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EPA Type III

Total questions: 80

Worksheet time: 41mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What type of appliance can a technician work on with a Type III Certification?

a)

Low pressure appliances such as chillers

b)

Ice machines that fit under the counter

c)

Convenience store refrigerators

d)

High pressure appliances such as heat pumps

2.

What do CFC-11, HCFC-123, HFC-245fa, and HFO-1233zd have in common?

a)

They all contain chlorine

b)

They are high pressure refrigerants that have high boiling points

c)

They are low pressure refrigerants that have high boiling points

d)

They are low pressure refrigerants that have low boiling points

3.

Low pressure appliances operate...

a)

As a high pressure system.

b)

In a vacuum or below atmospheric pressure.

c)

Above atmospheric pressure.

4.

Where does the purge unit take its suction from?

a)

The lowest point of the system

b)

The top of the condenser

c)

The bottom of the condenser

d)

The evaporator charging valve

5.

What is the pressure relief device on a low-pressure chiller called?

a)

A purge unit

b)

A rupture disc

c)

A vent pipe

d)

An evaporator valve

6.

What is the boiling point of R-123 refrigerant at atmospheric pressure?

a)

26 degrees F

b)

- 15 degrees F

c)

83 degrees F

d)

0 degrees F

7.

When charging a low pressure water chiller with R-123, charging begins with vapor, until what pressure is reached in the system?

a)

0 "hg

b)

18.9 "hg

c)

84 psig

d)

25 "hg

8.

If the condensing temperature of a low pressure chiller is 100 degrees F, that means the high side pressure is:

a)

6.1 "hg

b)

83 psig

c)

19 psig

d)

6.1 psig

9.

What can happen when a low pressure appliance has a leak at a fitting or gasket?

a)

Water can spill from the system

b)

Air and moisture can enter the system

c)

refrigerant can leak from the system

d)

The fitting or gasket can corrode and may need to be replaced

10.

What do low pressure appliances require since they operate below atmospheric pressure?

a)

A condenser

b)

A pressure relief valve

c)

A process stub

d)

A purge unit

11.

What is the most effective way to leak test a charged low pressure chiller?

a)

Use controlled hot water or electric heating blankets to increase system pressure

b)

Use cold water and ice decrease system pressure

c)

Add nitrogen to the system

d)

Use an open flame to speed up the system

12.

Why should a technician NEVER add nitrogen to a charged low pressure appliance for the purposes of leak detection?

a)

It will decrease the system pressure

b)

It will mix with the refrigerants and oils in the system

c)

It will result in inaccurate pressure readings

d)

It will cause the purge unit to operate resulting in refrigerant loss

13.

When pressurizing a low pressure appliance for the purpose of leak detection DO NOT exceed ____.

a)

25 psig

b)

17 psig

c)

10 psig

d)

30 psig

14.

What happens when a low pressure system exceeds 10 psig and the rupture disk opens?

a)

The system vents refrigerant

b)

The system leaks oil

c)

The moisture in the system is released

d)

Nothing

15.

What should be done if a purge unit that is operating excessively?

a)

evaluate the refrigerant charge

b)

pressurize the unit and leak test

c)

check voltage to the purge unit

d)

clean the units water tubes

16.

Which of the following can be used to pressurize a charged, low pressure chiller for the purpose of leak detection?

a)

nitrogen

b)

R410a refrigerant

c)

controlled hot water or heating blankets

d)

running the compressor at full speed

17.

What is used to leak test a water tube in a chiller?

a)

refrigerant

b)

hot water above 125 degrees F

c)

hydrostatic tube test kit

d)

standing vacuum test

18.

To leak test the water box of a chiller, drain the water and place the leak detector probe in:

a)

the evaporator charging valve

b)

suction of the purge unit

c)

one of the water tubes

d)

the drain valve

19.

As of 2019, a chiller used for comfort cooling needs to be repaired when the annual leak rate exceeds ____.

a)

20% of the charge

b)

10% of the charge

c)

15% of the charge

d)

30% of the charge

20.

How long does an owner have to retrofit or retire a low pressure appliance that has exceeded the leak rate threshold?

a)

24 months

b)

4 months

c)

18 months

d)

6 months

21.

How long does an owner have to repair a leaking low pressure appliance to below the leak rate threshold and get an initial verification test?

a)

90 days

b)

30 days

c)

15 days

d)

60 days

22.

How long does the owner or operator need to keep leak inspection, leak repair verification test, and follow up verification test records?

a)

3 years

b)

13 years

c)

20 years

d)

5 years

23.

Recovery equipment manufactured on or after November 15, 1993 must be capable of achieving a recovery level of ____.

a)

45 mm Hg

b)

25 mm Hg

c)

35 mm Hg

d)

30 mm Hg

24.

When a leak in a low pressure appliance makes the required recovery level unattainable the appliance should be evacuated to ____.

a)

10 psig

b)

5 psig

c)

25 psig

d)

0 psig or atmospheric pressure

25.

Why should all recovery equipment be fitted with low-loss fittings?

a)

To minimize moisture from entering the system

b)

To minimize oil loss when hoses are disconnected

c)

To minimize refrigerant loss when hoses are disconnected

d)

To minimize oxygen from escaping when hoses are disconnected

26.

After the required level is reached on a low pressure appliance what can indicate that there is still refrigerant remaining in the system?

a)

Moisture in the system

b)

A rise in pressure after the recovery unit is turned off

c)

Air in the system

d)

A drop in pressure after the recovery unit is turned off

27.

Refrigerant recovery on a low pressure appliance begins with ____.

a)

Liquid removal

b)

Oil removal

c)

Vapor removal

d)

Condensing

28.

After recovering liquid refrigerant from a low pressure chiller what remains in the system?

a)

Liquid refrigerant

b)

No refrigerant

c)

A substantial amount of vapor

d)

Non-condensables only

29.

What should be done with the remaining vapor in a low pressure appliance after the liquid has been recovered?

a)

It is removed and condensed by the recovery unit

b)

It is vented into ambient air

c)

It stays in the compressor

d)

It is left inside the appliance

30.

What is the high-pressure cut out control typically set for on a recovery unit designed for recovering refrigerant from a low-pressure chiller?

a)

5 psig

b)

30 psig

c)

10 psig

d)

25 psig

31.

Approximately how much vapor refrigerant would remain in a typical 350 ton, R-123 chiller after all the liquid refrigerant has been removed?

a)

About 350 lbs of refrigerant

b)

About 100 lbs of refrigerant

c)

About 10 lbs of refrigerant

d)

About 10,000 lbs of refrigerant

32.

What should be on to prevent freezing, when recovering refrigerant from a low pressure chiller

a)

the recovery unit compressor

b)

all answers are correct

c)

the recovery unit condenser water

d)

the system water pumps

33.

ASHRAE guideline 3 states that a low pressure chiller should be pressurized and leak tested, if during a standing vacuum test, the pressure rises from ____ to _____:

a)

2.5 mm to a level above 25 mm

b)

0 psig to 10 psig

c)

29 inches mercury to 10 inches of mercury

d)

1 mm to a level above 2.5 mm

34.

If a chiller is suspected of tube leaks, what should be done prior to refrigerant recovery?

a)

drain the water from the evaporator side of the system

b)

drain the water from the condenser side of the system

c)

repair the tube leaks

d)

drain the water from both the evaporator and condenser sides of the system

35.

Why is it important that prior to removing oil from a low pressure system, the oil be heated to 130 degrees F?

a)

less refrigerant will be contained in the oil

b)

to drive moisture and other contaminants from the oil

c)

to ensure all oil is removed

d)

the oil will flow more freely

36.

When charging R 123 refrigerant into a low pressure chiller, charging should begin with vapor until what pressure is reached?

a)

19.1 inches of mercury vacuum

b)

25.9 inches of mercury vacuum

c)

18.5 inches of mercury vacuum

d)

20 inches of mercury vacuum

37.

What is required by ASHRAE Standard 15 in each equipment room when the TLV-TWA (threshold limit value-time weighted average) is exceeded?

a)

Fire sprinklers

b)

Stationed technicians

c)

An alarm and a mechanical ventilation system

d)

Emergency recovery devices

38.

On a low pressure chiller, where is refrigerant added?

a)

the condenser charging valve

b)

the liquid line king valve

c)

the compressor suction valve

d)

the evaporator charging valve

39.

Which of the following must be accounted for in leak rate calculations?

a)

adding refrigerant to a new system

b)

adding refrigerant to a newly retrofitted system

c)

topping off the system with refrigerant due to a leak

d)

all answers are correct

40.

What does ASHRAE require for all refrigerant safety groups?

a)

A gauge manifold

b)

Fire alarms

c)

A purge valve

d)

A refrigerant monitor

41.

Which class of refrigerants has shown evidence of toxicity below 400 ppm?

a)

Both Class B and C

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

42.

What is the ASHRAE code classification for CFC-12, CFC-11, and HFC-134a?

a)

B1 (toxic below 400ppm, non-flammable)

b)

A1 (non-toxic, non-flammable)

c)

A3 (low toxicity, highly flammable)

43.

If more than one pressure relief device is used in a refrigeration system, how must they be piped in?

a)

Parallel to each other

b)

In series to each other

44.

On a low pressure chiller, where should the vent pipe from the rupture disk lead to?

a)

To the outdoors

b)

Into the basement

c)

Into an unoccupied room

d)

Into the equipment room

45.

Which of the following refrigerants is safety classified as a B1 refrigerant(high toxicity/low flammability)?

a)

R 123

b)

R 134a

c)

R 11

d)

R 22

46.

Where is the rupture disc located?

a)

on the purge unit

b)

on the evaporator housing

c)

on the condenser outlet

d)

on top of the water box

47.

Excessive moisture collection by the purge unit may indicate which of the following?

a)

dirty condenser tubes

b)

dirty evaporator tubes

c)

tube leakage

d)

shaft seal leak on compressor

48.

When disposing a system with a normal charge of more than 5 pounds and less than 50 pounds, the disposal record must be kept by the technician for _________.

a)

18 months

b)

            3 years

c)

30 months

d)

5 years

49.

How can you pressurize a low-pressure chiller to make a non-major repair?

a)

Add nitrogen to the system

b)

Warm the system

c)

Add compressed air to the system.

d)

All of the above are EPA-approved methods.

50.

Every recovery and recycling unit must be _____________.

a)

      tested by an AHRI-approved third party

b)

equipped with low-loss ball valves and flare fittings

c)

able to handle more than one refrigerant

d)

labeled as certified to meet EPA's requirements

51.

When does the EPA allow you to NOT evacuated to the prescribed level?

a)

When using a system-dependent recovery unit with a failed compressor.

b)

When the repair is minor and less than half the charge will be vented.

c)

When leaks in the appliance make evacuation to the prescribed level unattainable

d)

When the approved recovery unit cannot achieve the EPA required evacuation level.

52.

Replacement of ______________________ is always considered "major" under EPA's regulations?

a)

a condenser

b)

a compressor

c)

an evaporator

d)

all of the above

53.

After reaching the required recovery vacuum, ___________.

a)

      immediately break the vacuum with nitrogen before the pressure rises

b)

begin leak checking so the deep vacuum can help identify leaks

c)

wait a few minutes to see if the system pressure rises before opening the system up for repairs

d)

immediately open the system for service

54.

To prevent freezing, when recharging an evacuated water-cooled chiller system with R-123, first charge with vapor to a pressure of at least _______________.

a)

500 microns

b)

600 microns

c)

20 in Hg vacuum

d)

.     2 psig

55.

The lowest access point on a low-pressure centrifugal is the _____________.

a)

the condenser service valve

b)

the condenser liquid charging port

c)

the compressor discharge port

d)

evaporator charging valve

56.

When charging a low-pressure chiller, first introduce the refrigerant as a vapor until__________.

a)

the system pressure reaches 10 psig

b)

the saturation temperature of the refrigerant being charged increases above 32 °F

c)

the system pressure reaches 15 psig

d)

There is multiple correct answers. Check all that apply.

57.

When charging a low-pressure chiller with R-245ca, first introduce the refrigerant as a vapor until the pressure is greater than 18 inches Hg vacuum to prevent

a)

the purge unit from venting excess refrigerant into the air

b)

the purge unit from overheating

c)

the chiller water from freezing

d)

over-pressurization of the system and burst disk failure

58.

When recharging a chiller, refrigerant is first added as a vapor followed by liquid refrigerant to avoid ________________.

a)

acid buildup

b)

oil subcooling and subsequent oil waxing

c)

freezing of the water in the chiller barrels

d)

over pressurization of the system

59.

The EPA definition for the type of cooling that chillers usually provide is ___________.

a)

            industrial refrigeration

b)

            comfort cooling

c)

            process cooling

d)

commercial cooling

60.

The EPA definition for the type of cooling that chillers usually provide is ___________.

a)

            industrial refrigeration

b)

            comfort cooling

c)

            process cooling

d)

commercial cooling

61.

After a leaking system that has been repaired has passed the initial verification leak test, when must the follow-up verification test be conducted?

a)

within 5 days

b)

within 10 days

c)

within 30 days

d)

            No follow-up verification test is required

62.

What is a valid reason to request an extension from the EPA on the appliance leak repair deadline?

a)

            Local permit regulations make the repair within 30 days impossible.

b)

More time is needed to obtain the necessary repair parts from the manufacturer.

c)

The service technician you hired is busy with other work

d)

There is multiple answers. Check all that apply

63.

If an owner of a system (with 101 pounds of refrigerant charge that has a significant leak) is going to retire the system, and the replacement appliance uses refrigerant that is exempt from the venting prohibition, how much time does the owner have to retire the system?

a)

3 years

b)

2 years

c)

            18 months

d)

12 months

64.

If an appliance with a significant leak system is to be mothballed, the system must be _________.

a)

shut down, and the leaking section or the entire system evacuated to at least 0 psig

b)

disconnected electrically from any power source

c)

moved into a storage facility such as a warehouse

d)

all of the above

65.

If the threshold leak rate has been exceeded, the owner must ____________.

a)

notify the EPA within 10 days of the actual measured significant leak rate

b)

      repair the leak within 10 days

c)

mothball the unit until the EPA provides instructions on whether to retire or replace the appliance

d)

repair the appliance at least enough to bring the leak rate below the threshold, retrofit, or retire the appliance

66.

The EPA's mandatory leak repair requirements apply to systems with a charge of ______ pounds or greater.

a)

5 percent or more per year of the normal charge

b)

15 percent or more per year of the normal charge

c)

30 percent or more per year of the normal charge

d)

50 percent or more per year of the normal charge

67.

After January 1, 2019, a leaking industrial process refrigeration system with a charge of 70 pounds must be repaired if the leak rate exceeds________ of the charge per year.

a)

5 percent or more per year of the normal charge

b)

10 percent or more per year of the normal charge

c)

20 percent or more per year of the normal charge

d)

30 percent or more per year of the normal charge

68.

The owners and operators of any system that has 50 or more pounds of refrigerant charge must keep records of refrigerant added, leak inspections, initial verification tests, and follow-up verification tests for at least _______.

a)

2 years

b)

3 years

c)

5 years

d)

8 years or the life of the appliance, whichever is less

69.

An industrial process refrigerant system containing 600 pounds has a substantial leak that is leaking at a rate above the leak rate threshold. Unless granted additional time, what must be completed within 30 days?

a)

            Repair the appliance so that it leaks below the threshold and conduct the initial verification test.

b)

Notify the EPA of the leak.

c)

            Fix the leak and perform both the initial and follow-on verification tests.

d)

Schedule the repair and notify the EPA of the expected repair time.

70.

For a comfort cooling system with a charge of 50 pounds or more of refrigerant, a substantial (or threshold) leak rate will be reduced to ________________after January 1, 2019.

a)

5 percent or more per year of the normal charge

b)

10 percent or more per year of the normal charge

c)

20 percent or more per year of the normal charge

d)

30 percent or more per year of the normal charge

71.

When must the leak rate be calculated?

a)

When topping off or recharging a system due to a loss of charge

b)

When the system charge is more than 50 pounds

c)

When you have topped off or changed the system at least twice in a calendar year

d)

Multiple answers are correct

72.

Pressure relief valves should NEVER be installed in ________.

a)

series

b)

parallel

c)

recovery tanks

d)

liquid receivers

73.

Every refrigerating system must be protected by ______________________.

a)

a pressure relief device

b)

at lease on service valves

c)

low-pressure shutoff valves

d)

compressor isolation valves

74.

Whenever you are using nitrogen to flush a system or break a vacuum, always use ________.

a)

nitrogen gas not liquid nitrogen

b)

a pressure regulator

c)

            a pressure relief valve downstream

d)

all of the above

75.

An equipment room refrigerant detector is NOT required under ASHRAE Standard 15 to detect _________, but the ventilation system must operate continuously.

a)

      R-1234yf

b)

R-22

c)

R-410A

d)

      R-717

76.

A deep vacuum used for dehydration is usually measured in __________.

a)

.     psi

b)

psig

c)

inches of Hg

d)

microns

77.

If an R-410A system is in a room where the temperature is 80 °F, the pressure in the system is about _______.

a)

183 psig

b)

202 psig

c)

            238 psig

d)

290 psig

78.

The _______________________ is plumbed just downstream of the condenser.

a)

accumulator

b)

evaporator

c)

receiver

d)

compressor

79.

Oil foaming usually occurs in the ___________________.

a)

condenser

b)

evaporator

c)

      compressor

d)

expansion device

80.

Always replace the ____________________ if the system is opened for servicing.

a)

filter drier

b)

Schrader valves

c)

TXV device

d)

accumulator