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Cybersecurity Midterm

Total questions: 93

Worksheet time: 47mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

You have hired 10 new temporary workers who will be with the company for three months. You want to make sure that the user accounts cannot be used for login after that time period. What should you do?

a)

Configure account lockout in Group Policy.

b)

Configure account policies in Group Policy.

c)

Configure account expiration in the user accounts.

d)

Configure day/time restrictions in the user accounts.

2.

Which Microsoft tool can be used to review a system's security configuration against recommended settings?

a)

Microsoft Security Compliance Toolkit

b)

Registry Editor

c)

Microsoft Internet Explorer

d)

Windows Defender

3.

Which type of update should be prioritized even outside of a normal patching window?

a)

Microsoft updates

b)

Security updates

c)

Critical updates

d)

Monthly updates

4.

Which of the following makes this documentation more useful? (select 3)

a)

Have a printed hard copy kept in a secure location.

b)

Identify the choke points on the network.

c)

Automate administration as much as possible.

d)

Identify who is responsible for each device.

5.

Which of the following tools can you use on a Windows network to automatically distribute and install software and operating system patches on workstations? (Select two.)

a)

WSUS

b)

Security Templates

c)

Group Policy

d)

Security Configuration and Analysis

6.

Which of the following describes a configuration baseline?

a)

A list of common security settings that a group or all devices share

b)

A collection of security settings that can be automatically applied to a device

c)

A set of performance statistics that identifies normal operating performance

d)

The minimum services required for a server to function

7.

By definition, what is the process of reducing security exposure and tightening security controls?

a)

Hardening

b)

Passive reconnaissance

c)

Social engineering

d)

Active scanning

8.

Which of the following is the strongest form of multi-factor authentication?

a)

A password, a biometric scan, and a token device

b)

Two-factor authentication

c)

A password and a biometric scan

d)

Two passwords

9.

You have placed a File Transfer Protocol (FTP) server in your DMZ behind your firewall. The FTP server is to be used to distribute software updates and demonstration versions of your products. However, users report that they are unable to access the FTP server. What should you do to enable access?

a)

Move the FTP outside of the firewall.

b)

Install a VPN.

c)

Open ports 20 and 21 for outbound connections.

d)

Define user accounts for all external visitors.

10.

FTPS uses which mechanism to provide security for authentication and data transfer?

a)

Multi-factor authentication

b)

SSL

c)

IPsec

d)

Token devices

11.

To transfer files to your company's internal network from home, you use FTP. The administrator has recently implemented a firewall at the network perimeter and disabled as many ports as possible. You can no longer make the FTP connection. You suspect the firewall is causing the issue. Which ports need to remain open so you can still transfer the files? (Select two.)

a)

21

b)

443

c)

23

d)

80

e)

20

12.

You want to close all ports associated with NetBIOS on your network's firewall to prevent attacks directed against NetBIOS. Which ports should you close?

a)

67, 68

b)

135, 137-139

c)

161, 162

d)

389, 636

13.

Which of the following file transfer protocols use SSH to provide confidentiality during the transfer? (Select two.)

a)

HTTPS

b)

SCP

c)

FTPS

d)

FTP

e)

SFTP

14.

You need to increase the security of your Linux system by finding and closing open ports. Which of the following commands should you use to locate open ports?

a)

traceroute

b)

nslookup

c)

nmap

d)

Netstat

15.

Which action would you use in a rule to disallow a connection silently?

a)

Accept

b)

Drop

c)

Reject

d)

Forward

16.

In which of the iptables default chains would you configure a rule to allow an external device to access the HTTPS port on the Linux server?

a)

Forward

b)

Input

c)

Accept

d)

Output

17.

Which type of packet would the sender receive if they sent a connection request to TCP port 25 on a server with the following command applied: sudo iptables -A OUTPUT -p tcp --dport 25 -j REJECT

a)

ICMP Unreachable Port

b)

SYN

c)

RST

d)

ACK

18.

You have configured the following rules. What is the effect? sudo iptables -A INPUT -p tcp --dport 25 -m conntrack --ctstate NEW,ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT sudo iptables -A OUTPUT -p tcp --sport 25 -m conntrack --ctstate ESTABLISHED -j ACCEPT

a)

Allow SMTP traffic

b)

Block SMTP traffic

c)

Block SSH traffic

d)

Allow SSH traffic

19.

Which command would you use to list all of the currently defined iptables rules?

a)

sudo /sbin/iptables-save

b)

sudo iptables -F

c)

sudo iptables -A INPUT -j DROP

d)

sudo iptables -L

20.

When a cryptographic system is used to protect data confidentiality, what actually takes place? (select 2)

a)

Encrypted data transmission is prohibited.

b)

Data is protected from corruption or change.

c)

Unauthorized users are prevented from viewing or accessing the resource.

d)

Data is available for access whenever authorized users need it.

21.

An SSL client has determined that the certificate authority (CA) issuing a server's certificate is on its list of trusted CAs. What is the next step in verifying the server's identity?

a)

The CA's public key must validate the CA's digital signature on the server certificate.

b)

The master secret is generated from common keycode.

c)

The domain on the server certificate must match the CA's domain name.

d)

The post-master secret must initiate subsequent communication.

22.

Which of the following would require that a certificate be placed on the CRL?

a)

The private key is compromised.

b)

The encryption key algorithm is revealed.

c)

The certificate validity period is exceeded.

d)

The signature key size is revealed.

23.

Which technology was developed to help improve the efficiency and reliability of checking the validity status of certificates in large, complex environments?

a)

Online Certificate Status Protocol

b)

Certificate Revocation List

c)

Private key recovery

d)

Key escrow

24.

A PKI is an implementation for managing which type of encryption?

a)

Hashing

b)

Asymmetric

c)

Symmetric

d)

Steganography

25.

A remote access user needs to gain access to resources on the server. Which of the following processes are performed by the remote access server to control access to resources?

a)

Identity proofing and authentication

b)

Authorization and accounting

c)

Identity proofing and authorization

d)

Authentication and authorization

e)

Authentication and accounting

26.

Audit trails produced by auditing activities are which type of security control?

a)

Detective

b)

Deterrent

c)

Directive

d)

Preventative

27.

Which of the following is used for identification? (select 3)

a)

Cognitive question

b)

Password

c)

PIN

d)

Username

28.

Which of the following are examples of Something You Have authentication controls? (Select two.)

a)

PIN

b)

Handwriting analysis

c)

Smartcard

d)

Voicerecognition

e)

Photo ID

29.

Which of the following identification and authentication factors are often well known or easily discovered by others on the same network or system? (select 2)

a)

PGP secret key

b)

Password

c)

Biometric reference profile

d)

Username

30.

Which of the following is a password that relates to things that people know, such as a mother's maiden name or a pet's name?

a)

Dynamic

b)

Passphrase

c)

One-time

d)

Cognitive

31.

What is the process of controlling access to resources such as computers, files, or printers called?

a)

Conditional access

b)

Mandatory access control

c)

Authentication

d)

Authorization

32.

Which of the following objects identifies a set of users with similar access needs?

a)

Group

b)

SACL

c)

DACL

d)

Permissions

33.

Which of the following account types is a cloud-based identity and access management service that provides access to both internal and external resources?

a)

Microsoft

b)

Domain

c)

AzureAD

d)

Administrator

34.

Which of the following account types uses a single sign-on system that lets you access Windows, Office 365, Xbox Live, and more?

a)

Administrator

b)

AzureAD

c)

Microsoft

d)

Domain

35.

What should you do to a user account if the user goes on an extended vacation?

a)

Remove all rights from the account

b)

Disable the account

c)

Monitor the account more closely

d)

Delete the account

36.

You are teaching new users about security and passwords. Which of the following is the BEST example of a secure password?

a)

8181952

b)

T1a73gZ9!

c)

Stiles_2031

d)

JoHnSmITh

37.

Where should an organization's web server be placed?

a)

DMZ

b)

Extranet

c)

Honeynet

d)

Intranet

38.

Which of the following is a privately controlled portion of a network that is accessible to some specific external entities?

a)

Internet

b)

MAN

c)

Extranet

d)

Intranet

39.

You want to create a collection of computers on your network that appear to have valuable data but actually store fake data that could entice a potential intruder. Once the intruder connects, you want to be able to observe and gather information about the attacker's methods. Which features should you implement?

a)

NIPS

b)

Extranet

c)

Honeynet

d)

NIDS

40.

Which of the following devices can apply quality of service and traffic-shaping rules based on what created the network traffic?

a)

Application-aware devices

b)

Proxy server

c)

Network access control

d)

All-in-one security appliances

41.

Which item would provide the BEST security for this situation?

a)

Firewall on your gateway server to the internet

b)

All-in-one security appliance

c)

Proxy server with access controls

d)

Network access control system

e)

All of the above

42.

Which of the following terms describes a network device that is exposed to attacks and has been hardened against those attacks?

a)

Circuit proxy

b)

Bastion or sacrificial host

c)

Multi-homed

d)

Kernel proxy

43.

Of the following security zones, which one can serve as a buffer network between a private secured network and the untrusted internet?

a)

Intranet

b)

Padded cell

c)

DMZ

d)

Extranet

44.

Which of the following is the MOST likely to happen if the firewall managing traffic into the DMZ fails?

a)

Only the servers in the DMZ are compromised, but the LAN will stay protected.

b)

All devices in the DMZ and LAN will be compromised.

c)

Nothing will happen - all devices will stay protected.

d)

The LAN is compromised, but the DMZ stays protected.

45.

What needs to be configured on a firewall to allow traffic directed to the public resource in the DMZ?

a)

Subnet

b)

VPN

c)

Packet filters

d)

FTP

46.

Which of the following are features of an application-level gateway? (select 2)

a)

Allows only valid packets within approved sessions

b)

Reassembles entire messages

c)

Verifies that packets are properly sequenced

d)

Stops each packet at the firewall for inspection

e)

Uses access control lists

47.

You want to install a firewall that can reject packets that are not part of an active session. Which type of firewall should you use?

a)

Application-level gateway

b)

Circuit-level gateway

c)

VPN concentrator

d)

Packet-filtering firewall

48.

Jessica needs to set up a firewall to protect her internal network from the internet. Which of the following would be the BEST type of firewall for her to use?

a)

Hardware

b)

Stateful

c)

Software

d)

Tunneling

49.

You want to protect the laptop from internet-based attacks. Which solution should you use?

a)

VPN concentrator

b)

Network-based firewall

c)

Host-based firewall

d)

Proxy server

50.

You want to connect your small company network to the internet. Your ISP provides you with a single IP address that is to be shared between all hosts on your private network. You do not want external hosts to be able to initiate connection to internal hosts. Which type of Network Address Translation (NAT) should you implement?

a)

Restricted

b)

Dynamic

c)

Static

d)

Shared

51.

Which device is NAT typically implemented on?

a)

RADIUS server

b)

AD server

c)

Gateway router

d)

ISP router

52.

At which layer of the OSI model do NAT routers operate?

a)

Layer 3 (Network layer)

b)

Layer 5 (Session layer)

c)

Layer 1 (Physical layer)

d)

Layer 7 (Application layer)

53.

A VPN is primarily used for which of the following purposes?

a)

Support secured communications over an untrusted network

b)

Allow remote systems to save on long-distance charges

c)

Support the distribution of public web documents

d)

Allow the use of network-attached printers

54.

Which VPN implementation uses routers on the edge of each site?

a)

Always-on VPN

b)

Host-to-host VPN

c)

Remote access VPN

d)

Site-to-site VPN

55.

Which VPN tunnel style routes only certain types of traffic?

a)

Split

b)

Full

c)

Site-to-site

d)

Host-to-host

56.

Which IPSec subprotocol provides data encryption?

a)

AH

b)

AES

c)

ESP

d)

SSL

57.

You are investigating the use of website and URL content filtering to prevent users from visiting certain websites. Which benefits are the result of implementing this technology in your organization? (select 2)

a)

Prevention of emails containing threats

b)

Enforcement of the organization's internet usage policy

c)

An increase in bandwidth availability

d)

Identification and disposal of infected content

e)

Prevention of phishing attempts

58.

Travis is sending a highly confidential email to Craig that contains sensitive data. Which of the following should Travis implement to ensure that only Craig is able to read the email?

a)

Encryption

b)

Anti-phishing software

c)

Virus scanner

d)

Spam filter

59.

Which of the following types of proxies would you use to remain anonymous when surfing the internet?

a)

Reverse

b)

Content filter

c)

VPN

d)

Forward

60.

As the security analyst for your organization, you have noticed an increase in emails that attempt to trick users into revealing confidential information. Which web threat solutions should you implement to protect against these threats? (select 3)

a)

Encryption

b)

Proxies

c)

Data loss prevention

d)

Anti-phishing software

61.

Which of the following NAC agent types would be used for IoT devices?

a)

Dissolvable

b)

Zero-trust

c)

Permanent

d)

Agentless

62.

Which of the steps in the Network Access Control (NAC) implementation process occur once the policies have been defined?

a)

Plan

b)

Apply

c)

Review

d)

Test

63.

Which of the following defines all the prerequisites a device must meet in order to access a network?

a)

Identity Services Engine (ISE)

b)

Authentication

c)

Zero-trust security

d)

Authorization

64.

Which of the following applies the appropriate policies in order to provide a device with the access it's defined to receive?

a)

Authentication

b)

Identity Services Engine

c)

Authorization

d)

Zero-trust security

65.

Which of the following NAC agent types creates a temporary connection?

a)

Zero-trust

b)

Dissolvable

c)

Agentless

d)

Permanent

66.

You are the security analyst for your organization and have discovered evidence that someone is attempting to brute-force the root password on the web server. Which classification of attack type is this?

a)

Inside

b)

External

c)

Passive

d)

Active

67.

An attacker sets up 100 drone computers that flood a DNS server with invalid requests. This is an example of which kind of attack?

a)

Backdoor

b)

Replay

c)

DDoS

d)

Spamming

68.

In which of the following zones would a web server most likely be placed? (select 2)

a)

High-trust zone

b)

Medium-trust zone

c)

No-trust zone

d)

Low-trust zone

69.

Which area of focus helps to identify weak network architecture or design?

a)

Network baseline

b)

Entry points

c)

Inherent vulnerabilities

d)

Documentation

70.

Which classification of attack type does packet sniffing fall under?

a)

Inside

b)

External

c)

Active

d)

Passive

71.

An attacker was able to gain unauthorized access to a mobile phone and install a Trojan horse so that he or she could bypass security controls and reconnect later. Which type of attack is this an example of?

a)

Backdoor

b)

Social engineering

c)

Privilege escalation

d)

Replay

72.

In an effort to increase the security of your organization, programmers have been informed they can no longer bypass security during development. Which vulnerability are you attempting to prevent?

a)

Replay

b)

Social engineering

c)

Privilege escalation

d)

Backdoor

73.

An attacker has gained access to the administrator's login credentials. Which type of attack has most likely occurred?

a)

Buffer overflow

b)

Privilege escalation

c)

Password cracking

d)

Backdoor

74.

When setting up a new wireless access point, what is the first configuration change that should be made?

a)

Default login

b)

Encryption protocol

c)

MAC filtering

d)

SSID

75.

Which common design feature among instant messaging clients make them less secure than other means of communicating over the internet?

a)

Peer-to-peer networking

b)

Real-time communication

c)

Transfer of text and files

d)

Freely available for use

76.

Which type of application allows users to share and access content without using a centralized server?

a)

Peer-to-peer software

b)

Group Policy

c)

Real-time communication

d)

Instant messaging

77.

Which of the following methods did Microsoft introduce in Windows 10 to help distribute OS updates?

a)

File Transfer Protocol

b)

Server download

c)

Peer-to-peer software

d)

Group Policy

78.

Which of the following is a benefit of P2P applications?

a)

Low-upload bandwidth

b)

Strong security

c)

Real-time communication

d)

Shared resources

79.

What do application control solutions use to identify specific applications?

a)

Packet inspection

b)

Flags

c)

Application signatures

d)

Whitelists

80.

Which feature prevents switching loops and ensures there is only a single active path between any two switches?

a)

Trunking

b)

Spanning Tree Protocol

c)

802.1x

d)

Bonding

81.

When configuring VLANs on a switch, which type of switch ports are members of all VLANs defined on the switch?

a)

Uplink ports

b)

Gigabit and higher Ethernet ports

c)

Any port not assigned to a VLAN

d)

Trunk ports

82.

Which of the following switch attacks associates the attacker's MAC address with the IP address of the victim's devices?

a)

DNS poisoning

b)

Cross-site scripting (XSS)

c)

ARP spoofing/poisoning

d)

MAC spoofing

83.

Which of the following attacks, if successful, causes a switch to function like a hub?

a)

Replay attack

b)

ARP poisoning

c)

MAC flooding

d)

MAC spoofing

84.

You are adding switches to your network to support additional VLANs. Unfortunately, the new switches are from a different vendor than the current switches. Which standard do you need to ensure that the switches are supported?

a)

802.3

b)

802.1Q

c)

802.1x

d)

802.11

85.

When configuring VLANs on a switch, what is used to identify which VLAN a device belongs to? (select 2)

a)

MAC address

b)

Switchport

c)

Hostname

d)

IP address

86.

Which 802.1Q priority is IP phone traffic on a voice VLAN tagged with by default?

a)

3

b)

5

c)

8

d)

1

87.

A virtual LAN can be created using which of the following?

a)

Gateway

b)

Router

c)

Hub

d)

Switch

88.

You are creating a VLAN for voice over IP (VoIP). Which command should you use?

a)

switchport vlan voice [number]

b)

switchport voip vlan [number]

c)

switchport voice vlan [number]

d)

switchport vlan voip [number]

89.

Which of the following should be configured on the router to filter traffic at the router level?

a)

Telnet

b)

Anti-spoofing rules

c)

Access control list

d)

SSH

90.

Which of the following happens by default when you create and apply a new ACL on a router?

a)

All traffic is blocked.

b)

The ACL is ignored until applied.

c)

All traffic is permitted.

d)

ACLs are not created on a router.

91.

Which type of ACL should be placed as close to the source as possible?

a)

Basic

b)

Standard

c)

Extended

d)

Advanced

92.

You are deploying a brand new router. What is one of the first things you should do?

a)

Secure the configuration file.

b)

Update the firmware.

c)

Configure anti-spoofing rules.

d)

Configure SSH to access the router configuration.

93.

Which of the following can make passwords use less on a router? (select 2)

a)

Storing the router configuration file in a secure location

b)

Using the MD5 hashing algorithm to encrypt the password

c)

Using SSH to remotely connect to a router

d)

Not controlling physical access to the router