wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Biology - Semester 1 Review

Total questions: 237

Worksheet time: 6hrs 56mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following questions CANNOT be answered by science?

a)

How do birds fly?

b)

B) Is this a good song?

c)

C) What is an atom?

d)

D) How does a clock work?

2.

One one-thousandth is expressed by which prefix?

a)

kilo–

b)

centi–

c)

nano–

d)

milli–

3.

On which of the following is SI based?

a)

inches

b)

English units

c)

powers of five

d)

powers of ten

4.

Which type of graph is most useful for showing how the relationship between the independent and dependent variables changes over time?

a)

circle graph

b)

bar graph

c)

pictograph

d)

line graph

5.

What quantity does the kilogram measure?

a)

time

b)

distance

c)

force

d)

mass

6.
What is the independent variable in an experiment?
a)
the thing we change or test
b)
the normal situation
c)
what we measure in the end
d)
the thing we keep the same
7.

A testable prediction is a(n) _____.

a)

hypothesis

b)

experiment

c)

exercise

d)

variable

8.

Of the following, the unit that cannot be used to express volume is _____.

a)

kg

b)

L

c)

cm3

d)

mL

9.

a beaker contains 0.32L of water. The beaker's volume is ______ milliliters

a)

3.2

b)

0.032

c)

32

d)

320

10.
The height of a two-story building is 6 meters.  How tall is the building in centimeters?
a)
6,000 centimeters
b)
60 centimeters
c)
6 centimeters
d)
600 centimeters
11.

What is the dependent variable?

a)

The variable measured

b)

The variable changed

c)

The variable kept the same

d)

The variable that determines results

12.

1. Students look out a window for 5 minutes. They record the number, the type, and the color of the vehicles that pass. What are the students doing?

a)

concluding

b)

experimenting

c)

hypothesizing

d)

observing

13.
The Y axis is _______?
a)
Vertical
b)
Horizontal
c)
criss-cross
d)
diagonal
14.

What are graphs used for?

a)

To show data in an understandable way

b)

To keep track of things so you don't forget

c)

To catch the eye and look colorful

d)

To draw pictures on

15.

What would make the best title for this graph?

a)

Colors I like best

b)

Candy colors

c)

Comparison Graph

d)

# of Colors in Smarties Candies

16.
How many more people have purple for a favorite color than red?
a)
3
b)
5
c)
7
d)
9
17.
How many total people took the survey?
a)
50
b)
150
c)
100
d)
200
18.

What is the final step in the scientific method?

a)

Write a conclusion about your results

b)

Record and analyze the data

c)

Form a hypothesis

d)

Research your topic

19.

What is the purpose of the scientific method?

a)

To solve problems and create experiments

b)

To research new information

c)

To practice safety

d)

To become a scientist

20.

Jennifer wants to know if students do better on their homework if they listen to classical music or hip hop music. What is the independent variable in this experiment?

a)

Students' grades on homework

b)

The age of the students

c)

The volume of the music

d)

The type of music

21.

When graphing data, where do you place your independent variable?

a)

y-axis

b)

x-axis

c)

in the title

d)

it does not need to go on the graph

22.

What is the main reason scientists have constants?

a)

So scientists know their results came only from the independent variable and nothing else

b)

So scientists stay safe

c)

So scientists can record data easier

d)

So the experiment is clear and easy to understand

23.

7,000 g = ____ kg

a)

70

b)

700

c)

7

d)

0.07

24.

648 g = ____ mg

a)

6,480

b)

64,800

c)

648,000

d)

64.8

25.

240 cm = ___________ m

a)

2400

b)

24

c)

2.4

d)

0.24

26.

3 km = ___________ mm

a)

30

b)

300

c)

3,000

d)

3,000,000

27.
Green plants produce their own food through the process of photosynthesis.
a)
All living things use energy
b)
All living things contain cells
c)
All living things maintain homeostasis
d)
All living things grow
28.
Over three years, Tim's height has increased from 5'4" to 5'11".
a)
All living things contain cells
b)
All living things maintain homeostasis
c)
All living things use energy
d)
All living things grow
29.
YOU are a multi-celled organism but an amoeba is a single celled organism.
a)
All living things have cells
b)
All living things grow
c)
All living things use energy
d)
All living things respond to their environment
30.
Rocks are not living because
a)
they never move
b)
they aren't needed for humans
c)
they are not made of cells
d)
they don't break down
31.
In order for something to be considered a living organism, it must display _____ of the eight characteristics of living things.
a)
one
b)
some
c)
all
d)
more than half
32.

The following list represents characteristics of a living thing :

a)

made of cells, has lungs, can reproduce

b)

made of cells, grows and develops, uses energy

c)

has similar chemicals, makes noises, made of cells

33.

Which item listed is NOT a characteristic of life?

a)

adjusting to stimuli

b)

getting and using energy

c)

growing and developing

d)

breathing

34.

A (an) ____ is a testable explanation to an observed phenomena.

a)

independent variable

b)

data set

c)

experiment

d)

hypothesis

35.

What factor remains fixed during an experiment?

a)

dependent variable

b)

independent variable

c)

data

d)

constant

36.

Based on this graph, which of the following statements is correct?

a)

The anole weighs 2.5 grams after 3 days of observation.

b)

The mass of the anole increased by 2.5 grams in 3 days.

c)

The anole weighs 2.3 grams after 3 days.

d)

The mass of the anole increased by 2.7 grams during the experiment.

37.

A scientist hypothesizes the temperature at which an alligator’s egg is incubated will determine whether the alligator will be male or female. The independent variable is

a)

the incubator

b)

the male alligator

c)

the temperature

d)

the gender of the alligator

38.
Which observation is quantitative?
a)
It is 5 cm long
b)
It is smooth
c)
It looks red
d)
It is dry
39.
Dolphins have smooth skin.
a)
quantitative observation
b)
qualitative observation
40.

When is an ionic bond formed?

a)

when electrons are shared

b)

when protons are shared

c)

when oppositely charged atoms gain or lose electrons

d)

when oppositely charged atoms gain or lose a proton

41.

What makes carbon so important to life?

a)

bonding properties

b)

its place on the Periodic Table

c)

it is a reactant in all chemical reactions

d)

it is an enzyme

42.

What gives water so many important properties for life?

a)

adhesion and cohesion

b)

the amount of carbon in each molecule

c)

energy released exothermically

d)

hydrogen bonds give it polarity

43.

What makes a chemical reaction?

a)

matter is conserved

b)

breaking and forming of chemical bonds

c)

when products form reactants

d)

when you do a lab

44.

What are the smallest basic units of matter?

a)

molecules

b)

atoms

c)

elements

d)

7th graders

45.

Which of the following solutions has the highest Hydrogen ion concentration?

a)

a solution with a pH of 1

b)

a solution with a pH of 4

c)

a solution with a pH of 7

d)

a solution with a pH of 10

46.

A catalyzed reaction

a)

increases the products made

b)

uses less activation energy to get started

c)

has a slower reaction rate

d)

uses more reactants throughout the reaction

47.

Enzymes act on

a)

products

b)

proteins

c)

amino acids

d)

substrates

48.

Atoms that share electrons are

a)

in a covalent bond

b)

in an ionic bond

c)

are usually salts

d)

always metals

49.

What are the reactants in this chemical equation?

a)

CH4 and 2O2

b)

carbon and oxygen

c)

CO2 and 2 H2O

d)

water and methane

50.

Activation energy

a)

is the term for the amount of energy in each reactant

b)

helps the enzyme to increase the rate of the reaction

c)

is the term for the amount of energy that needs to be added for a chemical reaction to start

d)

is the term for the amount of energy released by the reaction after it starts

51.

What are the 4 types of carbon-based molecules in organisms?

a)

carbohydrates, lipids, fatty acids, and monomers

b)

polymers, monomers, acids, bases

c)

adhesion, cohesion, evaporative cooling, and high specific heat

d)

nucleic acids, proteins, lipids, and carbohydrates

52.

What are proteins made of?

a)

amino acids

b)

monosaccharides

c)

nucleic acids

d)

fatty acids

53.

Which carbon-based molecule includes sugar and starches?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

lipids

c)

proteins

d)

nucleic acids

54.

What is the primary function of DNA?

a)

to make nucleic acids

b)

long term energy storage

c)

store genetic information

d)

to function as RNA

55.

What are the products in this chemical reaction?

a)

calcium and oxygen

b)

Ca and CaO

c)

2Ca and O2

d)

2CaO

56.

What is happening in this picture?

a)

an enzyme is binding a substrate together to form a product

b)

an enzyme is breaking down a substrate to release new products

c)

the active site of the enzyme does not fit the substrate

d)

a change in pH has damaged the enzyme

57.

The building blocks of most living things contain the element

a)

carbon

b)

nitrogen

c)

calcium

d)

sodium

58.

Changes in the pH, temperature, enzyme concentration, and/or substrate concentration can negatively affect

a)

the activation energy of chemical reactions

b)

the bond energy released by reactants in a reaction

c)

the efficient function of an enzyme or catalyzed reaction

d)

the polarity of water used for evaporative cooling

59.
What particle is found in the nucleus and has no charge?
a)
electron
b)
neutron
c)
proton
d)
atom
60.

Large bodies of water, such as lakes and oceans, do no quickly fluctuate in temperature. What is the reason behind this phenomenon? 

a)

Water is an acid

b)

Water has a high heat capacity

c)

Water is a universal solvent

d)

Water acts as a base

61.

Water is essential for life. Its special properties make water the single most important molecule in plant life. Which of the following properties of water enables it to move from the roots to the leaves of plants?

a)

Water expands as it freezes

b)

Water is an excellent solvent

c)

Water exhibits cohesive behavior

d)

Water is able to moderate temperature

62.

A water strider can skate along the top of a pond because:

a)

Low surface tension of water

b)

Hydrogen bonds result in water cohesion (surface tension)

c)

Covalent bonds result in water cohesion

d)

Water striders have adapted to take advantage of water cohesion

63.

Water is often called the “universal solvent” because many substances can be dissolved in water. What property of water allows it to be such a universal solvent?

a)

Purity

b)

Polarity and cohesion

c)

High heat capacity

d)

Expansion upon freezing

64.

Which of the following is a function of a carbohydrate?

a)

Provides long term energy to body

b)

Supports the body in building structures necessary for survival

c)

Provides short term energy to the body

d)

Gives the body instructions for how to build our body's structures

65.
Plants store glucose in the form of
a)
starch
b)
glycogen
c)
cellulose
d)
chitin
66.
All compounds that end in ASE are..
a)
Sugars
b)
Enzymes
c)
DNA
d)
Fats
67.
What is a substance called if it speeds up a chemical reaction?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
68.
The attraction that causes water and other liquids to form drops on thin films is called ________________. This is also water’s ability to be attraction to other water molecules.
a)
adhesion
b)
capillary action
c)
cohesion
d)
surface tension
69.

Atoms are made up of what?

a)

molecules

b)

compounds

c)

elements

d)

subatomic particles

70.

Which of the following are subatomic particles? (Check all that apply)

a)

protons

b)

neutrons

c)

megatrons

d)

electrons

71.

Which subatomic particle has a positive charge?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

midichlorian

72.

Which subatomic particle has no charge, also known as a neutral charge?

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

chakra

73.

The nucleus of an atom contains which subatomic particles?

a)

protons and electrons

b)

protons and neutrons

c)

electrons and neutrons

d)

protons, electrons, and neutrons

74.
All living things are made up of...
a)
cells
b)
cell tissues
c)
organ
d)
organ systems
75.
All cells come from___________ cells.
a)
pregnant
b)
pre-existing
c)
paternal
d)
pin size
76.

What is the basic structural and functional unit of all living things?

a)

atom

b)

cell

c)

bacteria

d)

animalcules

77.
Cells are often called "the ____ of life."
a)
bread
b)
road map
c)
building blocks
d)
meaning
78.

The 3 parts of the Cell Theory are...?

a)

All living things are composed of cells

Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things

All cells are produced from other cells

b)

All living things are composed of cells

Cells are the basic units of dance and vibes in living things

All cells are destroyed from other aliens

c)

All living things are composed of Jell-O

Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things

All cells are produced from factories in Canada

d)

All living things are composed of cells

Cells do karate and practice eating whole pies in their free time

All cells are produced from other cells

79.

What does it mean to say that a cell membrane is semipermeable?

a)

it allows some materials to pass through

b)

it allows nothing to enter the cell, only to leave

c)

It only allows things into the cell and not out

d)

it allows all materials to pass through

80.

What is the function of an organelle?

a)

to take up space

b)

to carry out a specific function in the cell

c)

to carry out all the functions of a cell

d)

to create new cells

81.

What organelle do many ribosomes connect themselves to?

a)

lysosome

b)

mitochondria

c)

endoplasmic reticulum

d)

golgi apparatus

82.

Which organelle uses enzymes to break down waste in a cell?

a)

Lysosome

b)

Ribosome

c)

Chloroplast

d)

Golgi Apparatus

83.

What is the function of the mitochondria?

a)

to capture energy from the sun and turn it to sugar

b)

to release usable energy for the cell

c)

to store energy for when the cell needs it

d)

to remove waste from the cell

84.

What organelle allows plants to create their glucose?

a)

Mitochondira

b)

Lysosome

c)

Ribosome

d)

Chloroplast

85.

Which of the following is not one of the 5 things all cells have?

a)

cell membrane

b)

cytoplasm

c)

DNA

d)

nucleus

86.

What is the difference the key difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?

a)

Prokaryotes have a nucleus, Eukaryotes do not

b)

Eukaryotes have a nucleus, Prokaryotes do not

c)

Prokaryotes have a cell membrane, Eukaryotes do not

d)

Eukaryotes have ribosomes, Prokaryotes do not

87.

Which of the following organelles do plants have that animals to not? (Select all that apply)

a)

Cell wall

b)

Golgi Apparatus

c)

Endoplasmic Reticulum

d)

Chloroplasts

e)

Ribosomes

88.

Which organelle provides structure and protection to plant cells?

a)

cell membrane

b)

ribosome

c)

golgi apparatus

d)

cell wall

89.

What is the name of the "packages" the golgi body creates?

a)

Vacuoles

b)

Lysosomes

c)

Vesicles

d)

Ribosomes

90.

Which of the following is not part of the nucleus?

a)

Chromatin

b)

Centrioles

c)

Nuclear Envelope

d)

Nuclear Pores

e)

Nucleolus

91.

What type of cell is this?

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

Prokaryote

92.

What type of cell is this?

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

Prokaryote

93.

What type of cell is this?

a)

Plant

b)

Animal

c)

Prokaryote

94.
Which describes structure 3? 
a)
It serves as the site for protein synthesis. 
b)
It contains genetic information. 
c)
It transforms the sun's energy. 
d)
It stores water and nutrients. 
95.
All cells, prokaryotic and eukaryotic, have a few common features. Which cell feature is found in both the prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a)
ribosome
b)
chloroplast membrane
c)
nucleus
d)
endoplasmic reticulum
96.
What is the major difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells?
a)
Eukaryotic cells only have a flagellum. 
b)
Prokaryotic cells do not have a cell membrane. 
c)
Eukaryotic cells do not have membrane-bound structures. 
d)
Prokaryotic cells do not have membrane-bound structures. 
97.
Which is the best titles for A and B? 
a)
A is eukaryotic and B is prokaryotic. 
b)
A is prokaryotic and B is eukaryotic. 
c)
A is plant and B is animal. 
d)
A is animal and B is plant. 
98.
In which structure is protein synthesized? 
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
99.
Which number represents the vacuole? 
a)
3
b)
4
c)
8
d)
1
100.
Which number represents the chloroplasts? 
a)
7
b)
2
c)
8
d)
5
101.
Which number represents the nucleus? 
a)
1
b)
7
c)
5
d)
2
102.

The diffusion of water molecules through a selectively permeable membrane is:

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Osmosis

c)

Active Transport

d)

Equilibrium

103.

All matter is composed of very small particles called:

a)

Molecules

b)

Ions

c)

Solutes

d)

Isotopes

104.

The movement of molecules from a place where there is a greater/higher concentration to an area where there is lesser/lower concentration is:

a)

Homeostasis

b)

Diffusion

c)

Endocytosis

d)

Active Transport

105.

A selectively permeable membrane

a)

allows all substances to enter and leave

b)

prevents all substances from entering or leaving

c)

allows certain size substances to enter and leave

d)

allows only waste materials to leave

106.

A solution in which the concentration of solutes is the same inside and outside of a cell is a _____________________ solution.

a)

hypertonic

b)

hypotonic

c)

isotonic

d)

homeotonic

107.

If a red blood cell is placed in a solution that has a concentration gradient higher than the red blood cell, this type of solution is called:

a)

Isotonic

b)

Hypotonic

c)

Hypertonic

d)

Homeotonic

108.

If a red blood cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, it will eventually

a)

shrink up

b)

swell and burst

c)

no change will occur

d)

swell and not burst

109.

When substances move in and out of cells using only their own kinetic energy this is called:

a)

Active Transport

b)

Passive Transport

c)

Activation Energy

d)

Selective Transport

110.

Osmosis is a type of

a)

turgor pressure

b)

homeostasis

c)

active transport

d)

facilitated diffusion

111.

An example of diffusion is

a)

water molecules moving into a plant cell after rain

b)

red food coloring moving through water until the water is pink

c)

water molecules leaving the cells of a freshwater fish, when placed in a saltwater tank

d)

none of the above

112.

Which way will water molecules move if a red blood cell is placed in distilled water?

a)

Out of the red blood cell

b)

Into the red blood cell

c)

Water molecules will move in and out at the same rate

d)

No water molecules will move

113.

Because the human body is 60% water, an important process which helps humans and all living things maintain a “normal” internal cellular environment even when external surroundings are constantly changing is:

a)

diffusion

b)

osmosis

c)

active transport

d)

carrier transport

114.

Molecular movement continues even when there is no overall change in concentration. This is referred to as:

a)

active transport

b)

passive transport

c)

homeostasis

d)

equilibrium

115.

The difference in the concentration of a substance across a space is called:

a)

kinetic energy gradient

b)

solvent gradient

c)

concentration gradient

d)

dynamic equilibrium

116.

Cell "eating" is referred to as which of the following?

a)

phagocytosis

b)

exocytosis

c)

pinocytosis

d)

passive transport

117.

Cell "drinking" is referred to as which of the following?

a)

phagocytosis

b)

pinocytosis

c)

exocytosis

d)

passive transport

118.

A cell that is 90% water and 10% solute is placed in a solution that is 90% water and 10% solute. Which of the following is correct?

a)

it is hypertonic because water is exiting the cell.

b)

it is isotonic because the concentration is the same inside and outside the cell.

c)

it is hypotonic because water is entering the cell.

d)

it is hypertonic because water is entering the cell.

119.

A cell that is 80% water and 20% solute is placed in a solution that is 60% water and 40% solute. Which of the following is correct?

a)

It is isotonic because the concentration is the same inside and outside the cell.

b)

It is hypertonic because water is exiting the cell.

c)

It is hypotonic because water is entering the cell.

d)

It is hypertonic because water is entering the cell.

120.

A cell that is 70% water and 30% solute is placed in a solution that is 75% water and 25% solute. Which of the following is correct?

a)

It is isotonic because the concentration is the same inside and outside the cell.

b)

It is hypertonic because water is exiting the cell.

c)

It is hypotonic because water is entering the cell.

d)

It is hypertonic because water is entering the cell.

121.

What can happen to a cell in a hypotonic solution?

a)

It can shrink and shrivel up.

b)

It can swell and burst.

c)

Nothing will happen.

d)

All of these are correct.

122.
A homozygous dominant dog with brown fur is crossed with a heterozygous dog with brown fur. What are the percentages of the possible genotypes?
a)
100% BB
b)
75% BB and 25%Bb
c)
50 % BB and 50% Bb
d)
50% Bb and 50% bb
123.

Who is considered the "father" of modern genetics?

a)

Einstein

b)

Mendel

c)

Disney

d)

Washington

124.
What type of "square" helps us solve genetic problems?
a)
carpenter square
b)
Mendel square
c)
Punnett square
d)
genetic square
125.
TT,tt,PP,pp,SS,ss are examples of alleles that are?
a)
homozygous
b)
heterozygous
c)
different
d)
homologous 
126.
The exact genetic makeup of an organism, such as RR, Tt, PP is its?
a)
phenotype
b)
dominance
c)
genotype
d)
trait
127.
Y for yellow body is dominant over y for blue body.  What alleles would produce yellow bodies?
a)
YY,yy
b)
Yy,yy
c)
YY only
d)
YY,Yy
128.
Females-XX; MalesXY.  A couple has 4 girls.  What is the chance the next child will be a boy?
a)
75%
b)
100%
c)
25%
d)
50%
129.
If "T" is the allele for tall and "t" is the allele for short, then Tt would produce?
a)
tall
b)
short
c)
medium
d)
not enough info
130.
A physical characteristic that can be passed from parent to offspring.
a)
behavior
b)
trait
c)
strong muscles
d)
ability to fly a plane.
131.
Aa is
a)
homozygous (purebred)
b)
heterozygous (hybrid)
132.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
Aa
b)
red hair
c)
heterozygous genes
d)
mutated DNA
133.
Which of the following alleles is homozygous (purebred) recessive?
a)
Tt
b)
tt
c)
TT
d)
t
134.
T - tall and t = short
In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square
a)
tt
b)
Tt
c)
Bb
d)
TT
135.
Genotype refers to the ...
a)
physical expression of the genes
b)
the possible combination of alleles in a gene
c)
whether an allele is dominant or recessive
d)
how an organism will appear
136.
In cacti, long arms (A) are dominant to short arms (a).  Suppose 2 heterozygous cacti are crossed.  What percentage of their offspring are expected to have short arms?
a)
0%
b)
25%
c)
75%
d)
100%
137.
When a person has two different alleles for a gene, they are said to be
a)
heterozygous
b)
homozygous
138.
What are the possible genotypes for this cross?
a)
TT = 25% Tt= 50% tt=25%
b)
all tall
c)
TT= 75% tt = 25%
d)
Tt = 100%
139.

An allele (T) for tongue-rolling is dominant over non-tongue rolling. What would be the genotypes of both parents if all of the offspring in the F1 generation are non-tongue rolling?

a)

TT X Tt

b)

Tt X tt

c)

tt X tt

d)

TT X tt

140.
Round seeds (R) are dominant over wrinkled seeds (r). What percentage of the offspring will be round from the following cross?
RR X Rr
a)
100%
b)
75%
c)
50%
d)
25%
141.
A homozygous round seeded plant is crossed with a homozygous wrinkled seeded plant. What percentage of the offspring will be homozygous recessive?
R = round
r = wrinkled
a)
75%
b)
50%
c)
25%
d)
0%
142.
The term for the different forms of a trait. 
a)
DNA
b)
Chromosomes
c)
Genes
d)
Alleles
143.
The hidden trait.  You need two of these alleles for the trait to show.
a)
Dominant
b)
Recessive
c)
Hidden
d)
Overt
144.
This is an example of ___________?
a)
Incomplete dominance
b)
Co-Dominance
145.

When one allele is not dominant over the other, resulting in both traits expressed in a heterozygous individual.....

a)

Incomplete Dominance

b)

Codominance

146.
A calico cat shows both the traits for orange fur and black fur. What kind of allele expression is this?
a)
Incomplete Dominance
b)
Co dominance
c)
Independent assortment
d)
Recessive inheritance
147.
What goes in box 3
a)
Aabb
b)
AABB
c)
AAbb
d)
aaBb
148.
Using the dihybrid cross and key provided, what is the probability of the offspring being tall and white?
a)
9
b)
2
c)
3
d)
6
149.

Based off this punnett square, what fraction of the offspring will have wrinkled, yellow seeds?

a)

9/16

b)

3/16

c)

1/16

d)

16/16

150.

What is the scientific term that refers to sex cells?

a)

autosome

b)

gamete

c)

karyotype

d)

chromosome

151.

This term refers to half the normal chromosome number

a)

haploid

b)

2N

c)

diploid

d)

3N

152.

The stage of meiosis where crossing over or the exchange of genetic information happens between pairs of chromosomes

a)

Prophase II

b)

Telophase I

c)

Metaphase II

d)

Prophase I

153.

All sperm and egg cells are genetically identical.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

154.

The term that refers to a cell that has its full or complete number of chromosomes is

a)

diploid

b)

N

c)

gamete

d)

haplpoid

155.

Name the stage: Chromosomes line up in the middle of the cell.

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

156.

Sea turtles have 56 chromosome in their somatic cells. How many chromosomes are in their gametes?

a)

28

b)

56

c)

112

d)

46

157.

What is another term for body cells?

a)

somatic cells

b)

gamete

c)

stem cell

d)

neural cell

158.

The four cells that are produced after Meiosis are _______.

a)

haploid because they contain just half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell.

b)

diploid because they contain as many chromosomes as the parent cell.

c)

diploid because they contain twice as many chromosomes as the parent cell.

159.

What effect does crossing over has in terms of traits of offspring?

a)

Results in identical traits of offsprings.

b)

Causes variation in the traits of offsprings.

c)

It really does nothing to the traits of offspring.

160.

Check all the blood types that exist in humans.

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

161.

If a red blood cell has A antigens on its surface, what is its blood type?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

162.

Which blood type is the Universal Donor?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

AB

d)

O

163.

What happens if a person receives blood from a blood type that is incompatible to them?

a)

They could die

b)

Nothing, no harm done

164.

Mendel's law of dominance means

a)

genes from parents are dominant in the offspring

b)

one allele of a gene is dominant over the other

c)

two genes are both showing up in the offspring

d)

blending of traits results in a new phenotype

165.

blood type AA x blood type BB= type AB in offspring blood type

a)

codominance

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

dominant and recessive genes

166.

What is the gender of this person?

a)

Male

b)

Female

167.

What is a karyotype?

a)

An image that shows all of the DNA within an organism

b)

An image that shows the chromosomes from a single cell within a single organism

c)

The entire genetic sequence of humans

168.

How many CHROMOSOME PAIRS does this karyotype have?

a)

10

b)

13

c)

16

169.
What does a filled in square represent?
a)
Not affected Female
b)
Not affected Male
c)
Affected Male
d)
Affected Female
170.
How many generations are shown in this pedigree?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
171.
What do half colored symbols represent?
a)
The individual is a carrier (heterozygous).
b)
The individual expresses the trait.
c)
The individual has both recessive alleles.
d)
The individual has both dominant alleles.
172.
In the second generation-how many people are carriers of the trait?
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
d)
6
173.

What is the genotype of individual IV – 2?

a)

HH

b)

HY

c)

hh

d)

Yh

174.

Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive disease .


Study the pedigree what are the possible genotypes of #10? (more than one answer)

a)

AA

b)

Aa

c)

aa

d)

XAXa

175.

A genetic disorder in which the body produces abnormally thick mucus in the lungs and intestines.

a)

down syndrome

b)

sickle-cell disease

c)

cystic fibrosis

d)

hemophilia

176.

A genetic disorder that causes the red blood cells of people with the disease to have an unusual sickle shape.

a)

sickle-cell disease

b)

hemophilia

c)

down syndrome

d)

cystic fibrosis

177.

A genetic disorder in which a person's blood clots very slowly or not at all.

a)

cystic fibrosis

b)

sickle-cell disease

c)

hemophilia

d)

down syndrome

178.
What does NOT happen during interphase?
a)
growth
b)
DNA replication 
c)
obtaining nutrients
d)
cell divison
179.
Cells spend the majority of their lives in
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Synthesis 
d)
Gap 2
180.

DNA is replicated during ______ of the cell cycle.

a)

Gap 1

b)

Synthesis (S phase)

c)

Gap 2

d)

Gap 0

181.

DNA is replicated during ______ of the cell cycle.

a)

Gap 1

b)

Synthesis (S phase)

c)

Gap 2

d)

Gap 0

182.
What is cytokinesis?
a)
This is when two cells merge together to make one giant cell.
b)
The stage where chromosomes migrate to the opposite ends of the cell. 
c)
The stage of the cell cycle where the rest of the cell divides after mitosis is complete.
d)
The stage in which DNA condenses into chromosomes.
183.
Identify the parts of the nucleotide shown:
a)
1) Ribose Sugar      2) Phosphate 
3)  Nitrogen Base
b)
1) Deoxyribose Sugar
2) Phosphate
3) Nitrogen Base
c)
1) Phosphate
2) Ribose Sugar
3) Nitrogen Base
d)
1)  Phosphate
2) Deoxyribose Sugar
3)  Nitrogen Base
184.
What occurs during G1?
a)
Checkpoint after S phase
b)
Chromosomes line up at the equator.
c)
The cell grows and develops.
d)
Spindle fibers separate chromosomes to opposite poles of the cell. 
185.

These undifferentiated cells can become specialized cells after receiving a chemical signal.

a)

stem cells

b)

generic cells

c)

blank cells

d)

empty cells

186.

When cells go through mitosis repeatedly without entering interphase, this results

a)

arthritis

b)

cancer

c)

mutation

d)

diabetes

187.

The D in DNA stands for

a)

double stranded

b)

deoxyribo

c)

denature

d)

dicarbo

188.

DNA is copied during

a)

During cell division

b)

All the time

c)

During protein production

189.

Which of the following is NOT part of a nucleotide

a)

sugar

b)

phosphate

c)

nitrogen base

d)

amino acid

190.

Adenine pairs with

a)

Thymine

b)

Thyme

c)

Guanine

d)

Glutamine

191.

The backbone of DNA is made of

a)

base pairs

b)

sugars and phosphates

c)

only sugars

d)

only phosphates

192.

The two strands of DNA are held together with

a)

covalent bonds

b)

hydrogen bonds

c)

nothing

193.

If a DNA molecule has 30% Guanine bases, how many Cytosine bases will it have?

a)

30%

b)

25%

c)

20%

d)

10%

194.

One function of DNA is to

a)

code for proteins

b)

code for lipids

c)

code for carbohydrates

195.

The first step in DNA replication is

a)

to unwind and unzip the two strands

b)

to break the backbone in half so the sequence can be copies

c)

to attach new nucleotides

d)

to proof read the sequence

196.

What does semiconservative replication mean?

a)

that the DNA is proof read at the end of the process

b)

that the newly made DNA has one strand from the original DNA and one new strand

c)

that the newly made DNA will send half of its strand to one cell and leave the old strand in the original cell

d)

that the original DNA strands come back together after replication is over

197.

Which is this picture showing?

a)

Protein synthesis

b)

DNA replication

c)

Gene editing

198.

What is the name of this?

a)

DNA

b)

deoxyribose sugar

c)

nucleotide

d)

nitrogenous base

199.

The DNA sequence is TTA CCG What is the complementary sequence?

a)

TTA CCG

b)

AAT GGC

c)

GGC AAT

200.

The DNA sequence is ATG what is the complementary sequence?

a)

ATG

b)

GTA

c)

TAC

201.

Semiconservative replication is how DNA reproduces. What does it mean

a)

DNA will only partially copy itself

b)

One strand is kept as a template to build the other new strand

c)

One strand is upside down to the other strand.

d)

One strand is made of DNA while the other strand is made of proteins

202.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

203.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

204.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

205.

These building blocks consist of a sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen base.

a)

Ribose

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Gene

d)

Protein

206.

How many amino acids are found on one tRNA?

a)

20

b)

4

c)

1

d)

3

207.

Which of the following is the complementary mRNA sequence to this DNA strand: AACTGAA

a)

UUGACUU

b)

TTGACTT

c)

AACTGAA

d)

AACUGAA

208.
DNA sequence is ACAGTGC. How would this be coded on mRNA?
a)
TGTCACG
b)
UGUCACG
c)
GUGACAU
d)
CACUGUA
209.
Genetic info flows in one direction. Which best represents this flow?
a)
DNA-protein-RNA
b)
Protein-RNA-DNA
c)
RNA-protein-DNA
d)
DNA-RNA-protein
210.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
211.
What is the term for a three-nucleotide sequence that codes for an amino acid?
a)
base
b)
codon
c)
amine
d)
serine
212.
Which of the following is the site of transcription?
a)
vacuole
b)
lysosome
c)
nucleus
d)
ribosome
213.
The process to go from DNA to mRNA is _______
a)
translation
b)
transcription
c)
replication
214.
The process to go from mRNA to a protein is called ____
a)
transcription
b)
rRNA
c)
replication
d)
translation
215.
An RNA molecule is
a)
double helix
b)
always double stranded
c)
usually double stranded
d)
single stranded
216.
In mRNA, each codon specifies a particular 
a)
nucleotide
b)
amino acid
c)
purine
d)
pyrimidine
217.

. What are the building blocks of proteins called?

a)

nucleotides

b)

proteins

c)

amino acids

d)

carbohydrates

218.
How many bases are in one codon?
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
219.
Using the codon identify the amino acid sequence:
AUG-CCA-GUA-GGG-UAA
a)
MET-HIS-ALA-GLY-STOP
b)
MET-PRO-GLY-VAL-STOP
c)
MET-PRO-VAL-GLY-STOP
d)
MET-THR-SER-ASP-STOP
220.
What is this a picture of?
a)
mRNA
b)
tRNA
c)
rRNA
d)
pRNA
221.
Which amino acid is made from the RNA codon UUA?
a)
Phenylalanine
b)
Leucine
c)
Serine
d)
Tyrosine
222.
Process in which amino acids are assembled into proteins at the ribosome?
a)
Translation
b)
Transcription
c)
Meiosis
d)
Replication
223.
Which structure reads the mRNA codons?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Golgi Body
d)
Enzyme
224.
What type of molecule is the end product of translation?
a)
Glucose
Glucose
b)
Fatty Acid
c)
Glycogen
d)
Protein
225.

Overall, protein synthesis consists of these steps

a)

DNA synthesis, RNA synthesis and transcription

b)

transcription and translation

c)

DNA synthesis, transcription and translation

226.
If you are missing or have an extra base  at the end of your mutated DNA . What type of mutation occurred?
a)
Substitution
b)
Frameshift
c)
Duplication 
d)
Insertion
227.
DNA molecule segment is : TTACGCAAG
The mutated DNA segment is TTCGCAAG. This is an example of ___ mutation.
a)
Substitution
b)
Deletion
c)
Insertion
d)
Inversion
228.
What is a Gene?
a)
A segment of RNA that encodes for a protein
b)
A chromosome
c)
A segment of DNA that encodes for a protein
d)
Your genome
229.
Normal-
GAG-CTC-GAC-AGA
Mutant
GAG CTC-CAC-AGA
a)
no mutation
b)
substitution
c)
insertion
d)
deletion
230.

Which of the following is an example of a harmful mutation?

a)

Developing cancer

b)

Makes the organism faster

c)

Makes the organism a predator

d)

Develops sharp claws

231.

What did Avery (The Scientist) discover about DNA?

a)

DNA stores and transmits the genetic information from one generation of an organism to the next.

b)

DNA has a look of a double Helix

232.

Used model-building to determine the structure of DNA.

a)

Frederick Griffith & Oswald Avery

b)

Maurice Wilkins & Rosalind Franklin

c)

Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase

d)

James Watson & Francis Crick

e)

Erwin Chargaff

233.

Used X-ray crystallography to determine the structure of DNA.

a)

Frederick Griffith & Oswald Avery

b)

Maurice Wilkins & Rosalind Franklin

c)

Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase

d)

James Watson & Francis Crick

e)

Erwin Chargaff

234.

Used bacteria, viruses, radioactive isotopes, a centrifuge, & a blender to prove once and for all that DNA was the hereditary molecule.

a)

Frederick Griffith & Oswald Avery

b)

Maurice Wilkins & Rosalind Franklin

c)

Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase

d)

James Watson & Francis Crick

e)

Erwin Chargaff

235.

Whose experiment?

a)

Frederick Griffith & Oswald Avery

b)

Maurice Wilkins & Rosalind Franklin

c)

Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase

d)

James Watson & Francis Crick

e)

Erwin Chargaff

236.

Whose experiment?

a)

Frederick Griffith

b)

Maurice Wilkins & Rosalind Franklin

c)

Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase

d)

James Watson & Francis Crick

e)

Oswald Avery, Colin MacLeod, and Maclyn McCarty

237.

Whose experiment?

a)

Frederick Griffith & Oswald Avery

b)

Maurice Wilkins & Rosalind Franklin

c)

Alfred Hershey & Martha Chase

d)

James Watson & Francis Crick

e)

Erwin Chargaff

Similar Resources on Wayground

Ecology

237 questions

Ecology

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade

1st Semester Review

240 questions

1st Semester Review

quiz

Worksheet

•

9th - 12th Grade