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AWS-Final Quiz

Total questions: 62

Worksheet time: 43mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which service provides persistent block storage volumes or use with Amazon EC2 instances?

a)

Amazon S3

b)

Amazon EFS

c)

Amazon EBS

d)

Amazon DynamoDB

2.

What is Elastic Load Balancing?

a)

Automatically slowing down traffic to decrease latency

b)

Automatically distributing traffic across multiple targets

c)

Automatically monitoring traffic to ensure that costs are kept beneath specified threshold

d)

Automatically stopping traffic when targets are overloaded

3.

Which of the following option describes the most common AWS billing model?

a)

Daily Billing

b)

Annual Billing

c)

Pay as you go

d)

Pay in advance

4.

What networking feature can you use to provide connectivity between multiple VPCs?​

a)

A NAT Gateway​

b)

An Internet Gateway​

c)

A Transit Gateway​

d)

This capability isn’t available in AWS at this time​

5.

An Application Load Balancer operates at which OSI layer?​

a)

Layer 4, the connection layer​

b)

Layer 2, the data link layer​

c)

Layer 7, the application layer​

d)

Layer 3, the network layer​

6.

Which AWS service allows you to connect your VPC to the public internet?

a)

NAT Gateway

b)

Internet Gateway

c)

VPN Connection

d)

Direct Connect

7.

What is the purpose of an AWS VPC route table?

a)

It specifies which IAM users can access the VPC.

b)

It defines the route for network traffic within the VPC.

c)

It stores database access credentials.

d)

It controls DNS settings for VPC resources

8.

What does VPC peering allow you to do in AWS?

a)

Share VPC resources with other AWS accounts

b)

Connect multiple VPCs within the same AWS account

c)

Establish a VPN connection to AWS resources

d)

Access public S3 buckets

9.

What is AWS Direct Connect used for?

a)

To securely connect to AWS services over the public internet

b)

To establish a dedicated network connection between your on-premises data center and AWS

c)

To create VPC peering connections

d)

To configure VPC endpoints

10.

How many IP address are there if you mention /24 ?

a)

252

b)

1024

c)

2046

d)

256

11.

What is CIDR?

a)

Classfull interdomain routing

b)

Classless interdomain routing

c)

Chennai super kings

d)

No idea

12.

Where NAT Gateway should be created?

a)

Private Subnet

b)

Public Subnet

c)

Internet Gateway

d)

Database Server

13.

The largest IPv4 CIDR block size is

a)

/16

b)

/24

c)

/28

d)

/32

14.

How many IP address are reserved out of 256?

a)

251

b)

2

c)

5

d)

15

15.

Which AWS service allows you to connect your VPC to the public internet?

a)

NAT Gateway

b)

Internet Gateway

c)

VPN Connection

d)

Direct Connect

16.

Which AWS networking service enables a company to create a virtual network within AWS?

a)

EC2

b)

RDS

c)

VPC

d)

S3

17.

What is the purpose of an AWS VPC route table?

a)

It specifies which IAM users can access the VPC.

b)

It defines the route for network traffic within the VPC.

c)

It stores database access credentials.

d)

It controls DNS settings for VPC resources

18.

What does VPC peering allow you to do in AWS?

a)

Share VPC resources with other AWS accounts

b)

Connect multiple VPCs within the same AWS account

c)

Establish a VPN connection to AWS resources

d)

Access public S3 buckets

19.

What is AWS Direct Connect used for?

a)

To securely connect to AWS services over the public internet

b)

To establish a dedicated network connection between your on-premises data center and AWS

c)

To create VPC peering connections

d)

To configure VPC endpoints

20.

What is the 7th Layer in OSI Model?

a)

Network Layer

b)

Application Layer

c)

Session Layer

d)

Transport Layer

21.

Which service Enables you to provision a logically isolated section of the AWS?

a)

Cloud Front

b)

Cloud Trail

c)

Cloud Formation

d)

Virtual Private Cloud

22.

How many Subnets we can create in a Single VPC?

a)

2

b)

200

c)

2000

d)

No Limit

23.

How many IP address are there if you mention /24 ?

a)

252

b)

1024

c)

2046

d)

256

24.

What is CIDR?

a)

Classfull interdomain routing

b)

Classless interdomain routing

c)

Chennai super kings

d)

No idea

25.

How many VPC's we can create in a Single Region?

a)

200

b)

100

c)

5

d)

2

26.

Where NAT Gateway should be created?

a)

Private Subnet

b)

Public Subnet

c)

Internet Gateway

d)

Database Server

27.

The largest IPv4 CIDR block size is

a)

/16

b)

/24

c)

/28

d)

/32

28.

How many IP address are reserved out of 256?

a)

251

b)

2

c)

5

d)

15

29.

The smallest IPv4 CIDR block size is

a)

/16

b)

/24

c)

/28

d)

/32

30.

Which reserved IP is used for DNS?

a)

10.0.0.0

b)

10.0.0.255

c)

10.0.1.0

d)

10.0.0.2

31.

Is Eip is Chargeble?

a)

True

b)

False

32.

By default, every route table contains a local route for communication within the VPC. True or False?

a)

False

b)

True

33.

What is a Range of IP address?

a)

NAT Gateway

b)

VPC Peering

c)

Subnet

d)

Region

34.

To simplify Networking Model, Connecting Multiple VPC's ____

a)

VPC Peering

b)

Transit Gateway

c)

NAT Gateway

d)

Direct Connect

35.

The durability for Amazon S3 bucket (Standard, IA, One zone – IA and Glacier) is ____

a)

99

b)

99.999999999

c)

99.99

d)

90.999999999

36.

For storing archived content, which service you will recommend?

a)

S3 Standard

b)

S3 Infrequent Access

c)

Amazon Glacier

d)

S3 One zone – Infrequent Access

37.

S3 Standard storage class stores data across _____ availability zones.

a)

4

b)

3

c)

2

d)

1

38.

Which AWS service can be used to execute code triggered by new files being uploaded to S3?

a)

Lambda

b)

SQS

c)

ECS

d)

EC2

39.

By default, AWS S3 buckets are private

a)

True

b)

False

40.

In general, when using AWS S3, you should always keep your bucket public and only make it private if absolutely necessary.

a)

True

b)

False

41.

Will i be charged every time i delete an object in S3?

a)

Yes

b)

No

42.

What does Amazon S3 stand for?

a)

Secure Storage Service

b)

Simple Storage Service

c)

Server Storage System

d)

Scalable Storage Solution

43.

Which of the following statements about Amazon S3 buckets is correct?

a)

Bucket names must be unique only within your AWS account.

b)

Bucket names must be globally unique across all AWS accounts.

c)

Bucket names can only be in lowercase letters.

d)

Bucket names can include spaces and special characters

44.

What feature helps you automatically transfer data between different S3 storage classes?

a)

S3 Transfer Acceleration

b)

S3 Lifecycle Policies

c)

S3 Object Lock

d)

S3 Event Notifications

45.

What does S3 versioning allow you to do?

a)

Automatically organize objects into folders

b)

Permanently delete objects from a bucket

c)

Create multiple versions of an object

d)

Synchronize data between two S3 buckets

46.

in AWS IAM used for ?

a)

For Auditing the users login

b)

Fost Cost Advice

c)

Securing the users and groups

d)

Creating the EC2

47.

AWS Organization service used for ?

a)

For managing the Users

b)

For manging the permissions(policies)

c)

For managing the aws accounts

d)

For manaing the ec2 machines

48.

i am using the program to access ,aws, what components you use to authentciate with AWS

a)

username and password

b)

pem file

c)

MFA

d)

access and secret key

49.

0.0.0.0/0 stands for ?

a)

Access Only within intranet

b)

Access from Internet

c)

Access IAM

d)

Access TrustAdvisor

50.

Do containers run on top of?

a)

Docker Engine

b)

Hypervisor

c)

Kernal

51.

Running instance of an image is called?

a)

Container

b)

Registry

c)

Daemon

52.

Which command is used for fetching the list of running containers

a)

docker ps

b)

docker images

c)

docker stop

53.

Command for installing apache webserver

a)

yum install -y

b)

sudo install docker

c)

yum install httpd -y

d)

yum install docker -h

54.

Command for lanching container from image

a)

docker exec

b)

docker run

c)

docker stop

d)

docker start

55.

Command for listing images

a)

docker ps

b)

docker img

c)

docker ps -a

d)

docker images

56.

Which service helps to send Notifications?

a)

S3

b)

Simple Notification service

c)

Elastic Load balancer

d)

ASG

57.

Which File system helps to store petabytes level of storage?

a)

ECS

b)

EKS

c)

EFS

d)

FSF

58.

What is Amazon Route 53?

a)

A virtual private network service

b)

A content delivery network service

c)

A domain name system web service

d)

An identity and access management service

59.

What is the function of a Network Access Control List (NACL) in AWS?

a)

It filters traffic at the application layer.

b)

It acts as a firewall for EC2 instances

c)

It controls access to VPC resources at the subnet level.

d)

It manages database connections.

60.

What languages is not supported by AWS Lambda support?

a)

Python

b)

Java

c)

Go

d)

Ruby

e)

R

61.

Default mechanism for monitoring AWS Lambda function?

a)

Cloud watch

b)

Cloud trail

c)

Splunk

d)

Logger implementation

62.

You have been tasked with auditing the security of your VPC. As part of this process, you need to start by analyzing what traffic is allowed to and from various EC2 instances. What two parts of the VPC do you need to check to accomplish this task?

a)

Security Group & Internet Gateway

b)

NACL & Subnet

c)

Security Group & NACL

d)

NACL & Route Table