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MIS Midterm Practice

Total questions: 120

Worksheet time: 3600secs

Name
Class
Date
1.

An information system is a set of interrelated components that work together to collect, process, store, and disseminate information that lacks a feedback mechanism to monitor and control its operation.

a)

true

b)

false

2.

Organizations cannot have many value chains.

a)

false

b)

true

3.

The concept of a value chain is not significant to organizations unless they manufacture products.

a)

false

b)

true

4.

One of the primary roles of a senior IS manager is to provide subordinates with leadership and direction that will help the organization achieve its goals.

a)

true

b)

false

5.

Managers of the business functions most affected by the new information system have a key responsibility to ensure that the people, processes, and human structure components are fully addressed.

a)

true

b)

false

6.

Organizations use processes, procedures, and differentiation strategies to introduce new systems into the workplace in a manner that lowers stress, encourages teamwork, and increases the probability of a successful implementation.

a)

true

b)

false

7.

The strategic plan of an information system (IS) must identify those technologies, vendors, competencies, people, systems, and projects in which an organization will invest to support the corporate and business unit strategies.

a)

false

b)

true

8.

The strategic planning process for Sandeep's IS organization should be the same whether the rest of the organization perceives it as a cost center, business partner, or game changer.

a)

false

b)

true

9.

The release of a new and more powerful mobile computing device or data-crunching software package can influence the strategic plan of an information system.

a)

true

b)

false

10.

In terms of information systems, a collaboration tool that helps a team communicate, organize, plan, schedule, track, and delegate jobs would be an example of _________.

a)

 

a workgroup information system

b)

 

an enterprise information system

c)

 

an organizational complement

d)

 

a personal information system

11.

When the IS organization and its resources are focused on efforts that support the key objectives defined in the managers' strategic plan for the business, the organization is in _________.

a)

construction

b)

development

c)

compliance

d)

alignment

12.

_____ is/are considered to be the most important element in computer-based information systems.

a)

People

b)

 

Bandwidth 

c)

 

Standard operating procedures

d)

 

Software applications

13.

Finn designs and sells screen-printed t-shirts. He is reviewing sales data from previous years to decide which colors are the most popular, and would therefore be the best investments for his next batch of t-shirts. This is an example of _________.

a)

 

all of these answers

b)

 

data science

c)

 

a management information system

d)

 

business analytics

14.

In a manufacturing organization, the supply chain is a key value chain whose primary activities include all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

 

inbound logistics.

b)

 

finance and accounting.

c)

 

customer service.

d)

 

marketing and sales.

15.

Which of the following is NOT one of the four main components in Leavitt's Diamond?

a)

 

people

b)

 

processes

c)

 

technology infrastructure

d)

 

systems

16.

Important functions of the chief information officer include

a)

 

monitoring the financial considerations of the IS department, such as return on investment.

b)

 

ensuring the organization complies with laws and regulations.

c)

 

all of these

d)

 

employing an IS department's equipment and staff to help the organization reach its goals.

17.

An upper-level IS manager proposes that his organization implement a system to consolidate shipping and exception data from multiple carriers so that consumers know when their purchase will ship and when it will arrive. What business strategy does this represent?

a)

 

cost leadership

b)

 

high standards

c)

 

focus

d)

 

differentiation

18.

A successful IS manager recognizes that sustaining a competitive advantage _____.

a)

 

primarily involves consistency in product and service offerings

b)

 

means evolving to account for changes in customer needs

c)

 

is outside the IS department's roles in most organizations

d)

 

requires little effort compared with initially gaining that advantage

19.

Procedures are an important component of an IS implementation approach because _____.

a)

 

good ones are quick and easy to develop and implement

b)

 

they can increase the time required to complete key tasks

c)

 

they can help avoid lengthy business disruptions following a natural disaster

d)

 

employee motivation, authority, and support depend on them

20.

Which component of Leavitt's Diamond defines roles, responsibilities, and lines of authority among members of the organization, which must be understood and accepted for the organization to operate successfully?

a)

processes

b)

 structure

c)

 

technology infrastructure

d)

 

people

21.

Collaboration between two or more organizations that lowers costs and reduces manual effort among employees is enabled by a(n) _____.

a)

 

enterprise information system

b)

 

workgroup information system

c)

 

personal information system

d)

 

interorganizational information system

22.

Which type of information system do organizations use to define structured interactions among employees or between the organizational and external customers, suppliers, or business partners?

a)

 

workgroup information system

b)

 

enterprise information system

c)

 

interorganizational information system

d)

 

personal information system

23.

Companies that share data with other organizations in a manner that conforms to rigidly defined industry standards are using a type of _____.

a)

 

workgroup information system

b)

 

enterprise information system

c)

 

personal information system

d)

 

interorganizational information system

24.

Billie Jean doesn't need to consider her information system strategic plan when she chooses projects to assign to the contractors she is supervising.

a)

false

b)

true

25.

_____ are people who work directly with information systems to get results.

a)

 

System developers

b)

 

Database administrators

c)

 

System analysts

d)

 

End users

26.

As the complexity of a network increases, the possibility of security breaches decreases.

a)

true

b)

false

27.

An attack that takes place before the security community and/or software developers become aware of and fix a security vulnerability is called a zero-day attack.

a)

true

b)

false

28.

You see a deceptive pop-up that says that your computer is infected, and then you are forced to visit a website where you pay for "computer clean-up" in order to access data from your hard drive. You have just become a victim of ransomware.

a)

true

b)

false

29.

Even legitimate organizations sometimes use worms, unsolicited email messages sent to large numbers of people, to promote their products.

a)

true

b)

false

30.

A zombie computer sends requests for access to a target site again and again.

a)

false

b)

true

31.

You work at a call center of a large bank, where you answer credit card services-related questions from customers. Lately, you have noticed an increased number of customers enquiring whether your organization initiated a call about their account. There might be a vishing scam in progress. 

a)

false

b)

true

32.

Transmitting a program, code, or command that causes harm to a computer is a crime.

a)

false

b)

true

33.

Default usernames and passwords should always be changed.

a)

false

b)

true

34.

Someone who violates computer or Internet security maliciously or for illegal personal gain is known as a(n) _______.

a)

 

cyberterrorist

b)

 

hacktivist

c)

 

lone wolf attacker

d)

 

industrial spy

35.

A botnet is a ____.

a)

 

network of robots that control an assembly line at a factory

b)

network of servers that exchange traffic data

c)

 

network of devices that are used for managing security

d)

 

network of computers that send out access requests to servers repeatedly

36.

Once a _____ is installed, the attacker can gain full access to the computer.

a)

 

rootkit

b)

 

worm 

c)

 

zombie

d)

 

botnet

37.

In a denial-of-service (DDoS) attack, the perpetrator ____.

a)

 

instructs the zombie computers to send simple access requests to target computers

b)

 

sends out a huge number of spam emails to everyone in your contacts list

c)

 

changes the configuration information of the infected computers

d)

 

refuses to accept any email from any sender

38.

A company's risk assessment process can consider numerous threats to the computers and networks. Which of the following should an organization identify as loss events or threats to assess?

a)

 

harmful virus

b)

 

email attachment with harmful worm

c)

 

all of the above

d)

 

distributed denial-of-service attack

39.

Which of the following is the correct description of a firewall?

a)

 

software that deletes viruses from attachments

b)

 

a concept used in developing security policies

c)

 

a software and hardware combination that limits incoming and outgoing Internet traffic

d)

 

hardware that prevents unauthorized data from entering a private network

40.

You work for a company that is growing. Originally, all the users in all departments had access to all the data in the database. It is considered a security risk. What is an appropriate action to reduce the risk?

a)

 

Install and provide stronger anti-virus software on the users' computers.

b)

 

Assign roles and privileges to users so that only job-relevant data is accessible to the user.

c)

 

Tweak the firewall parameters so that outgoing traffic can be better controlled.

d)

 

Install a two-step login procedure, where the user has to key in additional information for logging in.

41.

Assume your organization is experiencing an intruder attack. You have an intrusion detection system (IDS) set up. Which of the following events occurs first?

a)

 

Messages from the IDS are routed to the network security team.

b)

 

The IDS warns the firewall of suspicious traffic.

c)

 

The network router sends traffic to the firewall as well as to the IDS.

d)

 

The network security team decides to block traffic from that IP address.

42.

A data breach at your business resulted in the loss of some customer data. Several angry customers have filed charges. What is a recommended course of action to prepare for future events?

a)

 

none of these answers

b)

 

settle with the customers, however much it may cost

c)

 

meet with your lawyers to prepare to counter-sue the customers

d)

activate the forensics analysis team and prepare documentation

43.

In computing, an attack on an information system that takes advantage of a particular system vulnerability is called a(n) _______.

a)

 

vector

b)

 

data breach

c)

exploit

d)

 

DDoS attack

44.

Someone who attempts to destroy the infrastructure components of governments is known as a ______________.

a)

 

lone wolf attacker

b)

 

hacktivist

c)

 

cyberterrorist

d)

 

cybercriminal

45.

A hacker writes some programming code that will cause a computer to behave in an unexpected and undesirable manner, but disguises it as something else to make it difficult to detect. Which attack vector has this attacker chosen to use?

a)

 

vishing

b)

virus

c)

worm

d)

 

rootkit

46.

When you receive a text message that there is a problem with your bank account and you are required you to click on a link to submit some information, you are likely facing a vishing attack.

a)

true

b)

false

47.

Downloading games from unknown websites can be risky. The software may be a Trojan horse.

a)

true

b)

false

48.

A hacktivist is someone who _______.

a)

 

attempts to destroy the infrastructure components of governments

b)

 

violates computer or Internet security maliciously or for illegal personal gain

c)

 

hacks computers or Web sites in an attempt to promote a political ideology 

d)

 

attempts to gain financially and/or disrupt a company’s information systems and business operations

49.

You wish to use your personal laptop computer at work, but the IT department folks will not allow this. The likely reason is that ______.

a)

 

you will use your laptop for non-work-related activities

b)

 

your non-work-related use of the laptop could increase vulnerability

c)

 

your productivity could not be accurately measured

d)

 

your activities could not be monitored

50.

There are laws that require businesses to prove that their data are secure.

a)

false

b)

true

51.

If an activity is defined as legal then it is ethical.

a)

true

b)

false

52.

Laws and regulations have thoroughly addressed concerns about privacy and data management in private organizations and federal agencies.

a)

false

b)

true

53.

In the U.S., there is some debate over privacy between those who favor data collection as a means to increase national security and those who view such programs as a violation of rights guaranteed by the Constitution and the Bill of Rights.

a)

true

b)

false

54.

Never send sensitive personal data such as credit card numbers, bank account numbers, or passwords via text or IM; only send them through Web sites that don't begin with https or cause a padlock icon to appear in the Address bar or status bar.

a)

true

b)

false

55.

Amy is doing some online research for a term paper. She'd like to access some information on a particular Web site, but the Web site is asking her to put in her email address before allowing her to view the information. She wonders what the Web site owner will do with that information, but there is no way for her to know how data collected via a Web site will be used.

a)

false

b)

true

56.

The term ethics refers to the set of principles about what is right and wrong that individuals use to make choices, whereas the term law refers to a system of rules that tells us what we can and cannot do.

a)

false

b)

true

57.

Graydon noticed Jack, his friend and classmate, cheating on a physics exam and now he is trying to decide what to do about it. He knows he could keep quiet about it, but that would violate his moral values, plus the school's code of ethics requires students to report incidents of cheating. On the other hand, if he reports the incident, both his friend and probably all of their other friends will be mad at him. In which phase of the ethical decision-making process is Graydon? 

a)

 

choosing an alternative

b)

 

gathering information

c)

 

identifying alternatives

d)

 

developing a problem statement

58.

In the United States, legislation that protects people from data privacy abuses by corporations _____.

a)

 

is almost nonexistent

b)

 

is quite similar to the EU's General Data Protection Regulation

c)

 

was passed only recently

d)

 

requires firms to respond within one month to data requests from individuals

59.

Which statement about ethics and laws is true?

a)

 

All legal acts are ethical, but not all ethical acts are legal.

b)

 

Laws are static, whereas ethics are constantly modified.

c)

 

Laws provide a complete guide to behavior, whereas ethics merely raise issues.

d)

 

Legal acts conform to the law, whereas ethical acts conform to an individual's beliefs.

60.

Corporate social responsibility activities such as philanthropy benefit for-profit organizations because they _____.

a)

 

improve consistency of operations

b)

 

provide protection from legal action

c)

 

foster good business practices

d)

gain the goodwill of the community

61.

Using the values held by his organization, Don has defined an ethical approach for dealing with the needs of his team members and their customers that he has implemented within his department. His team members know what is expected of them, and their customers know what to expect from the organization. The primary benefit of this approach for Don's department is _____.

a)

consistent operation

b)

 

avoiding publicity

c)

 

fostering good business practices

d)

 

protection from legal action

62.

Ethical business practices _____.

a)

 

often raise an organization's priority with suppliers and other business partners

b)

 

increase employee turnover when workers feel their actions are overly restricted

c)

 

are usually more expensive for a business over the long term than unethical ones

d)

 

create a negative discrepancy between employee and organizational values

63.

Which of the following outlines what an organization aspires to become and lists its rules and principles?

a)

 

ethical decision-making process

b)

 

fair information practices

c)

professional code of ethics

d)

 

corporate legal system

64.

Which of the following is least likely to be included in a professional code of ethics?

a)

an outline of legal censures and fines

b)

 

a commitment to continuing education

c)

 

a description of what its leaders should become

d)

 

a list of rules and principles

65.

Following a professional code of ethics can improve ethical decision making because _____.

a)

 

it allows practitioners to compromise to meet day-to-day pressures

b)

 

it avoids the need for continual self-assessment among practitioners

c)

 

it provides a common set of core values practitioners can use as a guideline

d)

 

it guarantees trust and respect from the general public

66.

The pages on a university's website are maintained by individual departments and organizational units. It is a useful policy to require that every change a user makes to his department pages be reviewed and approved.  

a)

false

b)

true

67.

The _____ requires telephone companies to hold customer telephone records and Internet metadata and to respond to queries about from the National Security Agency if the agency can prove that the records are relevant to a terrorism investigation.

a)

 

USA PATRIOT Act of 2001

b)

 

USA Freedom Act of 2015

c)

 

Right to Financial Privacy Act

d)

 

Foreign Intelligence Surveillance Act

68.

A professional _____ states the principles and core values that an organization wishes to develop in its leaders and members and therefore defines desired behavior in these individuals.

a)

 

code of ethics

b)

 

code of conduct

c)

 

code of civil procedure

d)

 

code of norms

69.

Which legislation helps to combat the growing crime of identity theft?

a)

 

USA Freedom Act of 2015

b)

 

Fair and Accurate Credit Transactions Act of 2003

c)

 

E-Government Act of 2002

d)

 

USA Patriot Act of 2001

70.

Anne and Jordan have two preteen sons and they're concerned about what their kids might see and share on the Internet. They should probably invest in _______.

a)

 

security passwords

b)

 

privacy screening

c)

 

filtering software

d)

 

Internet licensing

71.

Each central processing unit (CPU) produces a series of electronic pulses at a predetermined rate, called the clock speed, which affects machine cycle time.

a)

false

b)

true

72.

Primary memory, which holds program instructions and data, is not associated with the central processing unit (CPU).

a)

false

b)

true

73.

RAM stands for random access memory, a form of memory that holds its contents even if the current is turned off or disrupted.

a)

false

b)

true

74.

Secondary storage can store large amounts of data, instructions, and information more permanently than allowed with main memory.

a)

true

b)

false

75.

In a typical computer configuration, secondary storage has a much larger capacity than the volatile random access memory.

a)

false

b)

true

76.

Disk mirroring is a method of storing data that duplicates only part of the existing data while generating extra bits of data from it, allowing the system to create a "reconstruction map" so that if a hard drive fails, it can rebuild lost data.

a)

false

b)

true

77.

Cache memory is available in two forms: level 1, which can be accessed over a high-speed dedicated interface, and level 2, which is found on the CPU chip.

a)

true

b)

false

78.

The scope of green computing is limited to the efficient and environmentally responsible design and manufacture of all types of computers.

a)

true

b)

false

79.

Windows 10 is an example of application software.

a)

true

b)

false

80.

An operating system is a set of programs that controls the computer's hardware and acts as an interface with applications.

a)

false

b)

true

81.

If 10 users can run programs at the same time on the same computer, it is known as multitasking.

a)

true

b)

false

82.

Linux is an open-source operating system.

a)

true

b)

false

83.

The primary function of application software is to apply the power of the computer to enable people, workgroups, and entire enterprises to solve problems and perform specific tasks.

a)

false

b)

true

84.

Software as a Service (SaaS) allows businesses to subscribe to Web-delivered business application software by paying a monthly service charge or a per-use fee.

a)

false

b)

true

85.

A software suite is a collection of programs packaged together as a bundle and typically includes a word processor, spreadsheet program, graphics program, and more.

a)

false

b)

true

86.

Each programming language has a set of rules, called the program code of the language.

a)

true

b)

false

87.

Operating systems provide a measure of security by allowing users to access to those resources they've been cleared to use as well as other users' resources if those resources are beneficial.

a)

false

b)

true

88.

Utility programs are used to perform system maintenance, such as repairing errors on a hard drive, improving system security, and optimizing sluggish system processes.

a)

true

b)

false

89.

If a large organization wants software that will benefit the entire organization, the organization must develop it specifically for the business in order to get the functionality required.

a)

true

b)

false

90.

_____ is typically used to temporarily hold small units of program instructions and data immediately before, during, and after execution by the central processing unit (CPU).

a)

 

The motherboard

b)

 

The control unit

c)

 

A register

d)

 

Main memory

91.

Completing an instruction involves two phases—instruction and execution—which are each broken down into two steps for a total of four steps. Which of the following is NOT one of the four steps?

a)

 

fetch instruction

b)

 

process data

c)

 store results

d)

 execute instruction 

92.

A type of memory whose contents are not lost if the power is turned off or interrupted is said to be _____.

a)

 

unarbitrary

b)

inaccessible

c)

nonadjacent

d)

nonvolatile

93.

_____ is the use of a collection of computers, often owned by many people or different organizations, to work in a coordinated manner to solve a common problem.

a)

 

Grid computing

b)

 

Web computing

c)

 

Parallel computing

d)

 

Cloud computing

94.

The component of a computer that provides the CPU with a working storage area for program instructions and data is called the __________.

a)

 

main memory

b)

 

processor

c)

 

input/output device

d)

 

bus

95.

_____, a storage technology available since the 1950s, is often used to back up critical organizational data in the event of a disaster.

a)

Magnetic tape

b)

Magnetic disk

c)

Cache memory

d)

Compact disc

96.

A database, a database management system, and the application programs that create and access the databases make up a database environment.

a)

true

b)

false

97.

A collection of data fields that are all related to one object, activity, or individual is called a file.

a)

true

b)

false

98.

An attribute is a general class of people, places, or things for which data is collected, stored, and maintained.

a)

false

b)

true

99.

Two collections of attributes can have a common primary key.

a)

true

b)

false

100.

DBMSs are used primarily for modeling data.

a)

false

b)

true

101.

A database must reflect the business processes of an organization.

a)

false

b)

true

102.

A database management system (DBMS) serves as an interface between an application program and a database.

a)

false

b)

true

103.

A database administrator (DBA) must have a clear understanding of the fundamental business of an organization, be proficient in the use of selected database management systems, and stay abreast of emerging technologies and new design approaches.

a)

true

b)

false

104.

Which of the following statements is true of a database?

a)

 

It is accessed only by an organization’s database administrator and data administrator.

b)

 

It helps companies analyze information to identify new market opportunities.

c)

 

It is a collection of unstructured data.

d)

 

It provides an essential foundation for an organization’s knowledge management and artificial intelligence systems.

105.

A collection of characteristics that belong to a single person, place, or thing for which data is maintained is a(n) _____.

a)

attribute

b)

character

c)

file

d)

record

106.

A(n) _____ is a characteristic or set of characteristics in a record that uniquely identifies the record.

a)

 data item

b)

 primary key

c)

 entity

d)

 attribute

107.

For the ____ operation, it is required that the the two tables have a common data attribute.

a)

join

b)

project

c)

delete

d)

select

108.

_____ is a special-purpose programming language for accessing and manipulating data stored in a relational database.

a)

Access

b)

 Query by Example (QBE)

c)

 Structured Query Language (SQL)

d)

Java

109.

Suppose you wish to learn what tables are included in a database, what entity characteristics these tables contain, and how these tables are related. Which resource would provide this information?

a)

attributes

b)

schema

c)

 sample data

d)

SQL commands

110.

A ______ is a collection of instructions and commands used to define and describe data and relationships in a specific database.

a)

data definition language

b)

data dictionary

c)

data manipulation language

d)

schema

111.

With _____, the database is stored on a service provider’s servers and accessed by the client over a network, typically the Internet.

a)

software as a service

b)

Oracle

c)

database as a service

d)

Internet access

112.

After entering data into a relational database, users can make all of the following basic data manipulations except:

a)

organizing.

b)

selecting

c)

joining

d)

projecting

113.

To ensure reliability and integrity, SQL databases conform to four specific properties. Which of the following is NOT one of those four properties?

a)

currency

b)

durability

c)

isolation

d)

atomicity

114.

Raw facts such as a social security number or catalog item number for a shirt are known as _____.

a)

knowledge

b)

information

c)

entities

d)

data

115.

High-quality data on the operations of the business is the primary ingredient of any effort to improve _____.

a)

 

worker efficiency or service quality

b)

 

competitive advantage

c)

 

customer experiences or satisfaction

d)

 

IS security

116.

If "color" is an attribute, then "green" is a data item.

a)

true

b)

false

117.

The relational model describes data using a standard tabular format; all data elements are placed in three-dimensional tables called relations, which are the logical equivalent of files.

a)

false

b)

true

118.

In the context of the relational database model, selecting involves combining two or more tables.

a)

true

b)

false

119.

Each attribute in a relational database model can be constrained to a range of allowable values called a _____.

a)

scope

b)

bandwidth

c)

slot

d)

domain

120.

What is the term for the awareness and understanding that are required to define relationships among raw facts by organizing and processing them?

a)

knowledge

b)

data

c)

information

d)

entities