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WorksheetsMCQ_Baroda Academy Ernakulam_SectionII
Total questions: 135
Worksheet time: 1hrs 10mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
The security feature of CTS 2010 cheque mentioning BANK OF BARODA followed by ACCOUNT NUMBER” of the customer is _____
a)
Void pantograph
b)
Micro Lettering
c)
Water mark
d)
Printers name
2.
The Banking Ombudsman scheme is introduced under which of the following sections of Banking Regulation Act, 1949
a)
Section 35 A
b)
Section 30 A
c)
Section 25 A
d)
Section 40 A
3.
It is mandatory to refer all the rejected (partially /wholly) complaints to _______ before communicating the Bank's decision to the customer.
a)
RBI
b)
Internal Complaints Committee
c)
Internal Ombudsman
d)
None of the above
4.
The TAT defined for examination of RBIO complaints by internal ombudsman is ____ working days.
a)
7
b)
5
c)
3
d)
2
5.
The maximum period within which customer can file a complaint with the Ombudsman if no satisfactory reply was received from the bank is __________
a)
3 months
b)
6 months
c)
1 year
d)
13 months
6.
Identify which of the following types of complaints are classified as non-maintainable complaints as per the Integrated Ombudsman Scheme
a)
Complaints which have been lodged with the Bank, but a period of 30 days has not elapsed
b)
Case is pending in the court
c)
a)Case has already been the decided by the court.
d)
All of the above
7.
The maximum amount that can be awarded by the Ombudsman for mental agony suffered by the complainant is ____
a)
Rs 50,000
b)
Rs 1 lac
c)
Rs 2 lacs
d)
No such clause
8.
An appeal may be filed by a bank only with the previous sanction of __________ in case of unsatisfactory decision by the RBI Ombudsman.
a)
Deputy Governor
b)
ED in-charge of Department of RBI
c)
CMD or ED or CEO of the bank
d)
No such provision available
9.
Identify which out the following is not a pillar under the KYC AML Policy.
a)
Customer Identification procedure
b)
Customer Due Diligence
c)
Risk Management
d)
Monitoring of transactions
10.
Identify which is incorrect wrt CTR
a)
The Principal Officer of the bank ensures submission of CTRs for entire bank
b)
All cash transactions of the value of more than Rupees Ten Lakh or its equivalent in foreign currency is reported
c)
Bank files Cash Transactions to FIU-IND
d)
(CTR) for each month for Bank as a whole is submitted to FIU-IND by 10th of the succeeding month
11.
STR reporting in CBS is based on ___ behavioural alerts
a)
35
b)
40
c)
45
d)
47
12.
STR reporting needs to be done within _____ days of concluding that any transaction is of suspicious nature.
a)
7
b)
10
c)
15
d)
30
13.
Entries outstanding in sensitive account for more than two months beyond due date to be reported to the ___-
a)
Regional Committee
b)
Zonal Committee
c)
Zonal Audit Committee
d)
All of the above
14.
The CBS menu for generating negative list check as per KYC AML Policy is _____-
a)
AMLRPT
b)
NEGCHK
c)
BOBMENU
d)
AMLALERT
15.
As per KYC policy, utility bill of any service provider not more than ___ months old can be accepted as a deemed OVD
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
16.
As per KYC Policy, records of transactions between the Bank and the customer, both domestic and international, for at least ___ years from the transaction date.
a)
3
b)
5
c)
7
d)
None of the above
17.
What is WMD wrt Ministry of Finance, Government of India on Procedure for Implementation of Section 12A of WMD and Prohibition of
Unlawful Activities Act, 2005.
a)
Withstanding Mass Destruction
b)
Weapons Managemnet and Documentaion
c)
Weapons of Mass Destruction
d)
None of the above
18.
Identify the incorrrect option wrt Small accounts
a)
Aggregate of withdrawals doesn’t exceed Rs 10,000
b)
No foreign remittance
c)
Aggregate credits in FY doesn’t exceed Rs one lakh
d)
Balance at any point do not exceed Rs 25,000.00
19.
CBS menu to be invoked on daily basis for small accounts is _____
a)
BOBMENU
b)
NEWACTR
c)
GENLET
d)
NEWSML
20.
CBS menu for generation of risk classification of accounts of a branch is ______-
a)
MLRC
b)
KYCRPT
c)
RPTRA
d)
MLPRT
21.
The correct identifier code to be selected under "Constitution Code" for PEP in CBS is
a)
44300
b)
33400
c)
4423
d)
2233
22.
As per Amendments in PMLA, NPO is any entity constituted for religious or charitable purposes for ___
a)
Relief of the poor
b)
Preservation of environment
c)
Yoga
d)
All of the above
23.
Identify which of the following is exempted from identification of BO
a)
HUF
b)
Where the customer or the owner of the controlling interest is a company listed on a stock
c)
Government Organization including PSUs
d)
All of the above
24.
Legal Entities having complex ownership and control structure should be tagged with ____ code in "Customer Type" field in MCEC.
a)
BOCOM
b)
COCS
c)
COBS
d)
BOCX
25.
The authority empowered for requesting data center for allowing reversal of wrong credits received in the Non-KYC compliant freezed accounts is _____
a)
Zonal Head
b)
Regional Manager
c)
BSS Retail
d)
DRM
26.
CBS menu for generation of report of accounts without enrichment of FATCA is _____
a)
FATCACRS
b)
FATCAREP
c)
FATCARP
d)
FATCAPRT
27.
Which of the following can be used for enriching FTACA details of seafarers in Finacle
a)
valid VISA number
b)
Duty Discharge Identity Book
c)
Continuous Discharge Certificate
d)
All of the above
28.
There is no need of any separate constitution code especially for updating FATCA CRS information for seafarers in Finacle.
a)
True
b)
Flase
c)
.
d)
.
29.
As per the Consumer Protection Act, 2019, the District Commission shall have jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration does not exceed __________
a)
Fifty lakh rupees.
b)
does not exceed two crore rupees.
c)
exceeds two crore rupees
d)
All of the above
30.
As per COPRA, 2019, the National Commission shall have jurisdiction to entertain complaints where the value of the goods or services paid as consideration, exceeds
a)
Fifty lakh rupees.
b)
does not exceed two crore rupees.
c)
exceeds two crore rupees
d)
All of the above
31.
A minor of __ years can open Current account. However, there is a specific ceiling to maintain a maximum balance in the account/s.
a)
10
b)
14
c)
18
d)
Not allowed
32.
The mode of operation in the joint account of two illiterates (close relatives)
a)
either or survivor
b)
former or survivor
c)
jointly or survivor
d)
Not allowed
33.
State True or False. HUF cannot become a partner with other individuals to form a partnership firm.
a)
True
b)
Flase
c)
.
d)
.
34.
The minimum number of members in a Public Ltd Co is ____
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
d)
7
35.
Banker customer relationship in case of payment of draft is ________
a)
Agent Principal
b)
Bailee Bailor
c)
Trustee Beneficiery
d)
Indemnifier Indemnified
36.
Banker customer relationship in case of locker is ________
a)
Agent Principal
b)
Bailee Bailor
c)
Lessor Lessee
d)
None of the above
37.
Attachment order is issued by ________
a)
Income Tax
b)
Sales Tax
c)
Customs department
d)
Any one of the above
38.
A banknote, of which a portion is missing or which is composed of more than two pieces.
a)
Imperfect banknote
b)
Soiled note
c)
Mutilated banknote
d)
None of the above
39.
A note which, has become dirty due to usage and also includes a two piece note pasted together wherein both the pieces presented belong to the same note, and form the entire note.
a)
Imperfect banknote
b)
Soiled note
c)
Mutilated banknote
d)
None of the above
40.
Any banknote, which is wholly or partially, obliterated, shrunk, washed, altered or indecipherable
a)
Imperfect banknote
b)
Soiled note
c)
Mutilated banknote
d)
None of the above
41.
Banknotes in denominations of Rs 1, Rs 2, Rs 5, Rs 10 and RS 20, cannot be exchanged for half value.
a)
True
b)
Flase
c)
.
d)
.
42.
The maximum number of soiled notes that banks shall exchange over the counter, free of charge.
a)
5 pieces
b)
10 pieces
c)
15 pieces
d)
20 pieces
43.
The maximum number of mutilated bank notes that banks shall exchange over the counter, free of charge.
a)
5 pieces
b)
10 pieces
c)
15 pieces
d)
20 pieces
44.
Identify which of the following types of bank notes cannot be exchanged as per the Note Refund Rule
a)
Notes with slogans, political or religious messages
b)
deliberately cut notes
c)
extremely brittle or are badly burnt, charred notes
d)
All of the above
45.
All cash cheques/ draft for ___ and above should be screened under ultraviolet ray machine before passing for payment.
a)
Rs 10,000/
b)
Rs 15,000/
c)
Rs 10,000/
d)
None of the above
46.
Introduction of system level Check for Credit entries outstanding for more than____days in New Intermediary Account
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
d)
7
47.
System will calculate GSTTDS of _% where the vendor is registered irrespective of any amount of payment made to the vendor
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
5
48.
GSTTDS is not required to be deducted from the payment made to which of the following
a)
Local Authority
b)
Government Agencies
c)
Society established by the Central/State Government
d)
All of the above
49.
CBS menu for capturing ITR status wrt TDS on cash withdrawal is___
a)
TDSRE
b)
ITDET
c)
ITCASH
d)
None of the above
50.
The section under which its mandatory to levy TDS at the rate of two percent (2%) on cash payments over one crore rupees in aggregate made during the Financial year is _
a)
194A
b)
194N
c)
196A
d)
196N
51.
The maximum amount that can be remitted under the Indo-Nepal Remittance Facility Scheme is _____
a)
Rs.50,000/-
b)
Rs.100,000/-
c)
Rs.150,000/-
d)
Rs.200,000/-
52.
It is mandatory to obtain prior permission from which of the following to allow credit of foreign contributions by Donor Agencies.
a)
Finance Ministry
b)
Ministry of Home Affairs
c)
Ministry of Corporate Affairs
d)
All of the above
53.
Which of the following is part of ensuring enhanced due diligence of high risk account
a)
Intended business activity in case of NRI customers
b)
Report by Branch Manager
c)
a. Information on Source of Funds
d)
All of the above
54.
Branches should destroy undelivered personalized cheque books after expiry of ___ days from its receipt at branch.
a)
30
b)
45
c)
60
d)
Not to be destroyed
55.
CTMU stands for ___-
a)
Centralized Transaction Monitoring Unit
b)
Central Transaction Monitoring Unit
c)
Central Transactions Managing Unit
d)
None of the above
56.
PFMS stand for ____
a)
Public Financial Monotoring System
b)
Public Financial Management System
c)
Physical Financial Management System
d)
None of the above
57.
The CBS menu that empowers r branches to check the status of PFMS and PAO payment status.
a)
AVPFMSINQ
b)
AVPAOINQ
c)
INQAVPAO
d)
AVPAO
58.
QAB of Baroda Professional Saving
a)
Rs.25,000
b)
Rs.50,000
c)
Rs 75,000
d)
Rs.100,000
59.
Identify the correct option wrt salient features of Baroda Escrow Current Account Scheme CA126
a)
Nil QAB
b)
Cheque Book - Not Allowed
c)
Mobile Banking - Not Allowed
d)
All of the above
60.
Number of current accounts launched under Baroda RERA Current Account is __________
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
d)
7
61.
The minimum QAB balance for RERA CA CA133 & CA134 is ______
a)
Nil QAB
b)
Rs 1000
c)
Rs 5000
d)
Rs 10000
62.
The menu in FINACLE that helps in easy monitoring of compliance while opening current accounts _______
a)
ACFALGCA
b)
ACFLACA
c)
ACFLAGCA
d)
CAFLAGAC
63.
In our Bank ___ types of locker are available
a)
7
b)
9
c)
11
d)
13
64.
The term deposit obtained at the locker allotment should cover _____ years rent and break-open charges.
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
d)
6
65.
As per locker policy, branches shall not insist for term deposits from customers having satisfactory operative accounts. A satisfactory means which of the following
a)
Minimum balance is maintained
b)
No frequent cheque returns
c)
No frequest stop payment request
d)
All of the above
66.
In case of shifting of branch, the locker customers should be intimated ____ months in advance.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
5
67.
As per the Locker Policy, the safety verification shall be conducted ____ by the Regional Security Officer.
a)
Half yearly
b)
Annually
c)
Quaterly
d)
None of the above
68.
As per the Locker Policy, CCTV camera recording of entry and exit to the strong room should be preserved for a period of not less than ____ days.
a)
30
b)
60
c)
90
d)
180
69.
Surprise verification of surrendered/vacant lockers and their keys to be done by Regional Office on _____ basis.
a)
Half yearly
b)
Annually
c)
Quaterly
d)
None of the above
70.
Before breaking open the locker, the Bank shall send to the customer a "Termination Notice" of not less t______ months by registered post/ speed post.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
71.
The breaking open of Locker to be done in the presence of a committee consisting of ___ bank officer and __ independent witnesses.
a)
1,1
b)
2,2
c)
3,3
d)
No such requirement is mandated
72.
If the locker remains inoperative for a period of ____ years and the locker-hirer cannot be located, even if rent is being paid regularly, the branch shall be at liberty to dispose of the contents.
a)
3
b)
5
c)
7
d)
9
73.
As per the Locker Policy, liability of the Bank for loss of contents of the locker, due to incidents attributable to the Bank's negligence shall be for an amount not more than ___ times the prevailing locker rent.
a)
10
b)
20
c)
50
d)
100
74.
As per the Locker Policy, liability of the Bank would include which of the following
a)
Fire
b)
Fraud committed by the employees
c)
Building collapse
d)
All of the above
75.
As per the Locker Policy, Bank shall not be liable for loss or damage to the contents in a locker in which of the following incidents
a)
Flood
b)
Thunderstorm
c)
Sole negligence of customer
d)
All of the above
76.
As per the Locker Policy, the Bank shall be liable for any loss or damage to the contents in a locker in which of the following incidents
a)
lightning
b)
earthquake
c)
Fire
d)
Acts of God
77.
A customer can apply for Bank Locker online through _________________
a)
Bank's website
b)
BOBWORLD
c)
Baroda connect
d)
All of the above
78.
As per the revised locker agreement, the locker facility cannot be used for which of the following?
a)
Arms, Weapons
b)
Any perishable material
c)
Storing any cash
d)
All of the above
79.
If locker rent remains unpaid for _____consecutive years, the Bank can break open the Locker and deal with its contents.
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
d)
7
80.
Before sale of the contents of the Locker by conducting public auction, bank has to serve a notice of _______ months.
a)
2
b)
3
c)
5
d)
7
81.
The degree of care should be the same as it would be if the articles belong to the bank. (Sec.151 of Indian Contract Act)
a)
True
b)
Flase
c)
.
d)
.
82.
Settlement of the claims of deceased locker hirers to survivor(s) shall be released within ______ days from the date of receipt of the claim.
a)
7
b)
10
c)
15
d)
30
83.
Video recording of the process of locker break open to be preserved for a period of _ years.
a)
3
b)
5
c)
7
d)
10
84.
As pe the policy on lockers state True or False. Bank will not be under any liability to insure the contents of the locker.
a)
True
b)
Flase
c)
.
d)
.
85.
Expand APT wrt to cyber security.
a)
Advanced Persistent Threats
b)
Attacker Permissible Threat
c)
Advanced Possible Threats
d)
None of the above
86.
The type of cyber attack that blocks access to a victim’s assets and demands money to restore that access.
a)
Malware
b)
Ransomware
c)
SQL injection
d)
Cross-Site Scripting (XSS)
87.
As per the IT Act 2000,identity thefts related to hacking passwords can lead to imprisonment of __years might also be backed by Rs.1 lakh fine.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
5
88.
Bulk Deposit” means a single Rupee Term Deposits of ____ Crore and above
a)
Rs. 1 CR
b)
Rs. 2 CR
c)
Rs. 3 CR
d)
None of the above
89.
Identify the banking facility/ies available to visually challenged persons
a)
ATM
b)
Internet Banking
c)
Lockers
d)
All of the above
90.
As per RBI guidelines, an account would be treated as inoperative / dormant if there are no customer-induced transactions in the account for over a period of _ years.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
91.
The Centralised Web Portal of RBI where account holders and their family members to search for unclaimed deposits with banks
a)
ANUGAM
b)
KHOJ
c)
UDGAM
d)
None of the above
92.
The personal accidental insurance coverage for Baroda Corporate Salary Account Holders will start from one month after registration in CBS using menu option ___
a)
SALDET
b)
INSDETSB
c)
SALSBDET
d)
DETINSB
93.
In Baroda Family segmentation, if 1 CIF can present in 1 Family only & minimum ____month Gap will be required to create a New Family after dissolving earlier Family .
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
No such requirement is mandated
94.
The benefits of the Family Variant will not be made available in the next quarter if QAB in __ quarters in a row remains below the required FQAB
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
No such requirement is mandated
95.
Collateral free Education loan of up to _____ is available for bob BRO Saving Bank Account securing admission in Premier Institues.
a)
Rs 10 Lakhs
b)
Rs 20 Lakhs
c)
Rs 30 Lakhs
d)
Rs 40 Lakhs
96.
Existing Baroda Champ Account can be - converted into bob BRO SBA
a)
True
b)
False
c)
.
d)
.
97.
BOB Systematic Deposit Plan is available for which of the following category of customers
a)
Resident
b)
NRE
c)
NRO
d)
All of the above
98.
Online account opening facility is not available for visually challengd customer.
a)
True
b)
Flase
c)
.
d)
.
99.
The minimum number of cheques that can be confirmed through Bulk Upload CPPS in a single request.
a)
5
b)
7
c)
10
d)
12
100.
Regional Office to ensure that surprise _____ cash verification to be carried out by nearby Branch officials.
a)
Monthly
b)
bi-monthly
c)
Quaterly
d)
Half yearly
101.
Effective cash retention limit management is to be ensured by the Regional Head at least ______
a)
once in week
b)
once in a fortnight
c)
Monthly
d)
bi-monthly
102.
Further to the Automation of Cash Remittance Processes, requests will be escalated to RO for authorization if
a)
Remittance amount exceeds Rs. 50 Lacs
b)
Cash Van is not available
c)
Private vehicle required for remittance
d)
All of the above
103.
CBS menu for exchanging key numbers between lockers in system.
a)
HLKKEY
b)
HLKTRKS
c)
HLKKM
d)
None of the above
104.
CBS Menu for refund of locker rent for un-expired locker period
a)
LKRRF
b)
HLKCM
c)
LKCM
d)
HLKRRF
105.
CBS menu option to update date of execution of New Locker Agreement
a)
LKRRF
b)
HLKCM
c)
LKCM
d)
HLKRRF
106.
CBS menu option for entering break open details of Lockers in system
a)
HSOLMRG
b)
HLKRBKO
c)
HLKBRKOP
d)
None of the above
107.
Identify the correct statements wrt PEP as per the latest amendment under the PMLA Rule. A) individuals who have been entrusted with prominent public functions by a foreign country. B) individuals who are or have been entrusted with prominent public functions in a foreign country. C) 44300 is the Constitution
a)
A & C
b)
B
c)
A, B & C
d)
B & C
108.
As per the latest amendment under the PMLA Sub-rule (9A), Banks have to maintain the registration records of NPO for a period of ____ years after the business relationship has ended or the account has been closed, whichever is later.
a)
2
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
109.
In the case of a Partnership firm, identify the latest amendment wrt documents to be submitted as part of due diligence under PML Rule. A) PAN of the firm is mandatory now. B) The names of all the partners required. C) The registered office and the principal address if its different.
a)
A
b)
A & C
c)
B & C
d)
A & B
110.
Identify the correct statement/s wrt to the proposed Digital Locker Allotment facility.
a)
Customers will be able to select lockers similar to online movie or air ticket booking
b)
Locker Agreement will be auto-generated
c)
Execution of auto generated locker agreement to be done by visiting Branch.
d)
All of the above
111.
State whether True or False. In Off-sol Report generation the amount field is editable to generate the report for lower values as per the requirement.
a)
True
b)
False
c)
.
d)
.
112.
CPPS for cheques of Rs ______ and above is mandatory in CTS clearing and Inter Sol payments.
a)
1 L
b)
2 L
c)
3L
d)
5L
113.
Data on Counterfeit Notes detected by all the branches of the bank shall be reported to FIU-IND by the _____day of the succeeding month.
a)
5th
b)
7th
c)
10th
d)
15th
114.
Counterfeit Notes received back from the police authorities shall be preserved for a period of ________years from the date of receipt.
a)
1
b)
3
c)
5
d)
7
115.
As per staff accountability Policy, the competent authority of officers in Scale VII and above is_____
a)
ED (in charge of HR)
b)
General Manager (DP)
c)
MD & CEO
d)
None of the above
116.
As per staff accountability Policy, examination of staff accountability has to be initiated and completed within __ months of account turning NPA.
a)
3
b)
6
c)
9
d)
12
117.
The cooling period allowed from the date of slippage of account for examination of staff accountability is ______
a)
1 month
b)
2 month
c)
3 month
d)
6 month
118.
The status note has to be submitted immediately but not ater than ________days from account slipping to NPA category.
a)
3
b)
5
c)
7
d)
14
119.
Staff accountability need not be examined in NPA accounts with outstanding upto ___
a)
Rs 10 Lakhs
b)
Rs 15L
c)
Rs 20 L
d)
Rs 25 L
120.
Staff accountability will be examined, If the fresh slippages of small accounts (upto Rs 10.00 lakhs aggregate outstanding) during the FY exceeds ____ % of total advances
a)
5
b)
10
c)
15
d)
20
121.
In case of pre-approved digital business loans through end to end process , no staff accountability will be examined for NPAs.
a)
True
b)
False
c)
.
d)
.
122.
As per the policy, staff accountability need not be examined in accounts where there has been no adverse remarkin the audit report of the preceding __ years except fraud cases.
a)
1
b)
2
c)
3
d)
4
123.
The competent authority for calling EN in case of Scale II officer posted at Branch is ___
a)
RH
b)
DRM
c)
DZH
d)
ZH
124.
Cases for Examination of Staff Accountability shall arise when incident is detected at branch / office through ____________ sources
a)
Special Observation/Special Letters
b)
Audit/Inspection Reports
c)
Control Returns
d)
All of the above
125.
The following the theory means to hear the other side in vigilance parlance
a)
Audi alterem partem
b)
Caveat Emptor
c)
Uberimo Fidei
d)
Causa Proxima
126.
What kind of action is initiated against an employee wherein his involvement is found upon investigation in case of fraud/suspected fraud case?
a)
Administrative action
b)
Accountability with reference to loss
c)
Accountability fixed without reference to loss
d)
None of the above
127.
The dishonoured cheque is to be returned to the customer promptly within 24 hours as per recommendation of ______ committee.
a)
Goiporia Committee
b)
Ghosh Committee
c)
Jilani Committee
d)
None of the above
128.
Branches to ensure to maintain complete and proper record of the dishonored instruments and preserve the relevant records for ___ years
a)
3 years
b)
5 years
c)
10 years
d)
15 Years
129.
No fresh cheques book would be issued for dishonor of a cheque valuing Rs.1.00 crore and above on a particular account of the drawer on ____ occasions during the FY .
a)
1
b)
3
c)
4
d)
5
130.
Facility relating to those accounts – where cheques valuing Rs.1 crore and above are returned on 4 occasions during the FY for want of sufficient fundsis to be reviewed by ___
a)
sanctioning authority
b)
authority higher than the sanctioning authority.
c)
BCC
d)
None of the above
131.
Dishonour of cheques/ of value of less than Rs.1 crore on___ occasions in FY for want of sufficient funds, this will be considered as frequent dishonor of cheques..
a)
3
b)
4
c)
6
d)
8
132.
In which of the following customer segment type the facility of relationship manager is available
a)
Shine
b)
Rise
c)
Sparkle
d)
None of the above
133.
What is the percentage concession on locker rent charges available to the sparkle category of customer?
a)
25
b)
50
c)
75
d)
100
134.
Identify under which customer segmentation unlimited cheque book facility is availble to the customer
a)
Shine
b)
Rise
c)
Sparkle
d)
All of the above
135.
Customers having CASA QAB of Rs.10.00 lacs & above to less than Rs.20.00 Lacs care categorised under ______ segment
a)
Shine
b)
Rise
c)
Sparkle
d)
Radiance
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