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Forensic Midterm

Total questions: 67

Worksheet time: 1hrs 15mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Define observational skills

a)

To see something.

b)

The ability to use your senses to recognize, analyze and recall your surroundings.

c)

Recalling a story from your imagination.

d)

Bring present in the moment.

2.

What senses do you use for observational skills?

a)

sight

b)

hearing

c)

smell

d)

All of the above

3.

Why are observational skill important?

a)

To see how many things you can remember.

b)

To make fun of people doing the wrong thing.

c)

To be able to provide clear details to someone on your network.

d)

To protect yourself and others.

4.

identify the evidence

a)

document

b)

look for

c)

find

d)

interpret

5.

record the evidence

a)

find

b)

document

c)

interpret

d)

look for

6.

accurately determine the significance of the evidence

a)

find

b)

document

c)

interpret

d)

look for

7.

Investigators must discriminate between ________ and __________

a)

good /bad

b)

black/white

c)

fact/opinion

d)

dead/alive

8.

A forensic scientist is called to a court of law to provide

a)

fact

b)

opinion

c)

judgement

d)

reflection

9.

The Innocence Project found that most faulty convictions were based on

a)

out of date investigation equpment

b)

poor DNA sampling

c)

inaccurate eyewitness accounts

d)

officers not thoroughly observing a crime scene

10.

Good observation skills come naturally to investigators. They do not need to be trained.

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Not sure

11.

What does Locard's exchange principle state?

a)

Every crime will be solved

b)

Every contact leaves trace evidence

c)

All physical evidence provides information

d)

Crimes cannot be solved without physical evidence

12.

What type of evidence cannot prove 100% that a person was at the crime scene during the crime?

a)

Direct

b)

Circumstantial

13.

What type of evidence would a fingerprint be considered?

a)

Physical

b)

Biological

14.

True or False: Blood would be considered both biological and class evidence

a)

True

b)

False

15.

True or False: Individual evidence would be more beneficial to an investigation than class evidence

a)

True

b)

False

16.

Eyewitness testimony would be considered:

a)

Direct evidence

b)

Circumstantial evidence

17.

A shoe print (if unique) would be considered both:

a)

Physical

b)

Biological

c)

Class

d)

Individual

18.

When arriving to a crime scene the officer has a duty to ensure the scene is safe and

a)

secured

b)

scanned

c)

photographed

d)

sketched

19.

In order for an officer to figure out what actually happened, it is common practice to

a)

speak with the witnesses in a group setting

b)

speak with the witnesses individually

c)

only speak with the witnesses who have pertinent information

20.

What are the three stages of the hair growth cycle?

a)

anagen, catagen, and telogen

b)

thinning, balding, and receding

c)

follicle, shaft, and root

d)

growth, rest, and shedding

21.

What are the main characteristics that forensic scientists look for during microscopic hair analysis?

a)

Weight, volume, porosity, and elasticity.

b)

Transparency, flexibility, strength, and shine.

c)

Color, length, diameter, medullary index, and scale pattern

d)

Texture, thickness, curliness, and cuticle type.

22.

Cuticle Pattern

a)

Imbricate

b)

Coronal

c)

Spinous

23.

Cuticle Pattern

a)

Imbricate

b)

Coronal

c)

Spinous

24.

Cuticle Pattern

a)

Imbricate

b)

Coronal

c)

Spinous

25.

The _____________________ is a dark row of proteins that runs along the center of a hair shaft.

a)

Cuticle

b)

Cortex

c)

Follicle

d)

Medulla

26.

This part of the hair is the clear, outside covering of the hair shaft.

a)

Cuticle

b)

Cortex

c)

Follicle

d)

Medulla

27.

Hairs forcefully ripped out during the anagen stage may contain follicle cells attached to them.

a)

True

b)

False

28.

What type of medulla does this hair have?

a)

Continuous

b)

Fragmented

c)

Absent

d)

Lattice

29.
The medullary index of a hair is 0.29.  Human or non-human?
a)
human
b)
non-human
c)
cannot be determined
30.

What is the importance of placing a suspect at the scene of a crime in criminal investigations?

a)

To create confusion in the investigation

b)

To link the suspect to the crime

c)

To provide evidence for the suspect's innocence

d)

To establish the suspect's alibi

31.

What are the two main categories of textile fibers?

a)

Synthetic and natural

b)

Animal and vegetable

c)

Wool and cotton

d)

Man-made and regenerated

32.

Which of the following is a natural fiber of animal origin?

a)

Flax

b)

Linen

c)

Cotton

d)

Wool

33.

Which of the following are ways to collect fiber evidence?

a)

vacuuming

b)

adhesive tape

c)

dusting

d)

forceps

e)

burning

34.

Fibers are an excellent source of trace evidence because

a)

They are easily transferred from victim to suspect.

b)

They are often overlooked by a suspect.

c)

They can be easily collected and stored.

d)

All of the above.

35.

In DNA, the nitrogenous base Adenine will always bond with

a)

Cytosine

b)

Adenine

c)

Thymine

d)

Guanine

36.

DNA can be collected from all of the following except

a)

Skin

b)

Blood

c)

Hair with Follicle

d)

Hair without Follicle

37.

What process is used to separate fragments of DNA?

a)

Restriction mapping

b)

Polymerase chain reaction

c)

Sanger sequencing

d)

Gel electrophoresis

38.

What size DNA fragments travel through the gel the fastest?

a)

Larger fragments

b)

Smaller fragments

c)

Medium-sized fragments

39.

According to the dna evidence, which suspect left DNA at the crime scene?

a)

suspect 1

b)

suspect 2

c)

suspect 3

d)

none of the suspects

40.

The FBI database that stores DNA profiles

a)

CODIS

b)

AFIS

c)

STRATUS

d)

FEDDNA

41.

DNA is ______ evidence.

a)

class

b)

individual

c)

transient

d)

conditional

42.

What does PCR mean?

a)

polymerase chain restoration

b)

polymerase chain reaction

c)

polymerase copying reactions

d)

polymerase copied repeats

43.

Which of the following can be determined by blood spatter pattern analysis?

a)

Direction of origin

b)

Angle of origin

c)

Area of origin

d)

General velocity

e)

All of the above

44.

True or false: A blood spatter analyst can determine if a sample of blood spatter is caused by sharp force trauma, blunt force trauma, or a gunshot wound.

a)

True

b)

false

45.

What is the difference between passive and active blood stains?

a)

Active are drops that fell from a stationary (not moving) source and passive fell from a moving source

b)

Passive are drops that fell from a stationary (not moving) source and active fell from a moving source

46.
What blood spatter pattern is seen in the picture?
a)
Transfer/Contact
b)
Swipe
c)
Wipe
d)
Saturation
47.
What type of blood spatter is typically created from a gunshot?
a)
Medium Velocity
b)
High Velocity
c)
Cast-Off
d)
Void
48.
What pattern of blood spatter is this?
a)
arterial gushes
b)
splash
c)
smear
d)
pool
49.
What would cause medium velocity blood spatter?
a)
Baseball bat
b)
Human hand
c)
Hand grenade
d)
Gunshot
50.
What bloodstain pattern is created when blood is released or thrown from a blood-bearing object?
a)
Cast-Off
b)
Walking Drip
c)
Medium Velocity
d)
Void
51.
What type of spatter creates the largest blood droplets?
a)
Low velocity impact
b)
Medium velocity impact
c)
High velocity impact
52.
What type of blood-spatter creates the smallest blood drops?
a)
Low velocity impact
b)
Medium velocity impact
c)
High velocity impact
53.
What blood stain pattern is created or formed by the force of gravity acting alone?
a)
Passive Drop
b)
Low Velocity Impact Spatter
c)
Flow Pattern
d)
Drip Pattern
54.

As the angle of impact gets smaller, what happens to the tail?

a)

Gets longer

b)

Gets shorter

c)

Stays the same

55.

Blood pumping from a severed artery would leave

a)

Passive blood spatter

b)

Projected blood spatter

c)

Transfer blood spatter

56.

Blood dripping off a weapon would be considered

a)

Passive blood spatter

b)

Projected blood spatter

c)

Transfer blood

57.
Based upon this picture, what test was done to determine whether or not a stain was blood (the picture shows a positive and negative test). 
a)
Kastle-Meyer presumptive blood test
b)
Leukomalachite green presumptive blood test
c)
Luminol presumptive blood test
58.
What is the original drop of blood that casts or gives off a satellite or wave called?
a)
Parent Drop
b)
Void
c)
Satellite drop
d)
Spine
59.
Small secondary droplets around the main blood spatter drop are called:
a)
Spikes
b)
Splats
c)
Satellites
d)
Gushes
60.

The clotting factors that are carried in the plasma.

a)

red blood cells

b)

white blood cells

c)

platelets

d)

plasma

61.

This yellowish liquid portion of the blood that contains electrolytes, nutrients and vitamins, hormones clotting factors, and proteins such as as antibodies to fight infection.

a)

agglutinogens

b)

white blood cells

c)

red blood cells

d)

plasma

62.

They most abundant cells in our blood.

a)

red blood cells

b)

white blood cells

c)

antibodies

d)

agglutinogens

63.

They are part of the immune systems and destroy infectious agents called pathogens.

a)

thrombocytes

b)

erythrocytes

c)

white blood cells

d)

RNA

64.
Antibodies binding to antigens on RBCs causes a clumping known as __________
a)
agglutination
b)
coagulation
c)
clotting cascade
d)
hemolysis
65.
What blood type can receive blood from both Type B and Type AB donors?
a)
Type AB
b)
Type B
c)
Type A
d)
Type O
66.
What part of blood is responsible for carrying oxygen and carbon dioxide to body cells?
a)
Red Blood Cells
b)
White Blood Cells
c)
Platelets
d)
Plasma
67.
What part of blood is responsible for fighting infections?
a)
Red Blood Cells
b)
White Blood Cells
c)
Platelets
d)
Plasma