WorksheetsUnit 13 Exam
Total questions: 66
Worksheet time: 33mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
1. What is the primary purpose of a load balancer?
a)
To prevent an application from being attacked
b)
To balance application functions
c)
To identify the loads that are coming in
d)
To distribute loads across multiple servers.
2.
2. Which is a high bandwidth application for using a load balancer?
a)
Virtual Memory
b)
Application Typesetting
c)
High use web hosting
d)
Database Management
3.
3. Using a load balancer inhibits the use of concurrent users.
a)
True
b)
False
4.
4. Using a load balancer inhibits the use of concurrent users.
a)
Things can get out of sync
b)
Faster response for users
c)
More efficient response for users
d)
All of the options provided
5.
5. The schedule type that involves accessing servers in sequence is called ______.
a)
Load Calendar Scheduling
b)
First in, First Out Scheduling
c)
Shortest job first Scheduling
d)
Round Robin Scheduling
6.
6. What's the primary difference between a dynamic round-robin and a weighted round-robin?
a)
Dynamic round-robin focuses on the server with the lowest utilization
b)
Dynamic round-robin focuses on the server with the highest utilization
c)
Dynamic round-robin focuses on the server with the most efficient utilization
d)
Dynamic round-robin focuses on the server with the most dynamic utilization
7.
7. The schedule type that bounds users to the same server is called ______.
a)
Shortest Path First Scheduling
b)
Affinity Scheduling
c)
Round Robin Scheduling
d)
Priority Scheduling
8.
8. Both Round Robin and Affinity Scheduling types are considered ______ configurations.
a)
Passive/Active
b)
Active/Passive
c)
Active/Active
d)
Passive/Passive
9.
9. A server that has users on standby is considered to be ______.
a)
reactive
b)
non-active
c)
active
d)
passive
10.
10. What is network topology?
a)
The study of user connections for employment purposes
b)
The arrangement of the elements of a communication network
c)
The study of firewalls
d)
None of the options provided
11.
11. What does DMZ stand for?
a)
Decrypt Memory to Zero
b)
Demilitarized Zone
c)
Digital Media Zone
d)
Decode Memory to Zero
12.
12. An ______ is a controlled private network that allows access to partners, vendors and suppliers or an authorized set of customers.
a)
Intranet
b)
Internet
c)
Extranet
d)
Endonet
13.
13. An ______ is a computer network for sharing information, collaboration tools, operational systems, and other computing services within an organization.
a)
Intranet
b)
Internet
c)
Extranet
d)
Endonet
14.
14. Wireless passphrases are safe to share within your organization.
a)
True
b)
False
15.
15. A(n) ______ is a web page accessed with a web browser that is displayed to newly connected users of a WiFi network before they are granted broader access to network resources.
a)
captive portal
b)
login page
c)
authentication domain
d)
homepage
16.
16. What is another name for ad hoc?
a)
Exempli gratia
b)
Id est
c)
Peer-to-peer
d)
All of the options provided
17.
17. What does MDM stand for?
a)
Master Decryption Management
b)
Microdynamic Management
c)
Master Debug Mode
d)
Mobile Device Management
18.
18. ______ and ______ are designed to attract malicious users.
a)
Sugar, honey
b)
Honeypots, honeynets
c)
Steak, chicken
d)
Knife, dagger
19.
19. What does VPN stand for?
a)
Vendor Private Network
b)
Virtual Production Network
c)
Virtual Private Network
d)
Virtual Partner Network
20.
20. A device that handles encryption/decryption is called a ______.
a)
concentrator
b)
convertor
c)
server
d)
translator
21.
21. How can an employee access a company network from home?
a)
At Home VPN
b)
Remote Access VPN
c)
Virtual Work VPN
d)
Telework VPN
22.
22. What type of protocol does a Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) VPN use?
a)
SSL/LTS protocol
b)
SSL/SLT protocol
c)
SSL/TSL protocol
d)
SSL/TLS protocol
23.
23. When using an SSL VPN, what is not required?
a)
Username
b)
Password
c)
Digital Certificates
d)
Work Email
24.
24. An SSL VPN can be browser based.
a)
True
b)
False
25.
24. Internet Protocol Security is part of which OSI Model layer?
a)
OSI Layer 1
b)
OSI Layer 3
c)
OSI Layer 5
d)
OSI Layer 7
26.
25. Which type of attack is not possible when using Internet Protocol Security?
a)
Replay attack
b)
Reverse attack
c)
Repetition attack
d)
Repeat attack
27.
26. Which hash is used with an Encapsulation Security Payload?
a)
MD2
b)
MD3
c)
MD4
d)
MD5
28.
27. What does ESP stand for?
a)
Encryption Software Protocol
b)
Encapsulation Security Payload
c)
Encryption Security Protocol
d)
Encryption Secrecy Privacy
29.
28. Which of the following is the current markup language?
a)
HTML2
b)
HTML3
c)
HTML5
d)
HTML7
30.
29. A ______ is a network system used to access and manage devices within a separate security zone.
a)
jump server
b)
proxy server
c)
float server
d)
flex server
31.
30. What are proxy servers?
a)
Servers designed to allow communication between users
b)
An intermediate point between the user and the service they are trying to access
c)
A server providing communication between a host computer and a hypervisor
d)
All of the options provided
32.
31. What does NIDS stand for?
a)
Network Inventory & Design System
b)
Network Intrusion Detection System
c)
Network Interface Data System
d)
NATO Integrated Data System
33.
32. What does NIPS stand for?
a)
National Intelligence Processing System
b)
Network I/Os Per Second
c)
National Internet-Based Partner Services
d)
Network Intrusion Prevention System
34.
33. What is the difference between in-band and out-of-band traffic flow?
a)
During out-of-band flow NIDS/NIPS is not in traffic flow
b)
During in-band flow a copy of each packet is sent to IDS/IPS
c)
During out-of-band flow packets must traverse IDS/IPS
d)
During in-band flow NIDS/NIPS is not in traffic flow
35.
33. During an out-of-band response, what causes IPS to send TCP RST to hosts?
a)
When passwords are found
b)
When encrypted data is found
c)
When malicious traffic is found
d)
When user access is found
36.
34. IPS rules determine the fate of unwanted traffic.
a)
True
b)
False
37.
35. What type of databases do signature-based identification technologies use?
a)
Any database that is available
b)
Pre-defined databases of known attacks
c)
Pre-defined databases of unknown attacks
d)
These technologies do not require a database
38.
36. Which identification technology does not start with a signature database?
a)
Signature based
b)
Heuristic based
c)
Rule based
d)
Behavior/Anomaly-based
39.
37. Which identification technology does not start with a signature database?
a)
Alterations are based on a set of rules
b)
Alterations are based on signatures
c)
Alterations are based on learning what normal looks like
d)
Alterations are based on databases
40.
38. What is the difference between a false positive and false negative?
a)
A false positive can lead to desensitization
b)
A false negative can lead to a false alarm
c)
A false positive can lead to increased awareness
d)
A false negative can lead to mistaken identity
41.
39. What does DNS stand for?
a)
Digital Naming System
b)
Domain Name System
c)
Decryption Naming Schema
d)
Decoding Naming Schema
42.
40. What does a DNS server do?
a)
Records decryption keys to make sure they aren't being repeated
b)
Translates between domain names and IP addresses
c)
Provides error correcting when coding and programming
d)
All of the options provided
43.
41. What does a NAC stand for?
a)
Network Admission Control
b)
Network Access Control
c)
Network Adapter Card
d)
Network Access Code
44.
42. Which IEEE standard do NACs use?
a)
802.1x
b)
802.2x
c)
802.3x
d)
802.4x
45.
43. What is the first step in a basic exchange on a network access control?
a)
Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)
b)
Policy Decision Point (PDP)
c)
Request Start Point (RSP)
d)
Access Requestor (AR)
46.
44. Which step of the basic exchange on a network access control involves granting or denying access?
a)
Policy Enforcement Point (PEP)
b)
Policy Decision Point (PDP)
c)
Request Start Point (RSP)
d)
Access Requestor (AR)
47.
45. When using a switch-based configuration by a standalone network appliance where are decisions made?
a)
By the proxy switch
b)
By the server switch
c)
By the network switch
d)
By the firewall switch
48.
46. An end-point based configuration on a standalone network appliance cannot self-assess.
a)
True
b)
False
49.
47. What happens at the policy decision point (PDP) during a NAC basic exchange?
a)
A device requests access to the network
b)
Policy determination is carried out by a router
c)
Requestor is granted or denied access to the network
d)
A determination of what access should be granted
50.
48. A(n) ______ checks the device every time the try to gain access to the system?
a)
dissolvable agent
b)
soluble agent
c)
double
d)
active agent
51.
49. If the system does not install an agent on a device, that is known as a(n) ______ NAC.
a)
active
b)
passive
c)
agentless
d)
master
52.
50. Port security implements two traffic filtering methods, ______ locking and ______ locking.
a)
chaotic, stoic
b)
dynamic, static
c)
alpha, beta
d)
query, data
53.
51. What is a broadcast storm?
a)
When lightning disrupts radio frequencies
b)
The accumulation of broadcast and multicast traffic on a computer network
c)
Overflowing a network with more packets than it can handle, causing it to slow or stop completely
d)
Using radio waves to interfere with computer systems
54.
52. What is the common name given to switches that employ advanced filtering of broadcasts?
a)
Brouters
b)
Filtrouters
c)
Clearswitch
d)
Swilters
55.
53. A flood guard can limit the number of MAC addresses on an interface.
a)
True
b)
False
56.
54. What does BPDU stand for?
a)
Bi-protocol Detection Unit
b)
Bit Program Decipher Unit
c)
Bridge Protocol Data Unit
d)
BIOS Primed Detachment Unit
57.
55. What does a BPDU do?
a)
Detects when multiple users are applying different standards
b)
Deciphers code within an encrypted message
c)
Enables different boot functions after powering on
d)
Helps prevent malicious attacks on edge ports
58.
56. What is used to allocate IP addresses dynamically within an environment?
a)
DNS
b)
DHCP
c)
TLS
d)
BPDU
59.
57. Which of the following terms refers to DHCP messages between a trusted DHCP server and untrusted hosts have rate limits set on traffic and hosts are validated and referenced binding databases?
a)
DHCP spoofing
b)
DHCP snooping
c)
DHCP sparking
d)
DHCP tailgaiting
60.
58. Which of the following provide a set of rules for firewalls?
a)
LCL
b)
ACL
c)
MCL
d)
PCL
61.
59. Which of the following is a Cisco-proprietary protocol that provides authentication?
a)
BGP
b)
OSPF
c)
EIGRP
d)
RFOT
62.
60. Which of the following is a QoS protocols for Wi-Fi?
a)
802.11E
b)
802.1Q
c)
802.1X
d)
802.1A
63.
61. What does IPv6 rely heavily on?
a)
HMAP
b)
ICMP
c)
CTP
d)
IPSec
64.
62. Which of the following is NOT a way to capture packets on a network?
a)
Physical tap
b)
Active tap
c)
Passive tap
d)
Indirect tap
65.
63. What does SPAN stand for?
a)
Switched port analyzer
b)
Switch packet analyzer network
c)
Secure packet analyzer network
d)
Static packet analyzer network
66.
64. Which of the following is an example of service monitoring?
a)
Validating whether a service port is open and responding
b)
Interaction with the service and knowing what a valid response looks like
c)
Look for indicators of likely failure and use a broad range of data to identify pending problems
d)
All of the options provided
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