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Quality Control and Inspection System

Total questions: 150

Worksheet time: 13mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Technician A says regular inspection of vehicle ensures the safe and reliable operation of a vehicle. Technician B says inspection helps prolong the life of a vehicle. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both A & B

d)

Neither A or B

2.

Which of the following best describes quality?

a)

The service provided to a customer before, during and after purchasing.

b)

Service being made to a high standard to meet customer needs.

c)

A high level of productivity.

3.
Which of the following is usually true about poor quality products?
a)
They are in demand
b)
They fail to meet customers expectations
c)
They are expensive
4.
What does the W after a rating in 5W-20 signify?
a)
The oil was tested for vehicles that have a W in their name
b)
The oil was tested for winter weather temperatures a 0 degrees Fahrenheit
c)
The oil was tested for warm weather conditions
d)
The oil was tested in Wyoming
5.
Which of the following is considered a common multi-viscosity engine oil?
a)
SAE 30
b)
5W-30
c)
75W-140
d)
SAE 50
6.
When checking hose conditions, which would indicate the need for replacement?
a)
Softening
b)
Hardening
c)
Cracks or abrasions
d)
All of the above
7.
All of these fluids can be checked with the engine off except:
a)
Engine oil
b)
Brake fluid
c)
Transmission fluid
d)
Windshield washer fluid
8.
Engine coolant consists of ________
a)
water and antifreeze
b)
oil and antifreeze
c)
water and stop leak
d)
water only
9.
The "W" in 5w30 stands for what?
a)
Wiscosity
b)
Water
c)
Wear
d)
Winter
10.
Which of the following is not a function of the lubrication system?
a)
Removing contaminants from inside the engine
b)
Maintaining smooth power flow through drivetrain
c)
Cutting power los; increasing fuel economy
d)
Reducing friction and wear between moving parts
11.
After performing an oil change, why should you start the car before checking the oil level?
a)
To fill up the oil filter with oil
b)
To check for correct oil flow
c)
To check a double gasket
d)
To check for leaks
12.

What is the "Good Color" of Oil?

a)

Black

b)

Brownish

c)

yellowish

d)

Green

13.

What is the "good color" of ATF?

a)

Green

b)

Brownish

c)

Red

d)

Clear

14.

What is the "good color" of Brake Fluid?

a)

Brownish

b)

Black

c)

Clear yellowish

d)

Red

15.

TRUE or FALSE? It is OK to mix types of ATF Fluid?

a)

FALSE

b)

TRUE

16.

Which of the following is NOT a type of brake fluid?

a)

DOT 3

b)

DOT 4

c)

DOT 5

d)

DOT 1

17.

When inspecting engine oil what should be checked?

a)

Proper Level

b)

Feels slippery and not gritty

c)

Color

d)

All of the above

18.

What should be done to protect the vehicle during inspections and service?

a)

Cover the steering wheel

b)

Protect the seats

c)

Protect the floor of the vehicle

d)

All of the above

19.

To properly check accessory drive belts inspector must do the following EXCEPT

a)

Deflection marks

b)

tensioner marks

c)

check the belts while the engine is under operation

d)

check the belt for any visual cracks

20.

Coolant system can be checked by the following except...

a)

coolant pressure tester

b)

visual inspection

c)

opening the expansion tank filler even if the engine is hot

d)

all of the above

21.

The fluid used in power steering systems is...

a)

automatic transmission fluid of special power steering fluid

b)

antifreeze

c)

brake fluid

d)

gear oil

22.

Which words does the abbreviation VIN come from?

a)

vehicle inspection number

b)

vehicle instruction number

c)

vehicle intensity number

d)

vehicle identification number

23.

emergency equipment must be checked as part of vehicle inspection report.

a)

True

b)

False

24.

Which of the following items is NOT required on a vehicle inspection report?

a)

tires

b)

horn

c)

radiator

d)

none of the choices

25.

It is your responsibility to make sure necessary repairs are made before you drive a commercial motor vehicle.

a)

True

b)

False

26.

The action of applying a substance such as oil or grease to an engine or component so as to minimize friction and allow smooth movement.

a)

lubrication

b)

cooling

c)

inspection

27.

Failing to change your oil regularly can lead to a host of problems. Which of the following is NOT an effect of failure to do changing oil?

a)

Reduce fuel economy

b)

serious engine damage

c)

blockage of oil to intake manifold

d)

complete destroying engine

28.

Why is an engine oil is important?

a)

It keeps all the moving parts protected

b)

Engine oil to be used in the engine is for cooling

c)

Engine oil is also responsible for helping to clean the engine

d)

All of the above

29.

Which of the following change oil interval is the highly recommendable?

a)

3 mos/5000kms

b)

1 year/5000kms

c)

dont change if not necessary to lesson the cost for maintenance

d)

2 years/24000kms

30.

Technician A says most mechanics recommended changing your engine oil ever three months or 3,000 miles, whichever came first. Technician B says the best rule of thumb is to follow your automaker’s recommendation, which should be listed in your owner’s manual. Who is correct?

a)

Technician A

b)

Technician B

c)

Both A & B

d)

Neither A or B

31.

What will happen to an engine if you were to drive a car with low engine oil?

a)

may do nothing more than result in minor excess wear to internal engine components.

b)

engine wont be bothered as long as the driver with a low speed.

c)

engine will still continue to function harmoniously and there is nothing to be afraid for.

32.

Putting wrong oil in the engine could cause excess wear to the oil pump, leading to a longer engine life.

a)

True

b)

False

33.

Among are the following signs that a vehicle must need to change its engine oil. Choose the right answer/s

a)

Dark, Dirty Oil

b)

Engine Noise/Knocking

c)

Exhaust Smoke

d)

Oil Change Reminder Light

34.

Engine oil level low is a sign of oil consumption if found that an engine has no any sign of leak.

a)

True

b)

False

35.

Following are functions of lubricant. Choose the right answer/s

a)

protection against wear

b)

seal for gases

c)

prevent corrosion

d)

reduce engine performance

36.

Total Quality Management Focuses on

a)

Employee

b)

Customer

c)

Both (a) & (b)

d)

None of the Above

37.

TQM & ISO both focuses on

a)

Customer

b)

Employee

c)

Supplier

d)

All of the above

38.

While setting Quality objective, ________ to be considered.

a)

Customer need

b)

Organizational need

c)

Supplier need

d)

Worker need

39.

What is ISO?

a)

Indian organization for standard

b)

Internal organization for standard

c)

International organization for standard

d)

None of the above

40.

Quality is a problem because

a)

Workers don’t do the job

b)

It is expensive to control

c)

All processes have some variation

d)

Management do not fund projects

41.

Which one of followings is NOT included as the Three Key Performance Criteria?

a)

Quality

b)

Cost

c)

Time

d)

Materials

42.

Where was Total Quality Management first developed?

a)

USA

b)

UK

c)

Japan

d)

Korea

43.

Which of the following are key components of a Total Quality Management system?

a)

Individual responsibility, incremental improvement, use of raw data

b)

Collective responsibility, continual improvement, use of raw data

c)

Group responsibility, staged improvement, knowledge

d)

Involves everyone, continual improvement, use of data and knowledge

44.

Total Quality Management (TQM) focuses on

a)

Employee

b)

Customer

c)

Both employee and customer

d)

None listed in this question

45.

P-D-C-A stands for

a)

Plan-Do-check-Act

b)

Plan-Do-correct-Act

c)

Proceed-Do-check-Act

d)

Proceed-Do-correct-Act

46.

Which of these is not the principle/main focus of TQM?

a)

Annual profit

b)

Customers’ satisfaction

c)

Efficient, effective and process

d)

Total involvement of people in an organization

47.

What is Total Quality Management?

a)

A sales approach that aims to sell as much as possible

b)

A sales approach that aims to sell at the lowest possible cost

c)

A management approach that aims to reconcile suppliers and buyers

d)

A management approach aiming to deliver products and services that meet or exceed customer expectations

48.

Which company is known for its TQM approach?

a)

Amazon

b)

Facebook

c)

Toyota

d)

Zara

49.

1. ______________ is not a process tools for TQM systems.

a)

Process flow analysis

b)

Histograms

c)

Plier

d)

Control charts

50.

Inspection, scrap, and repair are examples of ______________

a)

Internal costs

b)

External costs

c)

Costs of dissatisfaction

d)

Societal costs

51.

All of the following costs are likely to decrease as a result of better quality except ______________

a)

Customer dissatisfaction costs

b)

Inspection costs

c)

Maintenance costs

d)

Warranty and service costs

52.

–––––––– are the charts that identify potential causes for particular quality problems.

a)

Control chart

b)

Flow chart

c)

Cause and effect diagram

d)

Pareto chart

53.

Quality circles work best if employees are initially trained in ______________

a)

Group dynamics

b)

Motivation principles

c)

Communications

d)

All of the three

54.

Quality Trilogy includes

a)

Quality planning

b)

Quality improvement

c)

Quality control

d)

All the three

55.

elements of quality management system are ______________

a)

Organizational structure

b)

Responsibilities

c)

Procedures

d)

All the three

56.

s commonly defined as a ratio between the output volume and the volume of inputs.

a)

Methods

b)

standards

c)

Work Design

d)

Productivity

57.

The fundamental tools that result in increased productivity are the ff except one.

a)

methods

b)

time study standards

c)

industrial engineer

d)

work design

58.

Is considered the heart of an industrial enterprise

a)

Methods, Standards, and Work Design

b)

Production

c)

Manufacturing Analysis and Control

d)

Facilities planning

59.

His objective is to maintain engineering specifications and satisfy customers with the product’s quality level and reliability over its expected life.

a)

Manufacturing manager

b)

Reliability and Quality Control Manager

c)

HR manager

d)

Planning manager

60.

He responsible for designing and developing the various work centers where the product will be produced.

a)

Quality control engineer

b)

Production engineer

c)

Methods engineer

d)

Procurement engineer

61.

Steps in the Method study - assemble all the important facts relating to the product or service. These include drawings and specifications, quantity requirements, delivery requirements.

a)

Select the project

b)

Get and present the data

c)

Analyze the data

d)

Develop the ideal method

62.

Steps in the Method study - Select the best procedure for each operation, inspection, and transportation by considering various constraints associated with each alternative, including productivity, ergonomics, and health and safety implications.

a)

Select the project

b)

Get and present the data

c)

Analyze the data

d)

Develop the ideal method

63.

Is known as the father of scientific management.

a)

Frederick Taylor

b)

Frank Gilbreth

c)

Henry Gantt

d)

Ralph Barnes

64.

Founders of the modern motion study technique, which may be defined as the study of the body motions

a)

Frederick Taylor

b)

Frank and Lilian Gilbreth

c)

Henry Gantt

d)

Ralph Barnes

65.

He invented the task and bonus system or earned-hour plan.

a)

Frederick Taylor

b)

Frank Gilbreth

c)

Henry Gantt

d)

Ralph Barnes

66.

Quality control is a system of routine technical activities, to measure and control the quality of the inventory as it is being developed.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

67.

Distributing the necessary orders to the right personnel through the prescribed channel is one of the objectives of quality control.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

68.

Production control is a part of management which plans, directs and controls the materials, supply and processing activities of manufacturing company.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

69.

Operations management is vital not only in the production of finish goods from raw materials but it is also important to the organization that provides services for the customer.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

70.

Using of modern technologies and machineries and allowing the processes of business with minimal human input or work is what we called automatization.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

71.

The operations managers should assign the specified production activities to identified personnel so that the plans are set in accordance to the desired finished time.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

72.

Need of smaller inventories of work-in-process and of finished goods is one of the objectives of production control.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

73.

Production management connotes the administration of the range of activities belonging to the creation of products.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

74.

Studying operations management delivers understanding about how operations manager works base on the key roles and responsibilities.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

75.

Production control is concerned with the determination, acquisition and engagement of all facilities necessary for future operations.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

76.

Control of material movement.

a)

PRODUCTION PLANNING

b)

PRODUCTION CONTROL

c)

QUALITY CONTROL

77.

Identifying errors.

a)

PRODUCTION PLANNING

b)

PRODUCTION CONTROL

c)

QUALITY CONTROL

78.

Dispatching of specific production activities.

a)

PRODUCTION PLANNING

b)

PRODUCTION CONTROL

c)

QUALITY CONTROL

79.

Establishment of production goals.

a)

PRODUCTION PLANNING

b)

PRODUCTION CONTROL

c)

QUALITY CONTROL

80.

Forecasting

a)

PRODUCTION PLANNING

b)

PRODUCTION CONTROL

c)

QUALITY CONTROL

81.

Checking and inspection of raw materials.

a)

PRODUCTION PLANNING

b)

PRODUCTION CONTROL

c)

QUALITY CONTROL

82.

Minimizing the costs.

a)

PRODUCTION PLANNING

b)

PRODUCTION CONTROL

c)

QUALITY CONTROL

83.

Ensuring of output integrity.

a)

PRODUCTION PLANNING

b)

PRODUCTION CONTROL

c)

QUALITY CONTROL

84.

Scheduling of tools and other production equipment.

a)

PRODUCTION PLANNING

b)

PRODUCTION CONTROL

c)

QUALITY CONTROL

85.

Determination of future production.

a)

PRODUCTION PLANNING

b)

PRODUCTION CONTROL

c)

QUALITY CONTROL

86.

Assessment of possible problems of the production.

a)

PRODUCTION PLANNING

b)

PRODUCTION CONTROL

c)

QUALITY CONTROL

87.

Determination of right volume of the specified work-in-process inventory.

a)

PRODUCTION PLANNING

b)

PRODUCTION CONTROL

c)

QUALITY CONTROL

88.

Identifying potential risk of the production process.

a)

PRODUCTION PLANNING

b)

PRODUCTION CONTROL

c)

QUALITY CONTROL

89.

Estimation of resources.

a)

PRODUCTION PLANNING

b)

PRODUCTION CONTROL

c)

QUALITY CONTROL

90.

Realization of labor efficiency.

a)

PRODUCTION PLANNING

b)

PRODUCTION CONTROL

c)

QUALITY CONTROL

91.

How many international standard was ISO already published?

a)

1500

b)

20500

c)

18500

d)

19500

92.

Define and document commitment, policy and objectives, responsibility and authority, verification of resources and personnel.

a)

Quality system

b)

Contract Review

c)

Management responsibility

d)

Process control

93.

Prevention of reoccurrence of failures (non-conformance)

a)

Quality records

b)

Inspection and test status

c)

Corrective actions

d)

Training

94.

For the whole process the products shall be identified and clearly marked concerning test status, including indication of conformance or non-conformance

a)

Control of nonconforming product

b)

Corrective actions

c)

Quality records

d)

Inspection and test status

95.

Inspect and test incoming products, intermediate and final product; establish product conformance to specified requirements and identify non-conforming product

a)

Process control

b)

Inspection and testing

c)

Inspection, measuring and test equipment

d)

Document control

96.

Ensure that customer's contractual requirements are evaluated and met

a)

Contract Review

b)

Product development

c)

Quality system

d)

Purchasing

97.

Establish and maintain a documented quality system ensuring that products conform to specified requirements.

a)

Process control

b)

Product development

c)

Management responsibility

d)

Quality system

98.

Plan, control and verify product development to ensure that specified requirements are met.

a)

Product development

b)

Quality system

c)

Management responsibility

d)

Process control

99.

For the whole process the products shall be identified and clearly marked concerning test status, including indication of conformance or non-conformance

a)

Inspection and testing

b)

Corrective actions

c)

Control of nonconforming product

d)

Inspection and test status

100.

When was the ISO officially started its operation?

a)

1946

b)

1947

c)

1956

d)

1957

101.

A quality management plan is an analog of a requirement document dedicated to __________. This document sets the required standard for product quality and describes the methods to achieve this level.

a)

availability

b)

producing

c)

managing

d)

testing

102.

A test strategy is a document that describes the software testing approach to achieve testing objectives. This document includes ___________ about team structure and resource needs along with what should be prioritized during testing.

a)

information

b)

conclusion

c)

evaluation

d)

subordinates

103.

A test case specifications document is a set of detailed __________ to verify each feature or functionality of a product. Usually, a QA team writes a separate specifications document for each product unit.

a)

actions

b)

data

c)

information

d)

question

e)

specification

104.

The documentation created for end-users should ___________ in the shortest way possible how the software can help solve their problems. Some parts of user documentation, such as tutorials and onboarding, in many large customer-based products are replaced with onboarding training.

a)

understand

b)

rely

c)

apply

d)

identify

e)

explain

105.

Test checklist is a list of tests that should be run at a particular time. It represents what tests are completed and how many have __________.

a)

failed

b)

approved

c)

listed

d)

accomplished

e)

collected

106.

IDENTIFY IF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENT IS DESCIRBE AS QUALITY ASSURANCE OR QUALITY CONTROL .


"Online/in-process inspection"

a)

QUALITY ASSURANCE

b)

QUALITY CONTROL

107.

IDENTIFY IF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENT IS DESCIRBE AS QUALITY ASSURANCE OR QUALITY CONTROL .


"Testing of final products"

a)

QUALITY CONTROL

b)

QUALITY ASSURANCE

108.

IDENTIFY IF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENT IS DESCIRBE AS QUALITY ASSURANCE OR QUALITY CONTROL .


"Identifying the non-conforming products"

a)

QUALITY CONTROL

b)

QUALITY ASSURANCE

109.

IDENTIFY IF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENT IS DESCIRBE AS QUALITY ASSURANCE OR QUALITY CONTROL .


"Identifying appropriate infrastructure for quality output"

a)

QUALITY CONTROL

b)

QUALITY ASSURANCE

110.

IDENTIFY IF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENT IS DESCIRBE AS QUALITY ASSURANCE OR QUALITY CONTROL .


"Take corrections for non-conformities output"

a)

QUALITY CONTROL

b)

QUALITY ASSURANCE

111.

These Is an analog of a requirement document dedicated to testing.

a)

Test Plan

b)

Test Strategy

c)

Quality Management Plan

d)

Test Case Specifications Document

e)

Test Checklist

112.

These document includes information about team structure and resource needs along with what should be prioritized during testing.

a)

Test Plan

b)

Test Strategy

c)

Quality Management Plan

d)

Test Case Specifications Document

e)

Test Checklist

113.

These usually consists of one or two pages and describes what should be tested at a given moment.

a)

Test Plan

b)

Test Strategy

c)

Quality Management Plan

d)

Test Case Specifications Document

e)

Test Checklist

114.

These are set of detailed actions to verify each feature or functionality of a product.

a)

Test Plan

b)

Test Strategy

c)

Quality Management Plan

d)

Test Case Specifications Document

e)

Test Checklist

115.

These approach will help you keep track of them during your work and not lose any.

a)

Test Plan

b)

Test Strategy

c)

Quality Management Plan

d)

Test Case Specifications Document

e)

Test Checklist

116.

These also should represent the dependencies between different parts of the system.

a)

system admin guide

b)

API documentation

c)

maintenance and help guide

d)

end-users

e)

system administrator documents

117.

These explains different types of behaviors of the system in different environments and with other systems.

a)

system admin guide

b)

API documentation

c)

maintenance and help guide

d)

end-users

e)

system administrator documents

118.

These is usually, cover installation and updates that help a system administrator with product maintenance.

a)

system admin guide

b)

API documentation

c)

maintenance and help guide

d)

end-users

e)

system administrator documents

119.

These should explain in the shortest way possible how the software can help solve their problems.

a)

system admin guide

b)

API documentation

c)

maintenance and help guide

d)

end-users

e)

system administrator documents

120.

It is a deliverable produced by technical writers as tutorials and guides.

a)

system admin guide

b)

API documentation

c)

maintenance and help guide

d)

end-users

e)

system administrator documents

121.

This is a form of human need shaped by culture and individual personality.

a)

Wants

b)

Needs

c)

Demands     

d)

Value 

122.

These are human wants and needs back up by purchasing power.

a)

Demands

b)

Wants

c)

Value 

d)

Needs

123.

This term refers to a state of felt deprivation. It is also known as natural essential elements designed for survival.

a)

Needs

b)

Value 

c)

Wants

d)

Demands

124.

This is known as the act of obtaining a desired object from someone by offering something in return.

a)

Transactions

b)

Exchange

c)

Relationships

d)

Quality

125.

These are group of people who have the money and the willingness to spend it.

a)

Markets

b)

Customer

c)

Consumer

d)

Demand

126.

The extent to which a product tends to meet the buyer’s expectation of this product.

a)

Satisfaction 

b)

Quality

c)

 Relationships

d)

 Transactions

127.

A bundle of attributes and benefits designed to be offered to buyers to satisfy their needs, wants and demands.

a)

Products     

b)

Goods

c)

Services

d)

Value 

128.

The human interaction between an enterprise and its customers designed to create value-laden dealings and associations.

a)

Relationships

b)

 Transactions

c)

Exchange    

d)

Value          

129.

This term means putting parts together to form a final product.

a)

Assembly     

b)

Operation   

c)

Finishing

d)

Inspection

130.

This person in the enterprise is expected to ensure that all resources or inputs are efficiently utilized to produce outputs at the right price, quality and quantity desired by the consumer or buyer.

a)

Inventory Manager

b)

General Manager

c)

Personnel Manager

d)

  Production Manager

131.

In an economic perspective, this pertains to machines, equipment, buildings and other physical resources, which are used in the production of goods and services.

a)

Land

b)

 Labor

c)

Capital

d)

Entrepreneurial Activity

132.

A vital factor to the success of any organization, this aspect allows the entrepreneur to gather data that are necessary in the formulation of plans and programs for the enterprise.

a)

Material resources

b)

Human resources

c)

Financial resources

d)

Information resources

133.

These represents the payments for the factors of production, which affect the ability and willingness of entrepreneurs to produce goods and offer services.

a)

Cost of production

b)

Fixed cost

c)

Labor cost

d)

Variable cost

134.

These are stockpiles of materials for inputs.

a)

Raw materials inventory

b)

Work inventory

c)

Finished goods inventory

d)

Inventory control

135.

These are the completed goods for delivery to customers.

a)

Raw materials inventory

b)

Work inventory 

c)

Finished goods inventory

d)

Inventory control

136.

This is the subject of many forms of analysis, and variety of system has been created for ordering, handling and control.

a)

Inventory Management  

b)

Operational management

c)

Production management

d)

Financial management

137.

This involves the planning and control of the conversion process, another way of looking at operations to consider it has a transformation process service (input), operations management and output.

a)

Inventory management    

b)

Production management

c)

Operational management

d)

1.    Financial management

138.

1. ______________ is not a process tools for TQM systems.

a)

Process flow analysis

b)

Histograms

c)

Plier

d)

Control charts

139.

Processes that operate with "six sigma quality" over the short term are assumed to produce long-term defect levels below ______________ defects per million opportunities (DPMO).

a)

2

b)

2.4

c)

3

d)

3.4

140.

______________ are used in six sigma

a)

Black belt

b)

Green belt

c)

Both black and green belt

d)

None of the above

141.

ISO is an abbreviation for –

a)

Indian standard organization

b)

International standard organization

c)

International organization for standardization

d)

Internet standard organization

142.

TQM expands on earlier approaches to quality management. Which of the following is ordered correctly from earlier to later ideas?

a)

Inspection, Quality Control, Quality Assurance, Total Quality Management

b)

Quality Assurance, Inspection, Quality Control, Total Quality Management

c)

Quality Assurance, Quality Control, Inspection, Total Quality Management

d)

Quality Control, Inspection, Quality Assurance, Total Quality Management

143.

How many main components of every Quality Management System (QMS)

a)

3

b)

4

c)

5

d)

6

144.

How many aspects of Total Quality Management?

a)

4

b)

5

c)

6

d)

7

145.

Which combination of total quality management is best for a future career?

a)

Process Approachment and Employee Involvement

b)

Supply Partnership and performance measurement

c)

Customer Focus and Training + Education

d)

All of the above

146.

What is KAIZEN?

a)

KAI - Good

ZEN - Change

b)

KAI - Change

ZEN - Good

c)

KAI - Process

ZEN - Good

d)

KAI - Good

ZEN - Process

147.

KAIZEN is one of effective method to promote PQCDSMI. Which of the following is wrong?

a)

Time-consuming

b)

Boost morality

c)

Promote safety

d)

Low-cost

148.

Which of the following statements best describes Six Sigma?

a)

A quality control program

b)

A process improvement methodology

c)

A customer satisfaction initiative

d)

A human resource management strategy

149.

Which of the following is not an advantage of implementing 5S technique?

a)

to improve work efficiency

b)

to standardize work practices

c)

to impve work discipline

d)

to create a dirty workplace

150.

The differences between DMAIC and DMADV are

a)

DMADV addresses the current process; DMAIC addresses the design process.

b)

DMADV reduces/eliminates defects (reactive); DMAIC prevents defects (proactive)

c)

DMAIC addresses the current process; DMADV addresses the design process.

d)

DMAIC includes specific solutions; DMADV is part of the solution design process.

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