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Winter Break Assignment!!!!

Total questions: 95

Worksheet time: 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Before conducting an experiment, two students gathered information about the effect of greenhouse gases on global warming. Student A found information in a newspaper article. Student B found information in several peer-reviewed scientific journals and on three websitesAfter gathering the information, the students presented the information to their class. The class gave the students suggestions about how to continue with their experiment. How does this step benefit the investigation?

a)

Feedback from the class will help them design a better experiment.

b)

Feedback creates confusion, and will complicate the investigation.

c)

The students' investigation will be unaffected because the class is not carrying out the

experiment.

d)

The investigation will be unchanged because students can use information only from

published sources to design the experiment.

2.

A student performed an experiment to see if water temperature affects the level of activity in aquatic snails. The student set up four tanks with five snails in each tank. All four of the setups were identical in every way, except for the temperature of the water. In order to make the conclusions more valid, the student could

a)

alter the pH of the water

b)

change the size of the tank

c)

carry out the experiment for a shorter period of

time

d)

use a larger number of snails

3.

Which activity would be an appropriate first step when designing an experiment?

a)

reporting a conclusion based on multiple experimental trials

b)

researching the problem, using information from a variety of sources

c)

creating a data table to organize experimental observations

d)

repeating the experiment with a different hypothesis

4.

A biologist formulates a hypothesis, performs experiments to test his hypothesis, makes careful observations, and keeps accurate records of his findings. In order to complete this process, the biologist should

a)

adjust the data to support the hypothesis

b)

 eliminate data that do not support the

hypothesis

c)

write a research paper explaining his theories

before performing his experiments, in order to

gain funding sources

d)

 evaluate the findings and, if necessary, alter

the hypothesis based on his findings, and test the new hypothesis

5.

A company that manufactures a popular multivitamin wanted to determine whether their multivitamin had any side effects. For its initial study, the company chose 2000 individuals to take one of their multivitamin tablets per day for one year. Scientists from the company surveyed the participants to determine whether they had experienced any side effects. The greatest problem with this procedure is that

a)

only one brand of vitamin was tested

b)

the study lasted only one year

c)

the sample size was not large enough

d)

no control group was used

6.

Which statement about the use of independent variables in controlled experiments is correct?

a)

A different independent variable must be used each time an experiment is repeated.

b)

The independent variables must involve time.

c)

 Only one independent variable is used for

each experiment.

d)

The independent variables state the problem

being tested.

7.

Which compound is inorganic?

a)

glucose (C6Hl2O6)

b)

carbon dioxide (CO2)

c)

ethane (C2H6)

d)

stearic acid (Cl8H36O2)

8.

Which elements are present in all organic

compounds?

a)

hydrogen and oxygen

b)

nitrogen and oxygen

c)

nitrogen and carbon

d)

hydrogen and carbon

9.

Which compound is a polysaccharide?

a)

glucose

b)

maltase

c)

ribose

d)

starch

10.

Which organic compound is correctly matched

with the subunit that composes it?

a)

maltose–amino acid

b)

starch–glucose

c)

protein–fatty acid

d)

lipid–sucrose

11.

Which statement best describes point A and point

B on the graph?

a)

The concentration of sugars is greater at

point A than it is at point B

b)

The concentration of sugars is greater at

point B than it is at point A.

c)

The starch concentration is the same at point

A as it is at point B.

d)

The starch concentration is greater at point B

than it is at point A.

12.

The way a protein molecule is folded determines the shape of the molecule, which determines the

a)

function of that protein

b)

structure of ATP containing that protein

c)

type of simple sugars in that protein

d)

amino acids in that protein

13.

The shape of a protein is originally determined by the

a)

size of the protein molecule

b)

location of the protein within the cell

c)

arrangement of amino acids in the protein

d)

function the protein must carry out

14.

What is the shape of a protein molecule

influenced by?

a)

whether it is organic or inorganic

b)

changes in temperature or pH

c)

the number of genes found in the nucleus

d)

the number of chromosomes in the cell

15.

Plants such as the Venus flytrap produce chemical compounds that break down insects into substances that are usable by the plant. The chemical compounds that break down the insects are most likely

a)

fats

b)

minerals

c)

biological catalysts

d)

complex carbohydrates

16.

Which statement best describes enzymes?

a)

They slow down the rate of breathing.

b)

They are the building blocks of polymers.

c)

They speed up the conduction of impulses

along a nerve cell.

d)

They influence the rate of chemical reactions.

17.

The diagram below illustrates the movement of glucose across a cell membrane.

Which two processes are most directly represented in this diagram?

a)

ATP synthesis and the diffusion of water

b)

molecule transport and energy use

c)

homeostasis and ATP synthesis

d)

homeostasis and the diffusion of water

18.

The diagram below represents a cell and some molecules in its environment.

Which molecule would require the use of energy in order to be brought into the cell?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

19.

A substance is most likely to diffuse into a cell when

a)

it is a large organic food molecule such as protein or starch

b)

it is enclosed in an organelle such as a vacuole

c)

the concentration of the substance is greater outside the cell than inside

d)

the pH of the substance is greater than the pH of the cell

20.

The diagram below shows the same type of molecules in area A and area B. With the passage of time, some

molecules move from area A to area B.

This movement is the result of which process?

a)

transpiration

b)

respiration

c)

active transport

d)

diffusion

21.

Which dissolved substance do aquatic animals remove from their external environment for use in cellular respiration?

a)

carbon dioxide

b)

ATP molecules

c)

oxygen molecules

d)

nitrogen gas

22.

Which life process carried out by a green plant is represented in the diagram below?

a)

respiration

b)

photosynthesis

c)

digestion

d)

replication

23.

The energy used to obtain, transfer, and transport materials within an organism comes directly from

a)

ATP

b)

DNA

c)

sunlight

d)

starch

24.

During the process of photosynthesis, energy from the Sun is converted into

a)

chemical energy in the bonds of inorganic molecules

b)

chemical energy in the bonds of organic molecules

c)

enzymes used to produce inorganic molecules

d)

enzymes used to produce organic molecules

25.

The diagram below represents levels of organization in living things.Which term would best represent X?

a)

human

b)

tissue

c)

stomach

d)

organelle

26.

In which cell structure is energy extracted from nutrients?

a)

chloroplast

b)

ribosome

c)

mitochondrion

d)

vacuole

27.

An ameba is a single-celled organism. It uses its cell membrane to obtain food from its environment, digests the food with the help of organelles called lysosomes, and uses other organelles to process the digested food. From this, we can best infer that

a)

all single-celled organisms have lysosomes to digest food

b)

amebas are capable of digesting any type of food molecule

c)

single-celled organisms are as complex as multicellular organisms

d)

structures in amebas have functions similar to organs in multicellular organisms

28.

Which cell structure is represented by B?

a)

vacuole

b)

ribosome

c)

cytoplasm

d)

chloroplast

29.

One primary function of the cell membrane is

a)

regulating the flow of simple sugars into or out of the cell

b)

synthesizing substances by breaking down cell organelles

c)

storing carbohydrates, water, and starches for future use

d)

digesting carbohydrates, fats, and protein

30.

Which cell structures are correctly paired with their functions?

a)

The mitochondria produce enzymes, and ribosomes transport them.

b)

The ribosomes make proteins, and the nucleus stores genetic information.

c)

The cell membrane make enzymes, and cytoplasm transports them.

d)

The vacuole stores genetic information, and chloroplasts make proteins.

31.

The function of which cell part is most similar to that of the human excretory system?

a)

A

b)

B

c)

C

d)

D

32.

Before starch can enter a cell, it must be

a)

absorbed by simple sugars

b)

diffused into simple sugars

c)

digested to form simple sugars

d)

actively transported by simple sugars

33.

The diagram below represents a portion of the human body.

The principal function of structure X is to

a)

produce salivary enzymes

b)

secrete sex hormones

c)

absorb water

d)

digest bile

34.

Which process is illustrated in the diagrams below?

a)

circulation

b)

absorption

c)

peristalsis

d)

ingestion

35.

What is the role of teeth in digestion?

a)

They break down food chemically, aiding the movement of the food through the esophagus.

b)

They break down food chemically, mixing saliva with the food for easier digestion.

c)

They break down food mechanically, increasing the surface area of the food for enzyme action.

d)

They break down food mechanically, stimulating enzyme synthesis in the food.

36.

An infection in the body might result in a sudden

a)

decrese in the activity of antigens produced by the mitochondria

b)

decrese in the amount of DNA present in the nuclei of cells

c)

increase in the activity of white blood cells

d)

increase in the number of red blood cells

37.

A process that occurs in the human body is represented in the diagram below. Which statement is most closely associated with the diagram?

a)

Small molecules are obtained from large molecules during digestion.

b)

Certain molecules are replicated by means of a template.

c)

Receptor molecules play an important role in communication between cells.

d)

Energy from nutrients is utilized for waste disposal.

38.

After a hormone enters the bloodstream, it is transported throughout the body, but the hormone affects only certain cells. Only certain cells are affected because the membranes of these cells have what specific

structures?

a)

receptors

b)

tissues

c)

antibodies

d)

carbohydrates

39.

A similarity between the nervous system and the endocrine system in humans is that they both

a)

are composed of neurons

b)

are composed of glands

c)

maintain homeostasis

d)

secrete chemicals across synapses

40.

Cells of the immune system are able to respond to the presence of invading

organisms because they recognize the

a)

antigens present on the invaders

b)

antibodies present in invading pathogens

c)

DNA pattern in the nuclei of viruses

d)

antibiotics released from microbes

41.

Which activity is not a response of human white blood cells to pathogens?

a)

engulfing and destroying bacteria

b)

producing antibodies

c)

identifying invaders for destruction

d)

removing carbon dioxide

42.

Which type of pathogenic microbe causes AIDS?

a)

a bacterium

b)

a virus

c)

a multicellular fungus

d)

a single-celled algae

43.

A vaccine for the viral disease known as chicken pox would contain

a)

a large amount of live virus

b)

several different antibiotics

c)

a dead or weakened form of the pathogen

d)

a small number of white blood cells

44.

Drugs to reduce the risk of rejection are given to organ transplant patients because the donated organ contains

a)

foreign antigens

b)

foreign antibodies

c)

DNA molecules

d)

pathogenic microbe

45.

Which disorder could develop in the human body when the immune system attacks

a usually harmless environmental substance?

a)

AIDS

b)

cancer

c)

an allergy

d)

an infection

46.

Which statement does not identify a characteristic of antibodies?

a)

They are produced by the body in response to the presence of foreign

substances.

b)

They may be produced in response to an antigen.

c)

They are nonspecific, acting against any foreign substance in the body.

d)

They may be produced by white blood cells.

47.

Which phrases best identify characteristics of asexual reproduction?

a)

one parent, union of gametes, offspring similar to but not genetically identical to the parent

b)

one parent, no union of gametes, offspring genetically identical to parents

c)

two parents, union of gametes, offspring similar to but not genetically identical to parents

d)

two parents, no union of gametes, offspring genetically identical to parents

48.

One function of the male reproductive system in mammals is to

a)

produce insulin necessary for sexual reproduction

b)

transport eggs necessary for fertilization

c)

allow for delivery of gametes needed for reproduction

d)

provide protection for the developing zygote

49.

The inability of sperm cells to move normally could prevent the production of offspring by interfering with

a)

meiosis

b)

mitosis

c)

fertilization

d)

differentiation

50.

A reproductive system is represented in the diagram below. If an injury occurred to the structure labeled A, the most likely result would be a problem with

a)

delivery of sperm

b)

production of gametes

c)

production of hormones

d)

excretion of urine

51.

The reproductive system of the human male produces gametes and

a)

transfers gametes to the female for internal fertilization

b)

produces enzymes that prevent fertilization

c)

releases hormones involved in external fertilization

d)

provides an area for fertilization

52.

The reproductive cycle in females is regulated primarily by

a)

estrogen and testosterone

b)

estrogen and progesterone

c)

progesterone and insulin

d)

progesterone and testosterone

53.

In which structure would both mitosis and differentiation of an embryo occur?

a)

G

b)

B

c)

E

d)

D

54.

Essential materials needed for development are transported to a human fetus through the

a)

reproductive hormones

b)

egg cell

c)

placenta

d)

ovaries

55.

What is the human female reproductive system adapted for?

a)

production of zygotes in ovaries

b)

external fertilization of gametes

c)

production of milk for a developing embryo

d)

transport of oxygen through a placenta to a fetus

56.

The reproductive cycle of a human is usually regulated by

a)

sex cells

b)

hormones

c)

natural selection

d)

immune responses

57.

In humans, a sperm cell and an egg cell normally fuse in the upper portion of the

a)

cervix

b)

vagina

c)

oviduct

d)

ovary

58.

The diagram below shows an alteration that occurred during the replication process of a portion of a gene. The numbers identify the locations of specific bases in the sequence

This alterations is most likely the result of

a)

a substitution at base 2

b)

a deletion of base 4

c)

an insertion of base 3

d)

a deletion of base 2

59.

Human genetic material is represented in the diagram below.

The region labeled A is made up of a section of

a)

a protein that becomes an enzyme

b)

DNA that may direct protein synthesis

c)

a carbohydrate made from amino acids

d)

glucose that may be copied to make DNA

60.

Changing one base in a gene could have the most direct effect on the

a)

 function of the membrane of a cell

b)

sequence of building blocks of a protein found

in a cell

c)

number of mitochondria in a cell

d)

type of carbohydrates synthesized by a cell

61.

The diagram below represents a portion DNA molecule.

The letters represent different types of

a)

sugar molecules

b)

molecular bases

c)

enzymes

d)

proteins

62.

Part of a molecule found in cells is represented below.

Which process is most directly affected by the arrangement of components 1 through 4?

a)

diffusion through cell membranes

b)

fertilization of a sex cell

c)

sequencing of amino acids in cells

d)

increasing the number of cells in an organism

63.

What is the relationship between these three structures?

a)

DNA is made up of proteins that are synthesized in the cell.

b)

Protein is composed of DNA that is stored in the cell.

c)

DNA controls the production of protein in the cell.

d)

The cell is composed only of DNA and protein.

64.

Which statement best describes the main function of this type of molecule?

a)

It is a structural part of the cell wall.

b)

It stores energy for metabolic processes.

c)

It determines what traits may be inherited.

d)

It transports materials across the cell

membrane.

65.

Researchers have found that formaldehyde and asbestos can alter DNA base sequences. Based on this research, the use of these chemicals has been greatly reduced because they

a)

may act as fertilizers, increasing the growth of algae in ponds

b)

have been replaced by more toxic compounds

c)

are capable of causing mutations in humans

d)

interfere with the production of antibiotics by

white blood cells

66.

Which statement is correct regarding the cells and DNA?

a)

All the cells have identical DNA.

b)

The DNA of the fertilized egg differs from the DNA of all the other cells.

c)

The DNA of the fertilized egg differs from some, but not all, of the other cells.

d)

Only the fertilized egg contains DNA.

67.

Which statement is true regarding an alteration or change in DNA?

a)

It is always known as a mutation.

b)

It is always advantageous to an individual.

c)

It is always passed on to offspring.

d)

It is always detected by the process of

chromatography.

68.

A sequence of three nitrogenous bases in a messenger-RNA molecule is known as a

a)

codon

b)

gene

c)

polypeptide

d)

nucleotide

69.

Which base is normally used in the synthesis of RNA but not in the synthesis of DNA?

a)

adenine

b)

uracil

c)

cytosine

d)

guanine

70.

In a cell, the transfer of genetic information from DNA to RNA occurs in the

a)

cell membrane

b)

endoplasmic reticulum

c)

nucleus

d)

nucleolus

71.

In a cell, protein synthesis is the primary function of

a)

ribosomes

b)

mitochondria

c)

chloroplasts

d)

vacuoles

72.

What is the sequence of subunits in a protein most directly dependent on?

a)

the region in the cell where enzymes are produced

b)

DNA in the chromosomes in a cell

c)

the type of cell in which starch is found

d)

kinds of materials in the cell membrane

73.

Over the past few thousand years, humans have helped to bring about changes in many plant and animal species in order to make them more useful. Examples include strong workhorses, hunting dogs, large-eared corn, and beautiful flower varieties. These changes were primarily brought about by humans, using the process of

a)

mitosis

b)

selective breeding

c)

cloning

d)

natural selection

74.

For those individuals who have an allergic reaction to cats, a company in Los Angeles promises relief. They offer a new line of cats genetically modified to eliminate or reduce their allergy-causing properties. The development of this new line of cats most likely involved

a)

using natural selection to produce a new variety of cat

b)

altering the reproductive rate of cats

c)

changing the behavior of cats

d)

manipulating the DNA of cats

75.

Selective breeding is a technique that is used to

a)

give all organisms a chance to reproduce

b)

produce offspring with certain desirable traits

c)

produce organisms from extinct species

d)

keep farm crops free of all mutations

76.

The arrows in the diagram below indicate the development of four different varieties of vegetable plants from wild mustard.

Each of these varieties was most likely produced as a result of

a)

asexual reproduction in the wild for many years

b)

changes in light availability

c)

competition between plants

d)

selective breeding over many generations

77.

To produce large tomatoes that are resistant to cracking and splitting, some seed companies use the pollen from one variety of tomato plant to fertilize a different variety of tomato plant. This process is an example of

a)

selective breeding

b)

DNA sequencing

c)

direct harvesting

d)

cloning

78.

Artificial selection is illustrated by

a)

random mating taking place in a population

b)

the appearance of a new species on an isolated island

c)

a gardener producing a new hybrid by cross-pollinating plants

d)

wind assisting the pollination of grass in a field

79.

Which phrase best describes a possible result of this process?

a)

the production of gametes having both human and bacterial DNA

b)

the production of a human hormone by the bacterial cell

c)

the introduction of a pathogen into a human cell

d)

the separation of DNA fingerprints in the bacterial cell

80.

Scientists have found a gene in the DNA of a certain plant that could be the key to increasing the amount of lycopene, a cancer-fighting substance, in tomatoes.

The ability to produce increased amounts of lycopene will be passed on to new tomato cells as a direct result of

a)

recycling

b)

mitosis

c)

enzyme action

d)

gene expression

81.

Scientists have found a gene in the DNA of a certain plant that could be the key to increasing the amount of lycopene, a cancer-fighting substance, in tomatoes.

The process of inserting this gene into the DNA of a tomato plant is known as

a)

selective breeding

b)

genetic engineering

c)

cloning

d)

replication

82.

A student performed a gel electrophoresis experiment. The results are represented in the diagram below.

Compared to the fragments at the top of the gel, the fragments at the lower end are

a)

larger, and move slower

b)

larger, and move faster

c)

smaller, and move faster

d)

smaller, and move slower

83.

If a gene is inserted into the DNA of a bacterial cell, every cell produced by that cell will have

a)

DNA that is different from that of the other cells produced

b)

a 50% chance of having a copy of the inserted gene

c)

a copy of the inserted gene

d)

a new type of DNA base

84.

The DNA of a human cell can be cut and rearranged by using

a)

a scalpel

b)

electrophoresis

c)

hormones

d)

enzymes

85.

Electrophoresis is a method of

a)

separating DNA fragments

b)

changing the genetic code of an organism

c)

indicating the presence of starch

d)

separating colored compounds on a strip of paper

86.

The flounder is a species of fish that can live in very cold water. The fish produces an "antifreeze" protein that prevents ice crystals from forming in its blood. The DNA for this protein has been identified. An enzyme is used to cut and remove this section of flounder DNA that is then spliced into the DNA of a strawberry plant. As a result, the plant can now produce a protein that makes it more resistant to the damaging effects of frost. This process is known as

a)

sorting of genes

b)

genetic engineering

c)

recombination of chromosomes

d)

mutation by deletion of genetic material

87.

A product of genetic engineering technology is represented below.

Which substance was needed to join the insulin gene to the bacterial DNA as shown?

a)

a specific carbohydrate

b)

a specific enzyme

c)

hormones

d)

antibodies

88.

The production of certain human hormones by genetically engineered bacteria results from

a)

inserting a specific group of amino acids into the bacteria

b)

combining a portion of human DNA with bacterial DNA and inserting this into bacteria

c)

crossing two different species of bacteria combining a portion of human DNA with bacterial DNA and inserting this into bacteria

d)

deleting a specific amino acid from human DNA and inserting it into bacterial DNA

89.

Which statement best describes the result of some of the processes involved in genetic engineering?

a)

They alter the arrangement of hereditary material.

b)

They provide energy for mitosis and meiosis.

c)

They are necessary for normal gamete formation.

d)

They reduce variation in organisms that reproduce asexually.

90.

What prevents scientists from cloning humans despite the fact that other mammals such as sheep have been cloned?

a)

the technology to clone humans has not been explored

b)

human reproduction is very different from that of other mammals

c)

there are many ethical problems involved in cloning humans

d)

cloning humans would take too long

91.

The diversity of organisms present on Earth is the result of

a)

ecosystem stability

b)

homeostasis

c)

natural selection

d)

direct harvesting

92.

In order for a species to evolve, it must be able to

a)

consume a large quantity of food

b)

reproduce successfully

c)

maintain a constant body temperature

d)

be domesticated

93.

Which statement concerning production of offspring is correct?

a)

Production of offspring is necessary for a species to survive, but it is not necessary for an individual to survive.

b)

An organism can reproduce without performing any of the other life processes.

c)

Production of offspring is necessary for an individual organism to survive, while the other life processes

are important for a species to survive.

d)

Reproduction is a process that requires gametes in all species.

94.

Which statement is most closely related to the modern theory of evolution?

a)

Characteristics that are acquired during life are passed to offspring by sexual reproduction.

b)

Evolution is the result of mutations and recombination, only.

c)

Organisms best adapted to a changed environment are more likely to reproduce and pass their genes to

offspring.

d)

Asexual reproduction increases the survival of species.

95.

Farmers on a few of the Galapagos Islands have orchards of oranges, apples, grapes, and pears. Which species of finch would consume these foods?

a)

woodpecker finch

b)

small ground finch

c)

sharp-beaked ground finch

d)

vegetarian tree finch