and risk-adjusted return benchmarks ?
a)
Credit Policy Committee
b)
Risk Management Committee of the Board
c)
Product & Process Approval Committee
d)
Credit Committee of the Board
e)
Management Committee of the Board
85.
Which committee approves review charges, concessions in any service charges, interest rate at product level, scheme level, segment/ group of customers for various kinds of loans and advance ?
a)
Credit Policy Committee
b)
Risk Management Committee of the Board
c)
Product & Process Approval Committee
d)
Credit Committee of the Board
e)
Management Committee of the Board
86.
Which committee is constituted by the Board for approval of all new products, processes and / or modifications of the existing products, including credit-related products schemes and processes ?
a)
Product & Process Approval Committee
b)
Risk Management Committee of the Board
c)
Credit Policy Committee
d)
Credit Committee of the Board
e)
Management Committee of the Board
87.
Which of the following type of proposals will be routed through Credit Risk Evaluation Process ?
a)
Loans / Overdrafts against the Bank’s own deposits/ fully secured by cash margin/financial collateral recognised under Basel guidelines
b)
Write off/Compromise proposals, NPA and Restructured Accounts (including where incremental exposure is proposed in form of FITL and no other additional exposure is proposed)
c)
Proposal/s which is/are fully guaranteed by Central Govt
d)
Loans and advances to Foreign Sovereign/ Domestic Sovereign
e)
Decline in rating by two notches in BOB- 1 rated accounts & one notch in BOB-2 & below rated accounts, with exposure of Rs. 5 crore and above at the time of review (Review / review with decrease)
88.
Which of the following type of exposures is not required to be routed through Credit Risk Evaluation Process ?
a)
Fresh exposure of Rs 5 crore & above to a single counterparty
b)
Increase / additional exposure to a single counterparty by any amount leading to the aggregate exposure to that counterparty reaching Rs 5 crore & above
c)
Decline in rating by two notches in BOB- 1 rated accounts & one notch in BOB-2 & below rated accounts, with exposure of Rs. 5 crore and above at the time of review (Review / review with decrease)
d)
In case of Modification proposals of Rs 5 crs and above, wherein modification pertains to dilution in tangible security coverage and/or extension of timelines for security creation/perfection
e)
Write off/Compromise proposals, NPA and Restructured Accounts (including where incremental exposure is proposed in form of FITL and no other additional exposure is proposed)
89.
Who among the following is classified as C&IC Customer ?
a)
An Entity with the Gross Annal Turnover of above Rs 250 Crores as per the last audited balance sheet
b)
An Entity with the Gross Annal Turnover of above Rs 50 Crores as per the last audited balance sheet
c)
An Entity with the Gross Annal Turnover of above Rs 200 Crores as per the last audited balance sheet
d)
An Entity with the Gross Annal Turnover of above Rs 100 Crores as per the last audited balance sheet
e)
An Entity with the Gross Annal Turnover of above Rs 150 Crores as per the last audited balance sheet
90.
The specific product programme along with the product launching process is required to be approved by
a)
Product & Process Approval Committee
b)
Credit Approval Committee
c)
Risk Management Committee
d)
Credit Policy Committee
e)
Product Design Committee
91.
Which of the following qualifications/certifications makes an officer eligible to be engaged in appraisal, inspection, documentation and post-disbursement supervision and monitoring ?
a)
FRM
b)
Certification in Small Business Banking and Commercial Credit from Moody’s Analytics
c)
MBA with any specialization
d)
BA Economics
e)
BSc (Ag) Hons.
92.
For Negative Outlook sectors, exposure should be limited to the borrowers with external rating of and above for C&IC, Rural & Agriculture Banking business
a)
A
b)
AA
c)
AAA
d)
BBB
e)
BB
93.
For Negative Outlook sectors, exposure should be limited to the external rating of and above for Regulatory and Non-Regulatory Borrowers having exposure above Rs 50 Crores from the banking system
a)
A
b)
AA
c)
AAA
d)
BB
e)
BBB
94.
Which of the following are exempted from the minimum rating threshold of negative outlook sectors ?
a)
Rural & Agriculture borrowers with exposures of upto Rs. 50 crore (from banking industry)
b)
Regulatory and Non- regulatory MSME borrowers with exposures of upto Rs. 50 crore from banking industry
c)
Food & agro processing units irrespective of quantum qualifying for priority sector classification
d)
None of the above
e)
All the above
95.
What is RAROC ?
a)
Risk Adjusted Return on Capital
b)
Risk Adjusted Rate on Capital
c)
Risk Adjusted Return on Credit
d)
Risk Adjusted Rate on Credit
e)
Risk Allocation on Capital
96.
What is the hurdle rate of RAROC ?
a)
Rate Calculated as per IRR
b)
Rate Calculated as per MIRR
c)
Rate Calculated as per CAPM
d)
Rate Calculated as per MCLR
e)
Rate calculated as per Liability cost
97.
RAROC has to be computed as per the guidelines for all eligible exposures and the same has to be compared with
a)
Cost of Equity
b)
Cost of Credit
c)
Operating Cost
d)
Administrative Cost
e)
Cost of AT1 Bonds
98.
Which policy provides the detailed guidelines with regard to job roles, responsibilities and operational procedure applicable to CPC, SMS & Branches ?
a)
Policy Document on Centralization of Retail Credit Process
b)
Policy Document on Retail Business
c)
Policy Document on Mortgage Loans
d)
Retail Loan Policy
e)
Policy on non- corporate credit
99.
Which of the following is/are the major function/s of International Merchant Banking Cell ?
a)
Advisory services on cross- border funding options
b)
Marketing of services and products of overseas branches to Indian corporates
c)
Submission of bids for arranging/ underwriting Syndicated Loans
d)
Liaison with Indian corporates to develop the business
e)
All the above
100.
Unsecured credit facilities (excluding schematic lending) should be granted only to customers whose financials are beyond question and who have a risk rating of not lower than for domestic operations
a)
CR4
b)
BOB4
c)
CMR4
d)
FR3
e)
CRISIL4
101.
Unsecured credit facilities (excluding schematic lending) should be granted only to customers whose financials are beyond question and who have a risk rating of not lower than for overseas operations
a)
BOB5
b)
BOB4
c)
BOB3
d)
BOB2
e)
BOB1
102.
Unsecured Loans (excluding Syndicated Loans) are to be considered in respect of those customers maintaining satisfactorily conducted transactional accounts with the Bank for at least
months
a)
9
b)
12
c)
6
d)
18
e)
3
103.
As per the Companies Act 2013, What is the definition for Promoter ?
a)
(A) who has been named as such in a prospectus or is identified by the company in the annual return referred to in section 92
b)
(B) who has control over the affairs of the company, directly or indirectly whether as a shareholder, director or otherwise
c)
(C) in accordance with whose advice, directions or instructions the Board of Directors of the company is accustomed to act
d)
Either (A) or (B)
e)
Either (A), (B) or (C)
104.
Large Exposure (LE) is defined as the sum of all exposure values of the Bank to a counterparty or a group of connected counterparties if it is equal to or above
of the Bank’s Eligible Capital Base
a)
0.1
b)
0.075
c)
0.05
d)
0.125
e)
0.02
105.
Eligible Capital Base (ECB) for Large Exposure purpose is the effective amount of capital as per Basel III as per the last audited balance sheet
a)
Tier 1
b)
Tier 2
c)
Tier 1 + Tier 2
d)
Either Tier 1 or Tier 2
e)
Tier1+Tier2 - AT1 Bonds
106.
Which exposures are exempted from the Large Exposure limits ?
a)
Exposures to State Government Guaranteed Borrowers
b)
Exposures where interest portion is fully guaranteed by the Government of India
c)
Rural Infrastructure Development Fund (RIDF) deposits placed with NABARD
d)
Exposures on Blue Chip companies
e)
Exposures backed by Commercial Bank's guarantee
107.
As per Global Credit Exposure Management Policy 2021, What is the maximum aggregate exposure (FB+NFB), that can be sanctioned to Individual/Proprietor as Borrower?
a)
Rs 5 Crore
b)
Rs 10 Crore
c)
Rs 15 Crore
d)
Rs 20 Crore
e)
Rs 25 Crore
108.
As per Global Credit Exposure Management Policy 2021, What is the maximum aggregate exposure (FB+NFB), that can be sanctioned to Registered Partnership Firms/Trusts/ Associations as Borrower?
a)
Rs 100 Crores
b)
Rs 50 Crores
c)
Rs 25 Crores
d)
Rs 200 Crores
e)
Rs 250 Crores
109.
Which of the following constitutions should be accepted as borrower in respect of funded as well as non-funded credit facilities or guarantor ?
a)
HUF
b)
Trusts
c)
Associations
d)
LLPs
e)
None of the above
110.
Intergirty is one of the core valure adopted by the bank and the desired conduct/behoviour required to conform it to stake holders is/are:
a)
Be ethical
b)
Be transparent
c)
Challenge unethical or dishonest conduct
d)
All of these
111.
The Whistle Blower Policy Guidelines for employees and Directors in BOB is prepared by Department?
a)
HRM Department
b)
Operations & Services,HO
c)
Fraud Risk Management
d)
Digital Banking
112.
What are the objectives of Whistle Blower Policy :
a)
To build and promote robust whistle blowing mechansim
b)
To ensure adequate safeguards to whistle blowers againsts risk of victimaization
c)
To empower and encourage employees and Directors to report genuine complaint/Disclosures
d)
All of these
113.
Following complaints /disclosures shall be covered under Whistle Blower Policy except:
a)
Corruption
b)
Misuse of Office for illegal purpose
c)
Suspected or actual Fraud
d)
Employment related concerns .i.e Salary,Leave,LTC
114.
Who is the Designated Authority at present to receive complaints/disclosures under the "Internal whistle blower policy for employees and Directors in BOB ?
a)
Chief Compliance Officer
b)
Chief Learning Officer
c)
Chief Risk Officer
d)
Chief Vigilacne Officer
115.
Whi is Chief Designated officer(DO) under Whsitle Blower Policy?
a)
The officer Authorized by the designated authority form the Risk Management Dept not below the rank of AGM to assist the Deginated Authority
b)
The officer Authorized by the designated authority form the Risk Management Dept not below the rank of Chief Manager to assist the Deginated Authority
c)
The officer Authorized by the designated authority form the Risk Management Dept not below the rank of DGM to assist the Deginated Authority
d)
The officer Authorized by the designated authority form the Risk Management Dept not below the rank of Senior Manager to assist the Deginated Authority
116.
Complaints/Disclosures under Internal Whistle Blower policy for employees and Directors against Board Level Executives and the designated Authority may be addressed to :
a)
Chairperson,Audit Committee of the Baord
b)
CVO of the bank
c)
CGM Hrm
d)
CVO at Central Govt.
117.
Anonymous complaints /disclosures are also acceptable under whistle blower policy?
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
118.
The complaint under Whistle Blower Mechanism must be sent in a sealed envelope superscribed as "Complaint under Internal Whistle Blower Policy for employess and Directors" and also the complainant has to disclose his/her identity at the envelope. Is it true?
a)
TRUE
b)
FALSE
119.
The complaint /disclosure should be in the prescribed format in Annexure 2.
The covering letter (Part A) is for
………………………
a)
Disclosing the identity of the complainant like Name, EC No, Place of Posting
,address ,mob no and e mail id
b)
Disclosing the identity against whom the complaint is being made
c)
It is left Blank
d)
Only Part B of Annexure is filled
120.
If the identity of the whistle blower is not ascertained, the designated authority …………..
a)
is bound to get the matter investigated
b)
Has discretion to investigate or not
c)
May not take any action
d)
may refer the matter to ACB
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