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Economic District Final Study Guide

Total questions: 157

Worksheet time: 4hrs 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

When you make a choice, the next best option that you did not choose is called...

a)

a Trade-off

b)

a Opportunity cost

c)

a lost opportunity

d)

a rejected option

2.

What should be the most important factor considered when you make a decision?

a)

the Trade-offs

b)

the Opportunity cost

c)

the lost opportunities

d)

the opinions of others

3.

Because of scarcity, people are forced to make _________ in about how to use resources.

a)

Choices

b)

Opportunities

c)

time

d)

investments

4.

A trade-off is

a)

a purchase in a marketplace.

b)

an alternative that we sacrifice when we make a decision.

c)

any good or service a consumer needs.

d)

a factor of production.

5.

Which one of these definitions best describe Opportunity Costs?

a)

The cost of making one decision over another.

b)

The cost for the opportunity to buy anything you want.

c)

The opportunity to improve ones social status.

d)

The time it will take to earn the income to purchase a good.

6.

The number one thing that is given up in order to do something else is referred to as the _________.

a)

law of supply

b)

law of scarcity

c)

opportunity cost

d)

equilibrium price

7.

"Opportunity cost" is related to the basic economic concept known as ___.

a)

demand

b)

price

c)

scarcity

d)

supply

8.

If you could either study for an economics test, go to dinner with friends, or play basketball tonight, but you decided that good grades were more important than basketball (though you REALLY wanted to play ball), what would be your opportunity cost?

a)

playing basketball

b)

studying for a test

c)

dinner with friends

9.

Which of the following represents a marginal cost?

a)

mortgage payments

b)

the sum of fixed costs and

variable costs

c)

wages and raw materials

d)

the cost of producing one additional unit

10.

According to rational economic decision making, we should accept an option when

a)

the costs outweigh the

benefits

b)

the benefits outweigh

the costs

c)

there are no costs

d)

there are no benefits

11.

What does a cost-benefit analysis compare?

a)

marginal costs and marginal benefits

b)

marginal costs and total costs

c)

total costs and total revenue

d)

total revenue and marginal benefits

12.

If the fixed cost of producing dresses are $1,000.00 and the variable costs are $500.00, then the total cost is

a)

$2.00

b)

$10.00

c)

$1,500.00

d)

$4,500.00

13.

The loss of years of income resulting from the decision to go to college is the

a)

marginal cost

b)

variable cost

c)

opportunity cost

d)

total cost

14.

a society’s way of coordinating the production and consumption of goods and services

a)

Human capital

b)

Mixed economy

c)

Command economy

d)

Economic System

15.

an economic system in which decisions about production and consumption are based on custom and tradition

a)

Socialist economy

b)

Traditional Economy

c)

Command economy

d)

Mixed economy

16.

an economic system in which decisions about production and consumption are made by a powerful ruler or government

a)

Mixed economy

b)

Free Market Economy

c)

Command economy

d)

Democratic economy

17.

an economic system in which economic decisions are left up to individual producers and consumers

a)

Market economy

b)

Command economy

c)

Mixed economy

d)

Monopolistic economy

18.

income earned when an individual sells or rents a factor of production that he or she owns

a)

Flow capital

b)

Factor payment

c)

Human Capital

d)

Credit payment

19.

an economic system in which both the government and individuals play important roles in production and consumption

a)

Mixed society

b)

Democratic society

c)

Mixed economy

d)

Command economy

20.

in nations that value economic freedom and efficiency you will find

a)

Free Market Enterprise

b)

Traditional economies

c)

Mixed economies

d)

Social free markets

21.

Businesses provide government with...

a)

taxes

b)

sales

c)

private goods & services

d)

interest

22.

In terms of resources, what do households provide for businesses?

a)

loans

b)

savings

c)

labor

d)

private goods

23.

What are the four main parts of the circular flow diagram?

a)

Product Market, Stock Market, Factor Market, Fish Market

b)

Product Market, House Market, Factor Market, Good Market

c)

Factor Market, Product Market, Households, Businesses

d)

Factor Market, households, Stock Market, super market

24.

Where are factors of production (land, labor, etc) exchanged in the circular flow model?

a)

Resource Market

b)

Product Market

c)

Firms

d)

Individuals

25.

Where do factors of production (land, labor, etc) come from in the circular flow model?

a)

Factor Market

b)

Product Market

c)

Firms

d)

Individuals

26.

Someone buys a car in exchange for a large amount of money. They have completed an exchange in which part of the circuclar flow model?

a)

Product Market

b)

Factor Market

c)

Firms

d)

Individuals

27.

Money exchanged between an individual and a store for a good or service.

a)

Revenue

b)

Wages

c)

Rent

d)

Donation

28.
If a ruler takes over by force, which type of government is it?
a)
democracy
b)
dictatorship
c)
monarchy
d)
theocracy
29.
A type of government where a small group of people control the government. Citizens have few rights.
a)
Autocracy
b)
Democracy
c)
Oligarchy
d)
Absolute Monarchy
30.
An economic system in which the state controls all property and capital, while claiming that all goods are equally shared by the people leading to equal social and economic status is called
a)
Socialism
b)
Democracy
c)
Communism
d)
Anarchy
31.
An economic system in which the means of planning, producing and distributing goods is controlled by a central government that theoretically seeks a more just and equitable distribution of property and labor is called:
a)
Socialism
b)
Communism
c)
Democracy
d)
Monarchy
32.
A government based on the rule of a single person who is normally chosen by hereditary succession to rule for life.
a)
Tyranny
b)
Monarchy
c)
Aristocracy
d)
Oligarchy
33.
Authority is based on the will of the people; they either vote on issues directly or elect representatives. 
a)
Totalitarian 
b)
Democracy 
c)
Monarchy 
d)
Dictatorship 
34.
What is an economic system where only the government makes the economic decisions? 
a)
traditional economy
b)
free enterprise 
c)
mixed economy
d)
command economy
35.
What type of economic system allows government and private businesses to make economic decisions?
a)
Market
b)
Mixed
c)
Traditional
d)
command
36.

A type of savings that signifies that you own a part of a corporation and a claim to their assets and earnings.

a)

Stock

b)

Share

c)

Dividend

d)

none is correct

37.

A part into which a companies capital is divided, entitling the shareholder to a portion of the profits.

a)

Dividend

b)

Bond

c)

Share

d)

Stock

38.

The owner of a companies shares.

a)

Businessman

b)

Bond master

c)

Broker

d)

Shareholder

39.

An amount of money paid by a company regularly to it's shareholders

a)

Profit

b)

Bonds

c)

Dividends

d)

Cash back

40.

An investment program funded by shareholders that trades in diversified

a)

Mutual Funds

b)

Dividends

c)

Share program

d)

None of the answers

41.

Buying and Selling Stocks


Randy just bought 800 shares of stock in Facebook at $19.50 per share. A stock company that you have been working with charges $10 per transaction and you want to sell because the current rate for your shares skyrocketed and is at $34.50 per share. How much did Randy buy from Facebook?

a)

800∗$34.50=$27,600.00

b)

800∗$19.50=$15,600.00

c)

$27,600−$15,600=$12,000.00

d)

$12,000.00−$20.00=$11,980.00

42.

EE Bonds & I Bonds are similar in that. . .

a)

build cash

b)

similar interest rates

c)

You can cash in after one year

43.

In college, people can major in a wide variety of fields including medicine, journalism, business, and design among others. This is an example of the concept of

a)

scarcity

b)

specialization

c)

elastic demand

d)

progressive taxation

44.

When two people engage in trade, both sides will benefit if the trade meets which two requirements?

a)

voluntary and non-fraudulent

b)

non-voluntary and fraudulent

c)

free and international

d)

rational and marginal

45.

Susan offers to trade her old iPod for Claudia's cell phone and Claudia accepts. Assuming both products work perfectly, we can conclude that

a)

both people have gained because the exchange was voluntary and non-fraudulent.

b)

Susan places the same value on cell phones as she does for iPods.

c)

neither party has gained because the exchange was fraudulent.

d)

Claudia is now happier than Susan.

46.

What is the relationship between specialization and voluntary exchange?

a)

voluntary exchange causes specialization

b)

specialization exists because of voluntary exchanges

c)

voluntary exchange negates the need for specialization

d)

specialization leads to a need for voluntary exchange

47.

What percent of students receive scholarships or grants for college?

a)

Less than 25%

b)

25% - 50%

c)

50% - 75%

d)

More than 75%

48.

What percent of high school seniors have filed their FAFSA to access college aid?

a)

Less than 25%

b)

25% - 50%

c)

50% - 75%

d)

More than 75%

49.
This is the form you must fill out before going to college in order to get aid from the government to pay for college
a)
FAFSA
b)
FASAF
c)
FASFA
d)
AFSAF
50.
A federal student loan is provided by...
a)
Private companies
b)
The state you live in
c)
US Federal government
d)
Investors
51.
This is money you can get to pay for college, which has to be paid back.
a)
Scholarhip
b)
Grant
c)
Student Loan
d)
College Savings
52.

Which of the following statements is TRUE about filing the FAFSA?

a)

You need to file the FAFSA for every year you will be in school no matter what.

b)

You only need to file the FAFSA if you received a tax refund.

c)

You only need to file the FAFSA if your parent/guardian's financial situation has changed.

d)

You only need to file the FAFSA if your financial situation has changed.

53.

What is the difference between grants and scholarship?

a)

Grants are generally need based while scholarships are awarded based on academic or other criteria.

b)

Scholarships are generally need based while grants are awarded based on academic or other criteria.

c)

You have to pay grants back while scholarships are free money.

d)

You have to pay scholarships back while grants are free money.

54.

Which of the following is the biggest cost in paying for college for most students?

a)

Tuition and fees

b)

Room and board

c)

Books and supplies

d)

Personal expenses

55.

What does FAFSA stand for?

a)

Financial Assistance for Students' Aid

b)

Federal Assistance For Student Aid

c)

Free Application for Federal Student Aid

d)

Financial Aid for Student Assistance

56.

Which of these options depicts the types of financial aid from MOST attractive to LEAST attractive?

a)

Private loans, Federal loans, Work-study, Grants/Scholarships

b)

Grants/Scholarships, Work-study, Federal loans, Private loans

c)

Work-study, Grants/Scholarships, Federal loans, Private loans

d)

Federal loans, Grants/Scholarships, Work-study, Private loans

57.

Your financial aid package at your dream school includes eligibility for a work-study job. Which of these is a valid reason for rejecting that opportunity?

a)

Work-study jobs pay less than minimum wage, so it’s usually not worth the time

b)

The amount you earn through work-study will eventually need to be repaid in your student loan debt, with interest, making it a bad deal

c)

Once you accept a work-study job, you are not legally allowed to accept any other part-time work

d)

If you cannot handle the time commitment of academics and the work-study job, your grades might suffer

58.
___________________ federal grant awarded based on financial need;  amount depends on a student's EFC and enrollment status, as well as the cost of attendance. 
a)
Self-help Aid
b)
Grant
c)
Supplemental Education Opportunity Grant
d)
Pell Grant
59.
_______________________ is a need-based financial aid program allowing students to work a part-time campus job to help pay for college
a)
work-study program
b)
scholarship
c)
grant
d)
loan
60.
_________________________ loan which accrues interest from the time it is borrowed, including while the borrower is in school
a)
subsidized loan
b)
unsubsidized loan
c)
FAFSA
d)
Profile application
61.
_________________________ loan which does not accrue interest while in school or during a 6 month deferment period after graduation
a)
unsubsidized loan
b)
FAFSA
c)
subsidized loan
d)
expected family contribution
62.

Net pay is ...

a)

income before deductions

b)

income after deductions

c)

income you take home

d)

income with holdings

63.

What is the definition of Gross Pay?

a)

state taxes

b)

income after deductions

c)

federal taxes

d)

total income

64.
On a pay stub, this indicates the total amount of money received by an employee after all deductions are taken out.
a)
Net Pay
b)
Gross Pay
c)
Total Pay
d)
Grand Pay
65.

Money paid to the government

a)

Paystub

b)

Current

c)

Taxes

d)

Net Pay

66.

The company you work for deposits the net pay straight into your bank account. This is called..

a)

Rate

b)

Direct Deposit

c)

Paystub

d)

Pay Period

67.

Money taken out of paycheck to cover expenses including taxes and health insurance

a)

Deductions

b)

Taxes

c)

Paystub

d)

Net Pay

68.

YTD stands for:

a)

Year to Date

b)

Year Tax Date

c)

Yearly Tax Date

d)

Your Total Deductions

69.

Which are considered mandatory deductions from a paycheck?

a)

social security

b)

medicare

c)

federal income tax

d)

all of these

70.

A fixed amount of money per year paid to an employee to do a job is known as a _____?

a)

hourly rate

b)

deduction

c)

overtime pay

d)

salary

71.

This card is linked to a checking account

a)

Credit

b)

Debit

c)

Both

72.

Users borrow money on the card and pay it at a later time

a)

Credit

b)

Debit

c)

Both

73.

The cost of borrowing money is referred to as

a)

Interest

b)

Annual Percentage Rate

c)

Credit

d)

Credit Line

74.
What is a negative of using a Debit Card?
a)
Bank Fees if you use your banks ATM
b)
Paying interest
c)
Can get charged fees if the money isn't in your account
d)
They only work on weekdays
75.

This type of card allows you to withdraw money directly out of your checking account to pay for things...

a)

Credit Card

b)

Debit Card

c)

Gift Card

d)

E-Card

76.
Money that your bank account earns
a)
Balance
b)
Checking
c)
Savings
d)
Interest
77.

What is a SAVINGS ACCOUNT?

a)

a bank account that you cannot deposit your money from for a specific amount of time

b)

a bank account that you can write checks from

c)

a bank account that earns interest

78.

Mikey is going to college and will not be home often to visit his home bank. He is responsible for his own bills. He needs a way to access his money and track what he spends.

a)

Personal Loan

b)

Online Banking

c)

Business Loan

d)

Safe Deposit Box

79.

To take money out of the account.

a)

Withdraw

b)

Deposit

c)

Personal Loan

d)

Account Balance

80.

The second set of numbers; identification number of the owner's checking account

a)

Debit Card

b)

Checking Account Number

c)

PIN Number

d)

Savings Account

81.

A numerical code used in many electronic financial transactions. Usually required when using bank debit cards, and usually contains 4 digits.

a)

PIN Number

b)

Checking Account Number

c)

Service Charge

d)

Bank Balance

82.

Some bank accounts offer this as a way to allow customers to complete some financial transactions electronically via the internet.

a)

Debit Card

b)

Direct Deposit

c)

Online Access

d)

Checking Account

83.
What are Georgia's four transportation systems?
a)
The interstate, the highway, the railroad, and the airport.
b)
The interstate, the railroad, the deepwater ports. 
c)
The interstate, Hartsfield Jackson Airport, the railroads, and deepwater ports. 
84.
What major role do the transportation systems in Georgia play in Georgia's economy?
a)
The transportation allows Georgians to get around easier
b)
The transportation systems allow Georgia to trade with other countries and provide jobs. 
c)
The transportation systems help Georgians stay cool. 
85.
Why is Georgia considered the major transportation hub of the South?
a)
Georgia's transportation channels allows access to most of the United States. 
b)
Georgia has a lot of forms of transportation. 
c)
Georgia's transportation is modern. 
86.
Why is Hartsfield Jackson Airport so important to Georgia's economy?
a)
It is the world's busiest airport and it brings in over $23.5 billion a year.
b)
It has been around for years. 
c)
It uses a lot of fuel which is costly. 
87.
The deepwater ports in Georgia bring in about 80% of the goods for the state. Where are they located?
a)
Augusta and Savannah
b)
Savannah and Brunswick
c)
Brunswick and Augusta
88.
Which forms of transportation would be best used for international travel?
a)
Interstate highway system and railroad. 
b)
Deepwater ports and Hartsfield-Jackson Airport. 
c)
Hartsfield-Jackson airport, and railroad.
89.

Company XYZ produces cheese in Scotland and exports the cheese, which costs $100 per pound, to the United States. A 20% tax would require Company XYZ to pay the United States government $20 to export the cheese. This is a(n)...

a)

Tariff

b)

Quota

c)

Embargo

90.

In 2010, Mexico imposed a limit of 250,000 tons of sugar that could be imported into Mexico. This is a(n)...

a)

Tariff

b)

Quota

c)

Embargo

91.

In 1962, the United States prohibited all imports and exports to and from Cuba. This is a(n)...

a)

Tariff

b)

Quota

c)

Embargo

92.

In 2010, China announced that it would impose and import a tax on American poultry of up 105.4 percent. This is a(n)...

a)

Tariff

b)

Quota

c)

Embargo

93.

In 2005, the United States limited the imports of Chinese textiles to 7.5% a year. Is this a(n)...

a)

Tariff

b)

Quota

c)

Embargo

94.

In June of 2013, the European Union described to lift restrictions of the trade of weapons to Syrian rebels. This is a(n)...

a)

Tariff

b)

Quota

c)

Embargo

95.

The principle that a country benefits from specializing in the production at which it is relatively most efficient thus has the comparative advantage.  This is true because of lower opportunity costs

a)

Law of Comparative Advantage

b)

Globalization

c)

Law of Incresing Costs

d)

Exports

96.

When one country can produce a good more efficiently than another country.  The ability to produce more of a given product using a given amount of resources

a)

Globalization

b)

Absolute Advantage

c)

NAFTA

d)

Fair Trade

97.

The process by which businesses or other organizations develop international influence or start operating on an international scale

a)

Imports

b)

Absolute Advantage

c)

Globalization

d)

Trade Surplus

98.

Goods and services produced in one country and sold to other countries

a)

Imports

b)

Trade Deficit

c)

Tariff

d)

Exports

99.

Goods and services consumed in a country but which have been purchased from other countries

a)

Trade Surplus

b)

Imports

c)

Globalization

d)

Quota

100.

When a countries imports exceeds its exports

a)

Trade Deficit

b)

Quota

c)

Globalization

d)

Imports

101.

When a countries exports exceeds its imports

a)

Trade Deficit

b)

Trade Surplus

c)

Free Trade

d)

Currency Appreciation

102.

A legal process to get out of debt when you can no longer make all your required payment.

a)

Liquidation

b)

Bankruptcy

c)

Mean's Test

d)

Credit Counseling

103.

The most popular bankruptcy option for a small business seeking to restructure and continue operating.

a)

Ch. 7

b)

Ch. 11

c)

Ch. 12

d)

Ch.13

104.

How many years does bankruptcy stay on your credit?

a)

2

b)

5

c)

7

d)

10

105.

This type of card is designed for people with bad or no credit.

a)

Secured card

b)

Unsecured Card

106.

The entire amount of money a person owes to lenders.

a)

Assets

b)

Debt

c)

Equity

d)

Capital

107.

Sally is not feeling well so her mother takes her to the doctor. The doctor tells her she has strep throat, gives her medication, and sends her home to recover. What types of insurance would be used in this case?

a)

Health

b)

Liability

c)

Disability

d)

Unemployment

108.

Joey's father is in a car accident and cannot work. What type of insurance replaces his father's earnings?

a)

Health

b)

Life

c)

Disability

d)

Property and Liability

109.

David's mother is killed in an automobile accident. What type of insurance would provide his family financial support to cover the paid and unpaid work his mother performed?

a)

Life

b)

Health

c)

Disability

d)

Worker's Compensation

110.

The money paid to an insurance company to purchase a policy

a)

deductible

b)

insurance

c)

premium

d)

policy

111.

The chance of loss from an event that cannot be entirely controlled

a)

risk

b)

deductible

c)

premium

d)

policy

112.

Which of the following is a way to lower your insurance premium?

a)

have a good driving record

b)

be involved in sports

c)

have a parent with you at all times

d)

buy a sports car

113.

A formal request made by the insurance policyholder to the insurance company for payment or services covered by the insurance policy.

a)

Claim

b)

Accident

c)

Premium

d)

Coverage

114.
Insurance to protect your personal home.
a)
comprehensive 
b)
renter's
c)
property damage
d)
homeowner’s 
115.
Insurance to protect your personal items in your rented apartment or rented house.
a)
homeowners
b)
renters
c)
property
d)
liability
116.
Insurance that will pay someone you have chosen in the event you die.
a)
long-term care
b)
life
c)
risk
d)
broad collision
117.
A credit union...
a)
is a financial institution that focuses on taking deposits and using them to fund mortgages.
b)
is a non-profit institution owned by its members and provides financial services to its members.
c)
offers a broad range of deposit account and gives loans to individuals and businesses. 
d)
is a financial institution for students only
118.

The length of a bond

a)

Coupon Rate

b)

Maturity

c)

Par Value

d)

Yield

119.

What federal organization insures banks?

a)

FDCI

b)

FDOC

c)

FDIC

d)

FDDC

120.

Type of savings plan where money is left on deposit for a stated period of time.

a)

Certificate of Deposit (CD)

b)

Money Market

c)

Savings Account

d)

Checking Account

121.

Type of savings plan that requires a high minimum balance and pays variable interest rate.

a)

Regular Savings Account

b)

Checking Account

c)

Money Market

d)

Debit Card

122.

Fee for writing a check for more money than you have in your account.

a)

Monthly Service Fee

b)

Maintenance Fee

c)

APY

d)

Overdraft/NSF Fee

123.

The FDIC insures bank accounts against bank failure up to the sum of

a)

$100,000

b)

$250,000

c)

$1,000,000

d)

$0

124.

What is credit?

a)

An arrangement in which you receive goods, services, or money in exchange for a promise to repay at a later date

b)

A numerical measure of creditworthiness

c)

A detailed record of your credit history

d)

The proportion of revolving credit available

125.

Why is credit important?

a)

It can help you show creditworthiness for larger purchases

b)

It can save you money on interest rates

c)

It can affect various aspects of your financial life

d)

All of the above

126.

Which component of creditworthiness is based on how frequently a person makes their monthly payments on time?

a)

Payment History

b)

Amount Owed

c)

Length of Credit History

d)

New Credit Applications

127.

What does the debt-to-income ratio compare?

a)

How much debt you must pay vs. how much income you are bringing in

b)

The amount of credit you are using compared to your total credit

c)

The length of time your accounts have been open

d)

The types of credit you have

128.

What is the recommended percentage of available credit to keep open?

a)

30%

b)

50%

c)

70%

d)

90%

129.

What is the best way to avoid paying interest on a credit card?

a)

Pay off the balance at the end of the month

b)

Make only the minimum payment

c)

Max out the credit limit

d)

Don't use a credit card

130.

Which factor is not considered in calculating a credit score?

a)

Payment History

b)

Amount Owed

c)

Length of Credit History

d)

Debt-to-Income Ratio

131.

Which statement describes the law of demand?

a)

As prices rise, quantity demanded decreases

b)

As prices rise, demand decreases.

c)

As prices fall, quantity demanded decreases.

d)

As prices fall, demand decreases.

132.

Which explains why a supply line is upward sloping?

a)

the Law of Demand states there is an indirect relationship between price and quantity

b)

the Law of Supply states there is a direct relationship between price and quantity

c)

the Law of Supply compares marginal costs and marginal benefits in a constant rate

d)

the Law of Demand shows a positive relationship between two goods, creating the slope

133.

What causes a shift in the demand curve?

a)

A decrease in price

b)

An increase in price

c)

A change in an area other than price

d)

A change in price and availability

134.

What is the Equilibrium Price?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

135.

The diagram represents a(n)

a)

increase in supply

b)

decrease in supply

c)

change in quantity supplied

d)

none of the above

136.

When there is a shortage the price will usually?

a)

rise

b)

fall

c)

remain the same

d)

equilibrium

137.

The diagram represents a

a)

increase in demand

b)

decrease in demand

c)

change in quantity demand

d)

none of the above

138.

When the demand curve shifts to the left, this suggests demand has

a)

increased

b)

decreased

c)

Quantity demanded has increased

d)

Quantity demanded has decreased

139.

When the demand curve has shifted to the right, this suggests demand has

a)

increased

b)

decreased

c)

quantity demanded has increased

d)

quantity demanded has increased

140.

When price increases, quantity demanded

a)

increases

b)

decreases

c)

supply would decreases, not quantity supplied

d)

supply would increase, not quantity supplied

141.

When price increases, quantity supplied

a)

increases

b)

decreases

142.
Products that can be used in a place of other products 
a)

substitute goods

b)

complementary goods 

c)

normal goods

d)

inferior goods

143.

Products that tend to be used together that typically have little value on their own are considered

a)

complementary goods

b)

substitute goods

c)

inferior goods

d)

normal goods

144.

If your income decreases, how would that affect your demand for normal and inferior goods?

a)

Demand for normal would go up; demand for inferior would go down

b)

Demand for normal would go down; demand for inferior would go up

c)

Demand for normal would go up; demand for inferior would go up

d)

Demand for normal would go down; demand for inferior would go down

145.

What is the best measure of a nation's standard of living?

a)

real GDP per capita

b)

population growth

c)

savings

d)

national income

146.

Real GDP

a)

distorts the price level in the GDP

b)

expresses GDP in constant prices

c)

measures only intermediate goods

d)

is another term for GNP

147.

When a farm worker loses his job after the harvest, it is an example of

a)

Frictional unemployment

b)

Seasonal unemployment

c)

structural unemployment

d)

cyclical unemployment

148.

Which statement describes full employment?

a)

Everybody who wants a job has a job

b)

There is no unemployment at all

c)

There is no cyclical unemployment

d)

There is no structural unemployment

149.

A general increase in prices is called

a)

inflation

b)

purchasing power

c)

the CPI

d)

a price index

150.

People who underemployed

a)

no longer look for work

b)

work part time or at jobs that are below their skills

c)

are the same as unemployed workers

d)

experience only frictional employment

151.

The inflation rate is

a)

the ability to buy goods or services

b)

measured in fixed dollars

c)

not an important measure to economists

d)

the percentage change in prices over time

152.

Inflation reduced people's purchasing power because

a)

the same amount of money buys ore goods and services

b)

the same amount of money buys fewer goods and services

c)

the market basket has to be changed every year

d)

there is not enough money in the economy

153.

In which part of the GDP calculation does this fit?

You spend $15 at AMC to see the latest Avengers movie.

a)

Consumer spending

b)

Government spending

c)

Investment spending

d)

Net exports

154.

In which part of the GDP calculation does this fit?

The US military spends $5 billion on five new helicopters.

a)

Consumer spending

b)

Government spending

c)

Investment spending

d)

Net exports

155.

In which part of the GDP calculation does this fit?

The local taxi service purchases new vehicles for the

company.

a)

Consumer spending

b)

Government spending

c)

Investment spending

d)

Net exports

156.

In which part of the GDP calculation does this fit?

Australia exported $6 billion worth of goods in 2018, but imported $10 billion in goods.

a)

Consumer spending

b)

Government spending

c)

Investment spending

d)

Net exports

157.
What the definition of deflation? 
a)
decrease in the average price of goods and services
b)
occurs when the price of goods and services rise
c)
increase in prices
d)
I don't know