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Worksheets

PM 05

Total questions: 129

Worksheet time: 2hrs 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the purpose of night inspections for overhead power transmission lines?

a)

To visually check the condition of overhead line elements

b)

To assess the quality of work of electricians

c)

To measure the insulation resistance of insulators

d)

To perform emergency measures after accidents

2.

How often are day inspections, the main type of inspections, carried out for overhead power transmission lines?

a)

Weekly

b)

Monthly

c)

Biannually

d)

Annually

3.

What is the minimum horizontal distance required for the security zone of overhead lines up to 20 kV?

a)

1 meter

b)

2 meters

c)

5 meters

d)

10 meters

4.

During maintenance, what is the main means of combating wood damage for wooden supports?

a)

Tapping the support in dry weather

b)

Applying antiseptics to the support material

c)

Installing repair couplings

d)

Measuring rotting depth with a megohmmeter

5.

What is the primary disadvantage of wooden supports for overhead power transmission lines?

a)

Corrosion

b)

Melting

c)

Rotting

d)

Cracking

6.

How is the condition of wooden supports assessed during dry and frost-free weather?

a)

By measuring insulation resistance

b)

By tapping to establish rotting of the core

c)

Performing night inspections

d)

Checking with binoculars

7.

What is the minimum distance required from overhead lines to the ground according to the Rules of electrical installations?

a)

2 meters

b)

5 meters

c)

6 meters

d)

7 meters

8.

What percentage of overhead line damage is attributed to insulator failures according to the text?

a)

10%

b)

20%

c)

30%

d)

40%

9.

How is the rotting depth of wooden supports determined?

a)

By visual inspection

b)

By measuring with a megohmmeter

c)

By piercing the support with fixation of force

d)

By night inspections

10.

What is the primary purpose of repair couplings in the context of overhead power transmission lines?

a)

To restore mechanical strength of wires

b)

To measure insulation resistance

c)

To check the condition of insulators

d)

To prevent short circuits to the ground

11.

When is an extraordinary inspection of overhead power transmission lines typically carried out?

a)

Monthly

b)

After accidents and natural disasters

c)

Annually

d)

During day inspections

12.

What is the main focus when inspecting reinforced concrete supports for overhead lines?

a)

Monitoring insulator condition

b)

Identifying visible defects

c)

Measuring insulation resistance

d)

Checking the tension of braces

13.

What should be the minimum thickness of the protective wall of concrete for overhead line supports?

a)

5 mm

b)

8 mm

c)

10 mm

d)

15 mm

14.

How is a broken insulator detected using the simplest method mentioned in the text?

a)

By measuring insulation resistance

b)

By tapping the insulator with a metal rod

c)

By checking the presence of voltage on each element of the garland

d)

By performing control inspections

15.

What is the resistance threshold that each insulator should not fall below during insulation resistance measurements?

a)

100 MOhm

b)

200 MOhm

c)

300 MOhm

d)

400 MOhm

16.

Which of the following parameters is used to measure the minimum leakage current that will cause the GFCI to trip?

a)

Rated Current (Amps)

b)

Differential Current (mA)

c)

Operating Voltage (Volts)

d)

Conditional Short-Circuit Current Rating (Amps)

17.

When inspecting reinforced concrete supports, the main attention should be paid to:

a)

Inspection of the condition of supports

b)

Identifying visible defects

c)

Checking the thickness of the protective wall of concrete

d)

Detecting the slope of the support

18.

Which of these inspections is performed 1 time a year?

a)

Day

b)

Night

c)

Control

d)

Riding

19.

Overhead line inspections are divided into ____and extraordinary.

a)

Periodic

b)

Riding

c)

Controlling

d)

Malfunction

20.

What is the advantage of RCD?

a)

Complex troubleshooting.

b)

Multifunctionality

c)

Neutral wire dependency.

d)

None of them

21.

What is the rated current of GFCI?

a)

The maximum current that GFCI can handle without tripping

b)

The smallest current that GFCI will trip

c)

None of the above

d)

The medium current

22.

The resistance of each insulator should not be less than ___MOhm.

a)

100 MOhm

b)

200 MOhm

c)

300 MOhm

d)

400 MOhm

23.

An analysis of the operation of overhead power lines shows that about ___of overhead line damage is due to insulator failures.

a)

35%

b)

60%

c)

30%

d)

20%

24.

Magnetizing current of __ power transformer

a)

7-700 kV

b)

6-500 kV

c)

4-500 kV

d)

5-600 kV

25.

Neutral power transformers____kV

a)

110-220 kV

b)

60-110 kV

c)

220-380 kV

d)

80-160 kV

26.

What is the purpose of a short circuit device in an electrical circuit?

4 lines
27.

How is a separator controlled?

4 lines
28.

What is the function of disconnect switches in electric power systems?

4 lines
29.

The duration of a time delay of AR depends on:

4 lines
30.

What is the AR time delay?

4 lines
31.

What is the primary function of an Automatic Transfer Switch (ATR) device?

4 lines
32.

Which of the following can serve as a backup power source in an ATR system?

a)

Solar panels

b)

Natural gas supply

c)

Geothermal energy

d)

Diesel generator (DGU)

33.

Which of the following can serve as a backup power source in an ATR system?

a)

Solar panels

b)

Natural gas supply

c)

Geothermal energy

d)

Diesel generator (DGU)

34.

How many independent power sources do first-category power consumers typically have?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

35.

In the special first category, how many mutually redundant power sources are required for consumers?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

36.

What is the primary purpose of an Automatic Transfer Switch (ATS) device?

a)

Energy conservation

b)

Uninterrupted power supply

c)

Voltage regulation

d)

Renewable energy generation

37.

How does an ATS system respond to disruptions in the main power line?

a)

Activates repeated switching

b)

Monitors without taking action

c)

Quickly switches to the backup source

d)

Initiates a shutdown

38.

When should the disconnection of the main grid occur in relation to connecting the backup line in an ATS system?

a)

After connecting the backup line

b)

Simultaneously

c)

Before connecting the backup line

d)

It doesn't matter

39.

What is a crucial feature regarding the action of an ATS device in the case of the same fault?

a)

Repeated activations for the same fault

b)

Slow response for fault conditions

c)

One-time event for the same fault

d)

Ignoring faults for uninterrupted supply

40.

What conditions can trigger the automation system to command a change in the power source for an ATS device?

a)

Changes in temperature

b)

Deviations in working voltage parameters

c)

Wind speed variations

d)

Noise levels exceeding a threshold

41.

Why is it essential for the ATS device to check for unresolved faults on the protected section before switching to a backup source?

a)

To save energy

b)

To prevent dangerous situations

c)

To increase backup source usage

d)

To speed up the switching process

42.

Under what conditions will the ATS device return to the primary input when using two equivalent inputs?

a)

Whenever there is a deviation from specified parameters

b)

Only during financial losses

c)

When electrical current parameters on the primary input are restored

d)

When unresolved faults are present on the backup line.

43.

What are the two main components of an ATS device from a technical perspective?

a)

Logical and Operational

b)

Decision-Making and Signaling

c)

Logical and Switching

d)

Mechanical and Protective

44.

What is the task of the measuring section in the ATS device?

a)

Making necessary connections

b)

Performing mechanical functions

c)

Constantly monitoring input parameters

d)

Ensuring redundancy in power supply

45.

What does the logical controller in the ATS device include for decision-making?

a)

Two-position relay

b)

Measuring devices

c)

Adjustable time delay setting

d)

Sectional switch

46.

What is the purpose of the indicator (signaling) part in the ATS device?

a)

Performing mechanical functions

b)

Making necessary connections

c)

Informing about changes and faults in operation

d)

Setting upper and lower limits for working voltage

47.

How is the power section in the ATS device assembled?

a)

Using measuring devices

b)

Using adjustable time delay settings

c)

Using contactors or automatic circuit breakers

d)

Using logical controllers

48.

What is the key feature of a two-input ATS scheme?

a)

Both inputs being activated simultaneously

b)

Equivalence between inputs

c)

Priority given to the second input

d)

Activation through sectional switches

49.

How does a two-input ATS scheme operate in normal conditions?

a)

The first input always has priority

b)

The second input always has priority

c)

Both inputs are activated simultaneously

d)

Activation is controlled by measuring devices

50.

When is a two-input ATS scheme with sectioning used?

a)

In normal operating conditions

b)

When power distribution is divided between two different inputs

c)

During faults in the main power grid

d)

In the absence of measuring devices

51.

What ensures that both inputs are equivalent in a two-input ATS scheme with sectioning?

a)

Adjustable time delay setting

b)

Sectional switch

c)

Priority settings in the logical controller

d)

Measuring devices

52.

What does the sectional switch provide in a two-input ATS scheme with sectioning?

a)

Continuous power supply to both sections

b)

Redundancy in the logical controller

c)

Power to the de-energized section from the other input

d)

Activation of measuring devices in case of faults

53.

Why is cooling essential for transformers?

a)

To reduce noise levels

b)

To prevent dust accumulation

c)

To dissipate excess heat generated

d)

To improve insulation quality

54.

Which type of transformers are suitable for the Air Natural (AN) cooling method?

a)

Oil-immersed transformers

b)

Dry type transformers

c)

Transformers rated above 15 MVA

d)

Transformers up to 3 MVA

55.

What is the purpose of the Air Blast cooling method for transformers?

a)

To cool by natural air flow

b)

To dissipate heat using forced air

c)

To prevent oil contamination

d)

To cool transformers rated up to 15 MVA

56.

Which cooling method is used for oil-immersed transformers up to about 30 MVA, relying on natural convection and conduction?

a)

Oil Natural Air Forced (ONAF)

b)

Oil Forced Water Forced (OFWF)

c)

Oil Natural Air Natural (ONAN)

d)

Oil Forced Air Forced (OFAF)

57.

How is the heat dissipation improved in the Oil Forced Air Forced (OFAF) cooling method?

a)

By applying forced water flow

b)

By using forced air on the dissipating surface

c)

By natural convection

d)

By applying forced oil flow

58.

Which cooling method is generally used for large transformers up to about 60 MVA and employs forced air with automatic starting arrangements?

a)

Air Natural (AN)

b)

Air Blast

c)

Oil Natural Air Forced (ONAF)

d)

Oil Forced Air Forced (OFAF)

59.

What is the distinguishing feature of the Oil Forced Water Forced (OFWF) cooling method?

a)

Use of forced water flow for heat dissipation

b)

Circulation of oil through heat exchangers

c)

Dissipation of heat through natural convection

d)

Employment of automatic starting arrangements

60.

Which cooling method is applied in very large transformers with ratings of several hundreds MVA?

a)

Air Natural Or Self Air Cooled

b)

Oil Forced Water Forced (OFWF)

c)

Oil Forced Air Forced (OFAF)

d)

Oil Natural Air Forced (ONAF)

61.

What is the principle behind the Oil Natural Air Natural (ONAN) cooling method for oil-immersed transformers?

a)

Forced air flow through the radiator

b)

Conduction of heat through oil

c)

Forced oil flow through heat exchangers

d)

Natural convection of heated oil

62.

When is the Oil Forced Air Forced (OFAF) cooling method typically provided for transformers?

a)

For transformers up to 3 MVA

b)

For higher rating transformers at substations or power stations

c)

For transformers rated more than 3 MVA

d)

For transformers up to about 30 MVA

63.

What crucial roles do electrical substations play in the power grid?

a)

Decoration

b)

Chaotic arrangement

c)

Essential functions in electrical distribution

d)

Dangerous mess of wires

64.

What is the primary function of a substation in terms of voltage levels?

a)

Power factor correction

b)

Changing nature of supply voltage

c)

Improving grid stability

d)

Avoiding shutdowns in the entire substation

65.

What voltage range is typically associated with Low Voltage (LV) Substations?

a)

115KV - 765 kV

b)

800KV - 1,100KV

c)

0.24KV - 0.6 KV

d)

2.4KV - 69KV

66.

What type of substations allow switching between power lines without altering transmitted voltages?

a)

Transformer Substations

b)

Collecting Substations

c)

Switching Substations

d)

Converting Substations

67.

Where are Power Factor Substations usually located to compensate for power losses during transmission?

a)

Near generating stations

b)

Near load centers

c)

In residential areas

d)

At the secondary side of transmission lines

68.

What is the purpose of Mobile substations?

a)

Permanent electrical supply

b)

Easy maintenance and protection from blackouts

c)

Power factor correction

d)

Industrial power supply

69.

Where are Industrial Substations commonly used?

a)

Residential areas

b)

Large-scale constructions

c)

Dedicated consumers like industries

d)

Underground mines

70.

What characterizes Indoor Substations?

a)

Equipment exposed to hazardous chemicals

b)

Large area clearance between live conductors

c)

Equipment installed within a building

d)

Surface-mounted transformers

71.

What is a characteristic of Outdoor Substations?

a)

Equipment located indoors

b)

Equipment exposed to hazardous chemicals

c)

Small area clearance between live conductors

d)

Equipment located outdoors with large area clearance

72.

What factors determine the selection of the type of transformer?

a)

Transformer color

b)

Transformer weight

c)

Location of the substation

d)

Transformer brand

73.

In terms of kVA, what size range is preferred for liquid-filled transformers for a 12.47kV/480V system?

a)

0-500 kVA

b)

500-1000 kVA

c)

750-3750 kVA

d)

1000-5000 kVA

74.

What is the purpose of an Instrument Transformer?

a)

To transform voltage from a higher value to a lower value

b)

To transform current from a lower value to a higher value

c)

To transform current from a higher value to a lower value

d)

To transform voltage from a lower value to a higher value

75.

What are the two types of Instrument Transformers mentioned in the text?

a)

Voltage Transformer and Power Transformer

b)

Current Transformer and Power Transformer

c)

Voltage Transformer and Current Transformer

d)

Power Transformer and Distribution Transformer

76.

What does Switchgear refer to in the context of electrical substations?

a)

Collection of snacks for substation workers

b)

Collection of devices for controlling and isolating electrical equipment

c)

A gear system for manual power transmission

d)

A type of transformer

77.

What is the role of Monitoring Equipment in a substation?

a)

Providing emergency lighting

b)

Designing protective relays

c)

Controlling the flow of electricity

d)

Monitoring and selecting protective devices

78.

What is the primary function of a Bus-Bar in an electrical power substation?

a)

Providing emergency power

b)

Carrying electrical current with many connections

c)

Acting as a protective relay

d)

Transforming voltage levels

79.

What is the purpose of Batteries in electric power stations and substations?

a)

Providing emergency power during blackouts

b)

Supplying power to residential consumers

c)

Powering industrial substations

d)

Operating and controlling protective relay systems

80.

What types of batteries are commonly used in power stations and substations?

a)

Alkaline and Lithium batteries

b)

Lead acid and Alkaline batteries

c)

Lead acid and Nickel-metal hydride batteries

d)

Lithium and Nickel-metal hydride batteries

81.

What are Indicating and Metering Instruments used for in substations?

a)

Making coffee for substation workers

b)

Controlling transformers

c)

Monitoring current and power loads

d)

Measuring atmospheric pressure

82.

How is a Circuit Breaker characterized in its ability to handle current flow under normal and fault conditions?

a)

Mechanical isolating device

b)

Voltage transformer

c)

Power factor correction device

d)

Instrument transformer

83.

What is the purpose of a Lightning Arrestor in a substation?

a)

Diverting surges to the ground and protecting equipment

b)

Generating electrical surg

84.

What is the purpose of a Lightning Arrestor in a substation?

a)

Diverting surges to the ground and protecting equipment

b)

Generating electrical surges

c)

Regulating voltage levels

d)

Operating circuit breakers

85.

What do High-Voltage Fuses primarily protect in substations?

a)

Batteries

b)

Insulators

c)

Power transformers

d)

Bus-Bars

86.

What is the role of a Relay in a power system?

a)

Producing electrical surges

b)

Protecting equipment against abnormal conditions like faults

c)

Providing emergency lighting

d)

Isolating power transformers

87.

What is the purpose of the "point check" in the installation of power transformers?

a)

To verify the working performance

b)

To transfer the transformer to the construction site

c)

To check the equipment type, size, and other information

d)

To carry out the stabilizing process

88.

What is the secondary handling of the transformer?

a)

Fixing the main parts to the construction site

b)

Stabilizing the transformer

c)

Transferring the transformer from the depot to the construction site

d)

Filling the transformer with oil

89.

When is the installation of transformer accessories carried out?

a)

Before stabilizing the transformer

b)

After stabilizing the transformer

c)

During the secondary handling

d)

During the point check

90.

What is the purpose of fuse disconnectors with a voltage above 1 kV in distribution networks?

a)

To enhance communication systems

b)

To protect loads from voltage surges, overloads, and short circuits

c)

To regulate electrical consumption

d)

To improve internet connectivity

91.

What is the role of the fusible insert in a fuse disconnector?

a)

Mechanical support

b)

Electrical insulation

c)

Carrying the rated current and interrupting the circuit in case of overload

d)

Quenching arcs during fuse operation

92.

How is circuit interruption achieved in a fuse disconnector?

a)

By tightening contact pressure

b)

By melting the fusible insert

c)

By increasing the rated breaking capacity

d)

By using arc-quenching material

93.

What is the purpose of the cartridge in a fuse disconnector?

a)

To carry the rated current

b)

To interrupt the electrical circuit

c)

To provide mechanical support and electrical insulation

d)

To prevent voltage surges

94.

What is the role of arc-quenching material in a fuse disconnector?

a)

To carry the rated current

b)

To interrupt the electrical circuit

c)

To prevent sustained arcing and protect equipment

d)

To provide mechanical support

95.

Where is the trip indicator typically mounted on a fuse disconnector?

a)

Inside the cartridge

b)

On the fusible insert

c)

On the top cover of the fuse tube

d)

Near the contacts

96.

What is the purpose of testing high-voltage fuses?

a)

To increase the rated breaking capacity

b)

To improve fire safety

c)

To assess the condition of the devices and ensure compliance with specifications

d)

To reduce the resistance of the fusible insert

97.

What equipment is used for testing high-voltage fuses to assess their condition?

a)

Oscilloscopes

b)

Megohmmeters and resistance meters

c)

Power drills

d)

Infrared cameras

98.

What determines the operability of switching devices in high-voltage fuses?

a)

The color of the fuse tube

b)

Nominal voltages and tripping currents

c)

The material of the fusible insert

d)

The size of the arc-quenching material

99.

Which equipment is used for electrical tests on high-voltage fuses?

a)

ETL-35K

b)

IFN-200

c)

E6-32

d)

Both A and B

100.

In what sequence are measurements carried out during electrical tests on high-voltage fuses?

a)

Visual inspection, contact pressure verification, arc-quenching medium check

b)

Nominal voltage measurement, resistance testing, tripping current assessment

c)

Resistance testing, visual inspection, contact pressure verification

d)

Visual inspection, high-voltage testing, resistance measurement

101.

What is the primary parameter determining the ability to disconnect the circuit in high-voltage fuses?

a)

Resistance of the fusible insert

b)

Rated breaking capacity

c)

Nominal voltage

d)

Contact pressure

102.

What is the purpose of the mobile laboratory ETL-35K in testing high-voltage fuses?

a)

To measure contact pressure

b)

To assess the operability of the fuse disconnector

c)

To supply high voltage for testing

d)

To check the integrity of the insert

103.

How is the integrity of the insert checked during electrical tests?

a)

By measuring the resistance

b)

By visual inspection

c)

By checking the arc-quenching medium

d)

By using a megohmmeter

104.

What does the trip indicator on a fuse disconnector signify?

a)

The need for visual inspection

b)

The operability of the fuse

c)

The presence of sustained arcing

d)

The necessity of contact pressure verification

105.

What components in a circuit breaker provide protective functions and open the contacts when the current exceeds the nominal value?

a)

Cartridges

b)

Releases

c)

Fusible inserts

d)

Arc-quenching material

106.

What two types of releases are mentioned as providing protective functions in circuit breakers?

a)

Thermal and magnetic

b)

Electromagnetic and arc-quenching

c)

Fusible and semiconductor

d)

Mechanical and thermal

107.

What is the measured parameter during the testing of circuit breakers' operation?

a)

Voltage magnitude

b)

Tripping time

c)

Current flow

d)

Resistance value

108.

Why is it necessary to test circuit breakers after short-circuit events?

a)

To check the plastic quality

b)

To assess the wear on the circuit breaker

c)

To ensure the safety of personnel and equipment

d)

To identify counterfeit products

109.

What conditions indicate a successful test of a circuit breaker after a short-circuit event?

a)

Critical wear, changed position of contacts, and damaged casing

b)

No critical wear, unchanged position of contacts, and intact casing

c)

Smooth plastic, easily scratched barcode, and damaged casing

d)

Leakage of insulating compound, weakened connections, and rough plastic

110.

How can one identify a counterfeit ABB circuit breaker according to the provided information?

a)

Laser-printed barcode and rough plastic

b)

Smooth plastic and intact casing

c)

Matte plastic and glossy casing

d)

Regular ink barcode and rough plastic

111.

What is the purpose of testing circuit breakers with voltages up to 1000 V?

4 lines
112.

What is the acceptable tripping time for distribution circuits and circuits supplying mobile electrical equipment, given a certain resistance condition?

a)

Up to 1 second

b)

Up to 0.4 seconds

c)

Up to 5 seconds

d)

Up to 10 seconds

113.

When testing circuit breakers, what should be the insulation resistance between the apparatus's pole and ground?

a)

Less than 1 MOhm

b)

Less than 0.5 MOhm

c)

At least 1 MOhm

d)

At least 0.5 MOhm

114.

What is the permissible insulation resistance value during high voltage testing at 1000 V for 1 minute?

a)

500 V

b)

1 MOhm

c)

2500 V

d)

1 MOhm for each phase

115.

How are semiconductor trip units typically subjected to testing regarding the protection block current?

a)

Onefold

b)

Fourfold

c)

Sixfold

d)

Tenfold

116.

What is the purpose of testing the operation of circuit breakers at nominal and reduced voltage?

4 lines
117.

How often should the measurement of insulation resistance be performed, and what is the minimum value specified?

4 lines
118.

What precautions should be taken when connecting the input terminals of the devices being tested to the current-carrying circuit?

a)

None, as it is safe

b)

Ensure the presence of voltage

c)

Use insulating overshoes, gloves, and insulated tools

d)

Disassemble the circuit breaker for better access

119.

How is the insulation resistance of moving and guiding parts made of organic materials measured in oil switches with voltage up to 10 kV?

a)

Using a high-voltage test transformer

b)

With a 2500 V megaohmmeter

c)

Through the ammeter-voltmeter method

d)

By measuring DC resistance with a DC bridge

120.

What devices are used to measure the DC resistance of switch poles in oil switches with an accuracy of 0.001 ohms?

a)

Megaohmmeters

b)

Micro-meters of the F4104-M1 type

c)

Ammeter-voltmeter method

d)

DC bridges P333

121.

How is the high-voltage insulation testing carried out during major repairs of oil switches?

a)

By measuring the resistance of main contacts

b)

Using a 2500 V megaohmmeter

c)

Gradually raising the voltage to the required level

d)

Disconnecting the test unit after maintaining the voltage for 1 minute

122.

When is the insulation resistance measured on oil switches with pull-out elements (switch trolleys)?

a)

On a completely deflated and disconnected switch

b)

On a disconnected switch during breaking

c)

On a fully withdrawn switch with disconnected secondary circuits

d)

During major repairs of switches

123.

How is the resistance measurement of the full pole of the pull-out element performed?

a)

Using microohmmeters or DC bridges

b)

Through the ammeter-voltmeter method

c)

With a 2500 V megaohmmeter

d)

Gradually raising the voltage to the required level

124.

What is the test voltage for secondary circuits and control electromagnets during insulation testing, provided these devices are designed for at least 60V?

a)

2500 V

b)

10 kV

c)

1 kV

d)

60 V

125.

How is the condition of the contact system of the switch evaluated during testing?

a)

By measuring insulation resistance

b)

By comparing measured resistance with normalized values

c)

Using microohmmeters

d)

By measuring the resistance of main contacts

126.

What is the purpose of gradually raising the voltage during high-voltage insulation testing of oil switches?

a)

To ensure reliable contact with the measured circuit

b)

To decrease the voltage after maintaining for 1 minute

c)

To perform the ammeter-voltmeter method

d)

To use DC bridges

127.

How often should the insulation resistance measurement be performed on oil switches 6-10 kV during repair work in the cells?

4 lines
128.

What is used to measure the insulation resistance of secondary circuits and control electromagnets when these devices are disconnected?

a)

High-voltage test transformers

b)

Microohmmeters

c)

DC bridges P333

d)

Megaohmmeters at 2500 V

129.

What is the initial step in testing power transformers, and what components are inspected externally?

a)

Measuring insulation resistance; windings and oil

b)

External inspection; seals, oil quantity, grounding, etc.

c)

Phasing of the transformer; voltage measurements

d)

Checking dielectric losses; moisture content

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