wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

SSG104 -TỔNG

Total questions: 209

Worksheet time: 2hrs 45mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Formal groups are used to

a)

a.organize and distribute work

b)

b.work independently

c)


c.make things more clearly

d)


d.feel like family

2.

Team characteristics should include one of following factors

a)

A.Interaction

b)

B.Short-term relation

c)


C.Act independently

d)


D.Unreacted members

3.

When do you need to work alone?

a)

A.Highly complex tasks or problems

b)


B.Minimum discretion is required

c)


C.High level of choice and uncertainty

d)


D.Decisions by consensus are essential

4.

How many people does "a span of control" structure averagely have in their team?


a)

A.3

b)

B.5

c)


C.7

d)

D.10

5.

Who do staffs report to in a matrix team?


a)

A.Single manager

b)


B.Different managers

c)

C.General manager

d)

D.CEO of the organization

6.

A team is called contract team if


a)

A.Team members have other duties to perform in their normal functional units

b)

B.Team retains their responsibility for both their daily work and project work

c)

C.Team members report to different managers

d)


D.Team is brought in from outside in order to do project wor

7.

What is Social Value Orientation (SVO)?


a)

A.People prefer to organize and distribute work between themselves

b)

B.People's preferences when dividing resources between themselves and others

c)


C.People dislike others' work and try to prove their outcome is much better

d)

D.People are not cooperative and tend to work alone

8.

Andrew is a good listener and he always tries to understand what people think and why people feel in their own way. Andrew has ability of



a)

A.empathy

b)

B.considerable skills

c)

C.caring

d)

D.interdependence

9.

Which one is the key component in cooperation?

a)

A.Honesty

b)

B.Hard working

c)


C.Generosity

10.

What is one of disadvantages having large group?


a)

A.Overestimate their abilities

b)

B.Rank themselves above average

c)


C.More involvement

d)

D.Reduce communication

11.

Janet does not want to get involved in any disputes, discussion or conversations with her colleagues. She gets to work late and fails to show up at meetings as she wants to avoid any tasks may be assigned to her. However, she always wants to be apart of any success her team made. Economists call this kind of person is:



a)

A.Pretending

b)

B.Untrustworthy

c)

C.Dishonest

d)


D.Free rider problem

12.

The need for self-evaluation experiment has shown that people come to know about themselves by

a)

A.having positive attitude in life

b)

B.comparing with others

c)


C.seeking happiness

d)


D.feeling complete

13.

Some people consider social norms and the opinions of others to help justify their own positions in life, some others consider_____to perform better.
s


a)

A.opinions and value

b)

B.performance and abilities

c)

C.opinions and values

d)

D.similarity and friendliness

14.

What are the two main factors in social comparison?

a)

A.Similarity and friendliness

b)

B.Openness and independence

c)


C.Relevance and similarity

d)


D.Self-esteem and trustworthy

15.

When people can boost their own self-evaluations by comparing themselves to others ranked lower in a company, they are having



a)

A.life side effect

b)

B.bad behaviour

c)

C.self-enhanced effect

d)

D.self-evaluation maintenance

16.

What are the positive effects of upward comparison?


a)

A.Hope and inspiration

b)

B.Happy and gratitude

c)

C.Gratitude and scorn

d)


D.Dissatisfaction

17.

What is the negative effect of downward comparison?



a)

A.Envy

b)

B.Dissatisfaction

c)

C.Scorn

d)

D.Pessimistic

18.

Social comparison can lead to


a)

A.impacts on self-esteem, feeling of victory, feeling of humbleness

b)

B. impacts on self-esteem, feeling of envy, feeling of regret

c)

C.impacts on self-esteem, feeling of love, feeling of being superior

d)


D.Impacts on self-satisfaction, self-esteem, feeling of loser

19.

The SEM model suggests that managers may prefer sub optimal candidates because these candidates are not likely to



a)

A.be more competitive

b)

B.seek for opinions

c)

C.compare themselves to others

d)

D.threaten the managers' position

20.

What is groupthink?


a)

A.Group members are incapable of making a rational decision

b)

B.Group members share same thought in a specific topic

c)

C.Group members want to be alike in everything

d)

D.Group members decide to support each other

21.

People who consider upward comparison as a threat, have

a)

A.negative mindset

b)


B.growth mindset

c)

C.fixed mindset

d)


D.jealous feelings

22.

When the number of comparison targets increase, social comparison tends to



a)

a.increase

b)

b.remain the same

c)

c.be distorted

d)

d.decrease

23.

People usually compare with friends or co-workers than they are to industry or national averages, what is this comparison called in situational factors?


a)

A.Number

b)

B.Local

c)


C.Proximity to a standard

d)

D.Self-relevant

24.

One of the key findings in the Dunning-Kruger effect experiments is unskilled people are



a)

A.always satisfied with results

b)

B.often jealous with others

c)

C.unrewarded and biased

d)

D.overconfident with results

25.

One of the key findings in the Dunning-Kruger effect experiments is top performers tend to


a)

A.overestimate their skills

b)

B.rank themselves above average

c)


C.underestimate their skills

d)

D.always satisfied with results

26.

In group decision making process, if there are more people agree on certain point of view, we may consider the fact that the group has



a)

A.complete agreement

b)

B.group polarization

c)

C.group sharing knowledge

d)

D.All resources are mobilized

27.

People can claim that they can live independently and separately but they actually have


a)

A.a need to belong

b)

B.a need to be included

c)

C.a need to talk to someone

d)


D.None of these correct

28.

Groups not only satisfy need to belong, but also provide information, assistance and


a)

A.developed Skills

b)

B.better Communication

c)

C.social support

d)


D.motivation

29.

The psychological significance of groups include the need to belong, identity and membership, evolutionary advantages of group living and



a)

A.respect in groups

b)

B.affiliation in groups

c)

C.trust in groups

d)

D.interdependence in groups

30.

What is the main advantage of social facilitation?

a)

a.Feel better

b)


b.Perform tasks improved

c)

c.Work more independently

d)


d.Have high chance of promotion

31.

Which situation below is considered social loafing?



a)

A.A single student works alone on a paper

b)

B.A student does all the group homework

c)

C.Three students work on homework together

d)

D.The whole group equally work hard on group assignment

32.

Four group level factors that combine to cause groupthink are



a)

A.cohesion, isolation, biased leadership, decisional stress

b)

B.cohesion, isolation, discouragement, biased leadership

c)

C.cohesion, isolation, decisional stress, aggressiveness

d)

D.isolation, biased leadership, aggressiveness, discouragement

33.

Why is making group decision better than making individual decision?


a)

A.More objective evaluation

b)

B.Team members feel encouraged to do so

c)

C.No one left behind the process

d)


D.Group decision is inferior to an individual decision

34.

you start planning a proposal by


a)

A.determining the factors.

b)

B.determining the solutions.

c)

C.scheduling the study.

d)


D.stating the problem.

35.

The most important section of a proposal is the



a)

A.cost

b)

B.solution

c)

C.purpose statement

d)

D.background

36.

Which of the following is NOT a strategy to avoid the occurrence of Groupthink?

a)

A.Appointing devils' advocates in discussions

b)

B.Using outside experts

c)

C.Having a charismatic leader of the group

d)



D.Allocating different groups for different tasks

37.

Which of the following is NOT a negative outcomes of Groupthink occurring?

a)

A.Not examining alternatives

b)

B.No contingency plans

c)


C.Not seeking expert opinion

d)


D.Needing to seek outside expertise

38.

Which age group is often characterized by the tendency to rethink decisions and lean toward more permanent choices?


a)

A.12-17

b)

B.18-26

c)


C.27-31

d)

D.32-42

39.

What kind of students has been shown by research to stay in college longer, be more goal focused and motivated, and have a more satisfying and fulfilling college experience?


a)

A.Students who have good social relationships

b)

B.Students who have excellent leadership skills

c)

C.Students who show great passsion for the subjects they are studying

d)


D.Students who get involved in career-planning activities early

40.

One of the three categories of social value orientation (SVO) is?



a)

A.Incompetent

b)

B.Cooperative

c)

C.Obsessive

d)

D.Generous

41.

Strategy (ies) to develop yourself as a critical thinker


a)

a. Redefine the way you see things

b)

b. Reflect and practice

c)

c. Express yourself

d)


d. All are correct

42.

What is thinking?



a)

a. Is the mental process you use to form associations and models of the world

b)

b. Is the mark of an educated mind to be able to entertain a thought without accepting it

c)

c. Is the act of thinking that produces thoughts, which arise as ideas, images, sounds, or even emotions

d)

d. All of these are correct

43.

What is pattern of thought?



a)

a. Is the mental process you use to form associations and models of the world

b)

b. Is the mark of an educated mind to be able to entertain a thought without accepting it

c)

c.Is the act of thinking that produces thoughts, which arise as ideas, images, sounds, or even emotions

d)

d. Is the manipulation of information to form concepts, to engage in problem-solving, to reason, and to make decisions

44.

Learning objectives are ____ that specify what someone will know, care about, or be able to do as a result of a learning experience.



a)

a. goals

b)

b.purposes

c)

c. targets

d)

d. plans

45.

What are three main categories or "domains" of the learning skills?


a)

a. Cognitive domain, Affective domain, Reflective domain

b)

b. Cognitive domain, Affective domain, Proactive domain

c)

c. Cognitive domain, Affective domain, Psychomotor domain

d)


d. Cognitive domain, Reflective domain, Psychomotor domain

46.

The "Psychomotor Domain" of learning skills means


a)

a. What you should know

b)

b. What you should care about

c)

c. What you should be able to do

d)


d. None of these is correct

47.

Which of the following domains of learning skills means "What you should care about"?



a)

a. Cognitive domain

b)

b. Affective domain

c)

c. Psychomotor domain

d)

d. Reflective domain

48.

All of the followings are the ways to use critical thinking to evaluaterm-46te information, EXCEPT

x

a)

a. Being receptive to having your opinions changed

b)

d. Questioning your own conclusions

c)

c. Accepting something without asking for evidence

d)

d. Questioning your own conclusions

49.

Which is the highest learning-skill level of Bloom's Taxonomy?



a)

A.Analyze

b)

B.Apply

c)

C.Evaluate

d)

D.Create

50.

The word "power" literally means:



a)

a."To be able to"

b)

b."The influence"

c)

c."The strength"

d)

d.None of these answers

51.

Which is the lowest learning-skill level of Bloom's Taxonomy?



a)

A.Remember

b)

B.Understand

c)

C.Analyze

d)

D.Apply

52.

_____ is "the ability to judge, check, and even critique the value of material for a given purpose".


a)

A.Applying

b)


B.Evaluating

c)

C.Analyzing

d)

D.Creating

53.

_____ is "the ability to grasp or construct meaning from oral, written, and graphic messages".


a)

A.Remembering

b)

B.Understanding

c)

C.Analyzing

d)


D.Applying

54.

The "Applying" skill of Bloom's Taxonomy is:



a)

A.Ability to recognize or recall gained knowledge

b)

B.Ability to use learned material (or implement the material) in new and concrete situations

c)

C.Ability to judge, check, and even critique the value of material for a given purpose

d)

D.Ability to grasp or construct meaning from oral, written, and graphic messages

55.

Thought and thinking can be understood as _____within the mind.



a)

A.Patterns - Systems and Schemes

b)

B.Order and Structure

c)

C.Act and Control

d)

D.Analyze and Evaluate

56.

Creative thinking is



a)

A.a way of employing strategies to clear your mind so that your thoughts and ideas can transcend what appear to be the limitations of a problem

b)

B. important because it helps you look at problems and situations from a fresh perspective

c)

C.a way to develop novel or unorthodox solutions that do not depend wholly on past or current solutions

d)

d.All of these are correct

57.

Which statement is NOT true about creativity?

a)

A.All humans are innately creative, especially if creativity is understood as a problem-solving skill

b)

B.As a creative thinker, you are curious, optimistic, and imaginative

c)


C.Creativity is inspired when there is a problem to solve

d)


D.Human is not innately creative

58.

Pay raises, promotions, desirable job assignments, more responsibility, new equipment are example of:
a.Reward power
b.Legitimate
c.Expert Power

a)

a.Reward power

b)

b.Legitimate

c)

c.Expert Power

59.

To use THIS power: Punish in private , Inform subordinates of rules and penalties or this power can be used without jeopardizing personal integrity



a)

a.Reward power

b)

b.Legitimate power

c)

c.Evaluation criteria

d)

d.Coercive power

60.

____cultures focus on the needs of the nation, community, family, or group of workers
a.Collectivist


a)

a.Collectivist

b)

b.Individualistic

c)

c.Low-Power Distance

d)

d.High-Power Distance

61.

These conflicts, which relate to questions about what choices to make in a given situation, rest on differing views of the facts

b.Conflicts of process
c.Conflicts of misperceived differences
d.None of these

a)

a.conflicts of substance

b)

b.Conflicts of process

c)

c.Conflicts of misperceived differences

d)

d.None of these

62.

First stage in the model of the Conflict Process
a.Frustration
b.Conceptualization
c.Behavior
d.Outcome

a)

a.Frustration

b)

b.Conceptualization

c)

c.Behavior

d)

d.Outcome

63.

Which of the following reasons is sound justification for scheduling or attending a group meeting?



a)

a. You hate to write reports and memos

b)

b. You prefer not to do the research yourself

c)

c. You feel lost without colleagues

d)

d. Group input and interaction are critical

64.

Which of the following answers depicts the 3 main elements of a meeting?



a)

a. structure, schedule, chairperson

b)

b. conflict, cohesion, engagement

c)

c. members, leaders, engagement

d)

d. chairperson, agenda, minutes

65.

Which of the following criteria should NOT be considered when determining who to invite to a meeting?


a)

a. individuals who will be affected directly by the outcome

b)


b. individuals who disagree or represent minority viewpoints

c)

c. individuals who have the power to implement decisions

d)

d. individuals who are uninvolved in the issues for discussion

66.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct about a creative thinker?



a)

A.Be curious, optimistic

b)

B.See problems as limits of development

c)

C.Always challenge assumptions and suspend judgment

d)

D.Be imaginative

67.

College is great ground for enhancing creative thinking skills as in the below examples, EXCEPT


a)

A.Design sample exam questions to test your knowledge as you study for a final

b)

B.Devise a social media strategy for a club on campus

c)


C.Create plan for better communication with your colleagues

d)

D.Propose an education plan for a major you are designing for yourself

68.

Strategies to stimulate your creative thinking include


a)

A.Sleep on it

b)

B.Put yourself in nerve-racking situations once in a while to fire up your brain.

c)

C.Keep a notebook with you so you always have a way to record fleeting thoughts.

d)


D. All of these are correct

69.

Key strategy (ies) for success in evaluating information


a)

A.Examine arguments

b)


B.Clarify thinking

c)

C.Cultivate "habits of mind"

d)

D.All of these are correct

70.

Among the tips for creative thinking, What does "Sensing" mean?
events around you


a)

A.Be a good observer of people, nature, and events around youA.Be a good observer of people, nature, and

b)

B.Be empathetic with other people

c)

C.Have more fun learning

d)

D.Be open to insight as ideas pop into your mind

71.

How to develop your creative thinking skill through "Drawing"?



a)

A.Develop ideas and expand their possibilities

b)

B.Use mind-mapping to capture ideas

c)

C.Explain how your ideas move beyond the status quo and contribute to a discussion

d)

D.Take notes

72.

Which action does belong to the strategy "Identify available solutions"?


a)

A.Identify the problem

b)

B.Organize the information logically

c)


C.Compare and contrast possible solutions

d)

D.Defend your solution

73.

Which is a fact about Creative Thinking?



a)

A.Every problem has only one solution or one right answer

b)

B.Ideas either come or they don't. Nothing will help - certainly not structure

c)

C.The best answer or solution or method has already been discovered

d)

D.Only few problems require complex technological solutions

74.

Which is NOT a fiction about Creative Thinking?



a)

A. Every problem has only one solution or one right answer

b)

B.The best answer or solution or method has already been discovered

c)

C.Creative answers are technologically complex

d)

D.Creative solution should be answer for all problems

75.

Which technology can help students establish a sense of community with their class and engage in ongoing threaded conversations on assigned readings and topics highlighting diverse points of view?


a)

A.Interactive whiteboards

b)

B.Discussion boards

c)

C.Student-response systems

d)


D.Digital camcorders

76.

In which way does "Wikis" contribute to our ability to be critical and creative thinkers?



a)

A.
Wikis can help students coordinate, compile, synthesize, and present individual or group projects or research.

b)

B.Wikis can help students build and share group resources and knowledge.

c)

C.Wikis can help students provide peer review, feedback, and critiques.

d)

D.All of these are correct

77.

What is Critical thinking?


a)

A.Is clear, reasonable, reflective thinking focused on deciding what to believe or do

b)


B.Is a way of thinking to criticize what other people say

c)

C.Is reflective thinking focused on claiming and proving other people your ideas or opinions

d)

D.Is simple thinking that memorizing facts or blindly accepting what you hear or read

78.

What are the characteristics of Critical thinking?



a)

A.Examining assumptions

b)

B.Challenging reasoning

c)

C.Uncovering biases

d)

D.All of these are correct

79.

Which is NOT a characteristic of Critical thinking?


a)

A.Skepticism

b)

B.Group thinking

c)

B.Group thinking

d)

D.Uncovering biases

80.

What is the meaning of the word "Logic" in the Ancient Greek logike?



a)

A.A process of questioning information and data

b)

B.It means asking probing questions

c)

C.The science or art of reasoning

d)

D.It refers to using knowledge, facts, and data to solve problems

81.

Which of the following statements is NOT correct?



a)

A.The word "Logic" comes from the Ancient Greek logike

b)

B."Logic" refers to the science or art of reasoning

c)

C."Logic" allows a person to evaluate arguments and reasoning

d)

D."Logic" cannot help to distinguish between good and bad reasoning

82.

What is the purpose of the critical thinker when asking "What is happening?"?



a)

A.To gather the basic information and begin to think of questions

b)

B.To see where the information come from and how it was constructed

c)

C.To check if any information is missing

d)

D.To know if other ideas or possibilities exist

83.

What is the similarity of Critical thinking and Problem-solving?


a)

A.They both focus on identifying, selecting, defending solution

b)

B.They both refer to using knowledge, facts, and data to solve problems effectively

c)

C.They are efficient and rewarding process

d)

D.They are fundamentally process of questioning information and data

84.

In order to "Define the problem", which actions should we take?



a)

A.Identify the problem, Identify facts, Provide examples, Organize the information logically

b)

B.Identify the problem, Identify facts, Identify your most important goals

c)

C.Identify the problem, Provide as many supporting details as possible, Provide examples, Organize the information logically

d)

D.Identify the problem, Provide as many supporting details as possible, Identify your most important goals, Gather information and facts

85.

Which is TRUE about long-term orientation culture


a)

a.United States has a more long-term approach to life and results

b)


b.If you work within a culture that has a long-term orientation, you may need to place greater emphasis on reciprocation of greetings, gifts, and rewards.

c)

c.Long-term orientation is often marked by persistence, thrift and frugality

d)

d.All of these

86.

Which is TRUE about short-term orientation culture


a)

a.Many countries in Asia value a short-term orientation

b)

b.If you work within a culture that has a short-term orientation, you may need to place greater emphasis on reciprocation of greetings, gifts, and rewards

c)


c.Short-term orientation is often marked by persistence, thrift and frugality, and an order to relationships based on age and status

d)

d.All of these

87.


"_______enables one individual or group to make the decisions that affect others, and to enforce control"



a)

a.Power-from-within

b)

b.Power-with

c)

c.Power-over

d)


d.Power-from-outside

88.

Which type of power can manifest itself when we stand, walk, and speak.



a)

a.Power-from-within

b)

b.Power-with

c)

c.Power-over

d)

d.None of these answers

89.

Arises from our sense of connection, our bonding with other human beings, and with the environment" can be used to describe which type of power.


a)

a.Power-from-within

b)

b.Power-with

c)

c.Power-over

d)


d.None of these answers

90.

"The power of a strong individual in a group of equals, the power not to command, but to suggest and be listened to, to begin something and see it happen" can be used to describe which type of power.




a)

a.Power-from-within

b)

b.Power-with

c)

c.Power-over

d)

d.None of these answers

91.

Which of the following idioms can be used to describe the relationship between power and oppression.



a)

a.A blessing in disguise

b)

b.The best of both worlds

c)

c.Get out of hand

d)

d.Two sides of the same coin

92.

When does a person obtain the expert power?



a)

a.Person A has higher status than person B

b)

b.Person A has more expertise knowledge than person B

c)

c.Person A group is bigger than person B

d)

d.Person A has more friend than person B

93.

What are the possible behavior responses in the consequences of power?
l


a)

a.Trustworthiness and betraya

b)

b.Complaint and compliance

c)

c.Commitment and compliance

d)

d.Trustworthiness and resistance

94.

The best way to convey friendliness is to



a)

a. smile

b)

b. speak slowly

c)

c. tell a joke

d)

d. use a tone of importance

95.

David has just been given the task of delivering an oral presentation to the marketing department of the organization he joined two months ago. The first thing David should do is



a)

a. analyze the audience

b)

b. determine the purpose of the presentation

c)

c. draft an outline

d)

d. gather supporting data

96.

Michelle is new staff of Marketing department in FPT Software company. Her manager told her to prepare a report to review activity of the department in the last 3 months.Which type of report is that?



a)

a. Progress

b)

b. Financial

c)

c. Feasibility

d)

d. Needs assessment

97.

Susan is a new staff of IT team 3 in FPT Software company. Her senior told her to prepare a report to instruct their Japanese customer how the new app works. Which type of report is that?

a)

a. Technical

b)


b. Financial

c)

c. Feasibility

d)


d. Needs assessment

98.

When preparing report content, you should ask all of the questions below except



a)

a. Whom the report is about and/or prepared for?

b)

b. What was done, what problems were addressed, and the results, including conclusions and/or recommendations?

c)

c. Where the subject studied occurred?

d)

d. How much do your manager pay you to write the report?

99.

What is abstract in a report?

a)

a Title fly

b)


b. Key words to introduce the research topic

c)


c. Introduction part

d)


d. Include aims and outcome of the research

100.

What are included in a report abstract?



a)

a. Highlight topic, methods, data, and results

b)

b.A list of the main parts of the report

c)

c. Label, report, features title, author

d)

d. Methodology

101.

The solution toa research problem is presented in the report as a part of the



a)

a. appendix

b)

b. conclusion

c)

c. recommendation

d)

d. findings

102.

Which of the following is the best example of constructive feedback?



a)

a. Your proposal is disorganized, contains computational errors, and is a writing disaster.

b)

b. You aren't paying attention to the customer when you are having a conversation with someone else at the same time

c)

c. Why can't you stay focus? It is only 10 o'clock in the morning

d)

d. All the elements of a good proposal are here; they just need to be reordered. By placing the strongest element first, we can capture and hold the reader's attention.

103.

Which of the following statements is NOT true of performance appraisals?



a)

a. They may be written directly or indirectly, depending on the situation.

b)

b. They may include humor if audience analysis dictates it will be well received

c)

c. They should be brief.

d)

d. They should include factual evidence of strong or weak performance.

104.

The disadvantage of written messages is that they



a)

a. Can have legal value.

b)

b. Can be revised and edited to ensure they adhere to the principles of business communication.

c)

c. Can be reread and studied, which is important if a message is long, is complex, or has been written in anger.

d)

d. Can be viewed as being more formal, in part because they are permanent.

105.

Which of the following should be a consideration in determining the formality of a goodwill message?


a)

a. Cost

b)

b. Timeliness in sending the message

c)

c. Length of message

d)


d. Familiarity with the receiver

106.

How should the saying "your understanding was wrong" can be paraphrased into a more positive way?


a)

a. | already explained the case for you more than 3 times.

b)


b. Are you sure about the fact?

c)

c. I can only see mistakes in this.

d)

d. Let us review the facts.

107.

When writing an email, you should consider your receiver's educational level and knowledge of the message topic. If your receivers do not work in the same industry with you, you are recommended to use.


a)

a. technical words

b)

b. nontechnical words

c)


c. words that you know

d)

d. English

108.

Which sentence below effectively conveys a positive attitude?



a)

a. Our professional staff will repair your laptop.

b)

b. The store will not open until 10am,

c)

c. | regret to advise that we must the refund request for your keyboard

d)

d. You cannot be enrolled in your courser course.

109.

How can you demonstrate sensitivity to a partner's culture?



a)

a. Avoid discussing any cultural differences

b)

b. Mimic the partner's mannerisms perfectly

c)

c. Start formally before becoming informal

d)

d. Begin informally to help establish rapport

110.

In order to make good impression to achieve the message goals, positive words convey optimism and confidence are



a)

a. Disapprove, impossible,obnoxious

b)

b. Deny, hateful, not

c)

c. Contradict, fault, unable

d)

d. Favorable, compliment,
answerable

111.

The most important part of an application letter is the

b. attention-getting opening
c. logical explanation
d.summary of qualifications

a)

a.action-promoting close

b)

b. attention-getting opening

c)

c. logical explanation

d)

d.summary of qualifications

112.

How should you best respond to interview questions?



a)

a.Be enthusiastic, honest,sincere, and state your accomplishments in a specific and positive manner.

b)

b.Embellish your achievements and accomplishments to make sure the employer remembers them

c)

c.Say that your achievements and accomplishments are detailed on your resume.

d)

d.Use caution when describing what you have accomplished so you will

113.

Which of the following interview questions is a behavioral question?



a)

a.Where do you want to be in the next five years?

b)

b.What type of work environment, structured or unstructured, is your most productive work setting?

c)

c.You are younger than most people you will supervise. Do you think that is a problem?

d)

d.Tell an experience of a time when you faced a major problem in group projects and how have you dealt with it?

114.

When developing an application letter, which of the following should not be added in the opening of the letter?



a)

a.The name of your referee who introduced this job to you

b)

b.Your knowledge about the position or the company

c)

c.Reasons why you find this position interesting

d)

d.Your most significant accomplishments

115.

Which questions below that a job applicant should prepare to ask during an interview?
a.Please describe the normal routine of this position in a typical day?
b.How can | gain promotion?

a)

a.Please describe the normal routine of this position in a typical day?

b)

b.How can | gain promotion?

c)

c.When do you expect to make a hiring decision as it is said in the recruitment advertisement that this position is in urgent need?

d)

d.Currently I am focused on my career. Although having a family is always a possibility, it is not a priority at the moment

116.

"Lam the first person in my family to complete a Bachelor degree; and now that | have finished my education, | want to give something back to my family by getting a good job with a company like yours. | worked part time while attending school, so I have work experience at food stores. | am a hard worker; | grew up on the farm and could drive any kind of machinery." This part of an application letter to software developer position is not effective because__



a)

a.It uses impersonal salutation.

b)

b.It does not relate to the company needs.

c)

c.It conveys negative tones.

d)

d.It provides the family background of the applicant

117.

In a job interview, which of the following answers is most appropriate to answer the question "Are you planning a family in the near future?"


a)

b.May I not answer this over personal question?

b)

c.As an active person in the young generation, | am quite open to this issue, | am working hard to support my parents first, and then | gaining a high social status for my future children.

c)

d.Currently I am focused on my career. Although having a family is always a possibility, it is not a priority at the moment.

d)

a.| suppose everyone has a family plan in their own way. What will be will be!

118.

Examples of communication challenges in a global environment are


a)

a.Not understanding cultural differences

b)

b.Differences in time

c)

c.Words that have different meanings andconnotations and different
language

d)

d.Differences in calling each other by first name or family name

119.

Which of the following is NOT a requirement of a valid contract?



a)

a.Written on a contract form

b)

b.Competency of parties

c)

c.Offer and acceptance

d)

d.Legal subject matter

120.

When being asked "please tell us your strengths?" in a job interview, what should you focus on in your answer?



a)

a.Tell about your academic awards, your successful school projects.

b)

b.Tell about your two key personal qualifications.

c)

c.Tell your work-related accomplishments, mention how your previous supervisor or manager have pleased with your work performance.

d)

d.Tell about your skills and knowledge and explain how they satisfy the job requirements.

121.

Which of the following is NOT the reason for leaders to enable a broader social-connectedness between employees in the workplace?

a)

a.Psychological wellbeing is at risk, as is cognitive performance, if people can't socialize at work

b)

b.People with broad organizational knowledge that people like collaborating with seem to add the most value

c)

c.The act of socializing with other people on a regular basis is increasingly being seen as necessary for maintaining and increasing the information highways within the brain. It helps people think better.

d)

d.People with friends at work tend to be happier and more productive

122.

When doing business in a diverse global environment, you will want to adopt an open, respectful attitude toward cultural differences of others by doing all of the following except_____



a)

a.accept other people's needs for indirectness in communicating as in Asia.

b)

b.open to understanding and be respectful of the different ways people of other cultures think and feel.

c)

c.sense that your own culture represents one way—and not the only way—to believe and to do things.

d)

d.rush to an early judgment about the way a business deal is going.

123.

In order to make good impression, positive words convey optimism and confidence are



a)

a.regret, sorry, terror

b)

b.trouble, unable, happy

c)

c.wrong, obnoxious, yes

d)

d.willing, thank, appreciate

124.

Nonverbal behavior that reflects positive attitude is _____



a)

a.moving your knees and your feet toward to door

b)

b.looking at your watch

c)

c.playing with your jewelry

d)

d.leaning your body toward the person with whom you are conversing

125.

When you conduct a job campaign to obtain employment. After analyzing your qualifications and job preferences, you will _____



a)

a.start an interview for a job

b)

b.obtain information about employment opportunities

c)

c.email cover letter to potential companies

d)

d.go to gym to prepare good health and appearance for the job interview

126.

When analyzing your qualifications and job preferences, you will look into your most positive attributes including



a)

a.your achievements, background, soft skills, professional referees

b)

b.your strengths, weaknesses, interests, skills

c)

c.your accomplishments, education, experience, and personal traits

d)

d.your awards, education, qualifications, hobbies

127.

When analyzing job preferences, which of the following questions is not necessary to consider?

a)

a.Do you like working indoors, outside an office environment, or in varied work environments?

b)

b.Do you want to work in a large company with a structured work environment, or do you prefer a small or less-structured company?

c)

c.Do you want to work alone, working with other people or being in charge?

d)

d.Do you want to work in a comfortable and open environment with people who share the same hobbies and personal life with you?

128.

The primary purpose of networking contacts is to



a)

a.ask for their help in finding a job.

b)

b.ask them to serve as a reference for your resume.

c)

c.leave a resume with them.

d)

d.seek their guidance and advice.

129.

For new college graduates with limited experience, the preferred number of pages for a resume is


b)

b.two.

c)

c.three.

d)

d.four.

130.

Which of the following interview questions is a behavioral question?



a)

a.Do you like to work alone or with other people?

b)

b.Give me an example of a situation in which you were successful (or unsuccessful) in motivating someone.

c)

c.What does teamwork mean to you?

d)

d.What is your greatest weakness?

131.

An interview question that asks about one of your weaknesses would be answered best by


a)

a.admitting the weakness.

b)

b.asking if it is necessary to talk about weaknesses.

c)

c.naming a weakness and turning it into a strength.

d)

d.saying that you do not have any weaknesses.

132.

Which sentence below is unbiased?



a)

d.Mr. Nando, our city senior, is going to deliver a speech.

b)

a.Our white boss is going to deliver a speech.

c)

b.Mrs. Nancy is going to deliver a speech.

d)

c.The Jewish lady is going to deliver a speech.
d.Mr. Nando, our city senior, is going to deliver a speech.

133.

Which of the following is the best content for an answer to the interview question, "What do you consider your strengths?"



a)

a.Cite your academic record and achievements

b)

b.List 3 specific abilities that you have and explain how they have served you in the past

c)

c.Refer to your work-related accomplishments

d)

d.Relate your skills and knowledge to the job requirements

134.

What is career development?

.

a)

a.It's a lifelong process in which we become aware of, interested in, knowledgeable about, and skilled in a career.

b)

b.It's a key part of human development as our identity forms and our life unfolds.

c)

c.It's a development process that varies from person to person on the life journey to discover themselves

d)

d.All are correct

135.

What are the four cyclical steps of the career roadmap identifies?

a)

a.Know yourself, Explore and choose options, Gain knowledge and experience, Put it all together: the job search process

b)

b.Know yourself, Increase income, Gain more business relationship, Put it all together: the job search process

c)

c.Know the job market, Know leadership, Explore and choose options, Improve living standard of self and family

d)

d.Know employees' requirement, Explore your passion, Gain money, Gain social relationship

136.

Which of the following is incorrect about resume?

a)

a.A résumé is a “selfie” for business purposes.

b)

b.It is a written picture of who you are—it’s a marketing tool, and a promotion of you as an ideal candidate for any job you may be interested in

c)

c.The word résumé comes from the French word résumé, which means “a summary.”

d)

d.Resume is to show to your family what you do for a living.

137.

Which of the following is optional in a resume?



a)

a.Work experience

b)

b.Education background

c)

c.Job-related skills

d)

d.Hobbies/interests

138.

What should you put in the Education part in a resume?



a)

a.academic degrees, professional development, certificates, internships

b)

b.most recent jobs you have experience; include the title of the position, employer's name, location, employment dates

c)

c.5-10 skills you have gained in your field

d)

d.Personal contact

139.

What should you put in the Work experience part in a resume?



a)

a.Academic degrees, professional development, certificates, internships

b)

b.Most recent jobs you have experience; include the title of the position, employer's name, location, employment dates

c)

c.5-10 skills you have gained in your field

d)

d.Personal contact

140.

What should be written in the Personal Information part in a resume?



a)

a.Email and phone number

b)

b.Health issue

c)

c.Religious belief

d)

d.Gender, height, weight

141.

What can a student put in his or her cover letter?



a)

a.GPA

b)

b.Soft skills

c)

c.Volunteer works

d)

d.All are correct

142.

Which of the following advice is NOT suitable for a job interview?



a)

a.Review job description

b)

b.Be confident

c)

c.Come prepared

d)

d.Dress casually

143.

Which of the following advice is NOT suitable for a job interview?


a)

a.Research the company

b)

b.Research other companies in the same industry

c)

c.Practice answer questions about the job

d)

d.Practice answer questions about personal life

144.

What should you do right after a job interview?


c.Send an email to HR department asking about the result of the interview

a)

a.Do nothing

b)

c.Send an email to HR department asking about the result of the interview

c)

b.Wait patiently for the HR department to call you

d)

d.Send thank you email to the interviewer

145.

Below are questions that a job applicant should prepare to ask during an interview EXCEPT



a)

a.What are the major responsibilities of the job?

b)

b.Please describe the normal routine of this position?

c)

c.How is job performance evaluated and how often?

d)

d.How much can the company pay me?

146.

Who do potential employers consider references from as the best type of references?



a)

a.Your friends

b)

b.Your lecturers or your previous manager

c)

c.Your family

d)

d.Your best friends

147.

Choose the best answer for the interview question "How old are you?"



a)

a.Old enough to have the knowledge to do the job well but not too old to be excited about continuing to improve and do it better.

b)

b.22 years old.

c)

c.Old enough to take this job.

d)

d.My age is written in my resume. I ama very young, active, energetic person.

148.

An interviewer may intentionally challenge you by asking difficult questions to ...........



a)

a.see how you handle different situations.

b)

b.see you panic.

c)

c.show you the working environment can be stressful.

d)

d.avoid being friendly.

149.

What is good advice to communicate effectively in a job interview?



a)

a.Using jargon

b)

b.Rambling

c)

c.Keep eye contact

d)

d.Over friendly

150.

The resume opening should include a



a)

a.heading, job or career objective, and a summary of your qualifications.

b)

b.section with information for contacting your references.

c)

c.summary of education.

d)

d.list of special skills, honors, and activities.

151.

Why being socially connected is an important way of dealing with stress?



a)

a.Because it's easy to isolate yourself when you feel stressed

b)

b.Because it helps you to maintain a normal routine

c)

c.Because other people can give you good advices about your problems

d)

d.Because it can help distract you from your problems for a while

152.

When subordinates are under conditions of coercive power, which following behavior responses are likely to be used?



a)

a.Tolerance

b)

b.Enthusiasm

c)

c.Acceptance

d)

d.Resistance

153.

According to the research on diversity, what makes diverse groups/teams are better at decision-making and problem-solving?



a)

a.Tend to focus more on facts

b)

b.Less additional idea

c)

c.More variety of personality

d)

d.Has different belief

154.

What is the final best practice for boosting multicultural skills?



a)

a.Developing cultural intelligence

b)

b.Developing cognitive complexity

c)

c.Developing cultural competence

d)

d.Developing cross-cultural skills

155.

The common story that can be used to reflect individualistic cultures is?



a)

a.Tom and Jerry

b)

b.Spider-man

c)

c.Superman

d)

d.Mickey mouse

156.

Which of the following countries represent individualistic cultures?



a)

a.Japan

b)

b.Cuba

c)

c.Vietnam

d)

d.The United States

157.

Which of the following can be seen as positive sides of conflict?



a)

a.Help individuals and group members grow and develop self-identities

b)

b.Affect the social climate of the group and inhibit group cohesiveness

c)

c.Making people divert energies away from the performance

d)

d.Influence on stress and the psychophysical consequences of stress

158.

Which conflict-handling mode can be used when opponents with equal power are committed to mutually exclusive goals


a)

a.Avoiding

b)

b.Competing

c)

c.Compromising

d)


d.Accommodating

159.

Which of the following are the five modes for conflict resolution developed by Kenneth Thomas (1976)?



a)

a.(1) competing, (2) collaborating, (3) compromising, (4) avoiding, and (5) accommodating

b)

b.(1) competing, (2) combination, (3) aggravating, (4) resistance, and (5) ignore

c)

c.(1) competing, (2) combination, (3) compromising, (4) avoiding, and (5) accommodating

d)

d.(1) competing, (2) collaborating, (3) aggravating, (4) resistance, and (5) ignore

160.

What is the quickest and easiest solution to reduce conflict?


a)

a.Physical separation

b)

b.Use of rules and regulations

c)

c.Third-party consultation

d)

d.Confrontation and negotiation

161.

In the Leader Trait Research which trait includes strong analytical abilities?


a)

a.Self-confidence

b)

b.Leadership motivation

d)

d.Cognitive ability

162.

Which conflict-handling mode can be used when an issue is trivial, or when more important issues are pressing



a)

a.Avoiding

b)

b.Competing

c)

c.Compromising

d)

d.Accommodating

163.

Which conflict-handling mode can be used when issues are more important to others than yourself—to satisfy others and maintain cooperation



a)

a.Avoiding

b)

b.Competing

c)

c.Compromising

d)

d.Accommodating

164.

Status can be defined as:


a)

a.A person's perceived level of importance or significance within a particular context.

b)

b.A result of power, with its roots in global colonialism and conquests

c)


c.An action can deny certain groups jobs that pay living wages, can establish unequal. can deny affordable housing, and the list goes on

d)

d.None of these above

165.

Which power of the following exists when person B submits to person A because B feels that A has a right to exert power in a certain domain?



a)

a.Expert Power

b)

b.Legitimate Power

c)

c.Reward Power

d)

d.Coercive Power

166.

What is an example of Expert Power?



a)

a.Professors presumably have power in the classroom because of their mastery of a particular subject matter.

b)

b.A supervisor has a right to assign work.

c)

c.Salary and promotion among most blue-collar workers is based on a labor contract, not a performance appraisal.

d)

d.In many organizations, supervisors and managers really do not control very many rewards.

167.

Coercive power is also referred to as:



a)

a.Respect power

b)

b.Team power

c)

c.Discipline power

d)

d.Punish power

168.

Reward Power exists when:



a)

a.person A has power over person B because A can administer some form of punishment to B.

b)

b.person A gains power because A has knowledge or expertise relevant to B.

c)

c.when person B submits to person A because B feels that A has a right to exert power in a certain domain

d)

d.when person A has power over person B because A controls rewards that B wants.

169.

Last stage in the model of the Conflict Process
a.Frustration


a)

a.Frustration

b)

c.Behavior

c)

b.Outcome

d)

b.Conceptualization

170.

Of all the bases of power available to man, the power to hurt others is possibly the most often used, most often condemned and most difficult to control.



a)

a.Reward Power

b)

b.Coercive power

c)

c.Referent Power

d)

d.Legitimate Power

171.

Which of the four key cultural differences could be considered offensive by some?



a)

a.Direct versus indirect communication

b)

b.Accents and fluency

c)

c.Differing attitudes toward hierarchy

d)

d.Conflicting decision-making norms

172.

When one language is dominated in the group, what could happen to the person who can't speak it?



a)

a.Less competent in a group

b)

b.Feel left out

c)

c.Be seen as contributing less

d)

d.All the above

173.

Which of the following provides a great advantage to the leader in their relationships with teammates?


a)

a.Authority to control teammates

b)


b.Superior status

c)

c.Cultural intelligence

d)

d.Explicit in communication

174.

Which of the following intervention technique should be used sparingly?
a.Adaptation
b.Structural
c.Managerial

a)

a.Adaptation

b)

b.Structural

c)

c.Managerial

d)

d.Voluntary or involuntary removal

175.

When conflicts arise, what intervention technique should be used as a last resort?

b.Structural
c.Managerial
d.Voluntary or involuntary removal

a)

a.Adaptation

b)

b.Structural

c)

c.Managerial

d)

d.Voluntary or involuntary removal

176.

Which traits are taking on increasing importance in the business world today?



a)

a.Multiculturalism and cultural intelligence

b)

b.Verbal and nonverbal communication

c)

c.Cultural intelligence and language

d)

d.Style, pace, language and nonverbal communication

177.

When do the Conflicts of misperceived differences arise?



a)

a.Reinforcing or weakening each other's impact

b)

b.Interpret each other's actions or emotions erroneously

c)

c.Differ over how to reach goals or pursue values

d)

d.Hold totally different values or rank the same values in a significantly different order

178.

What makes Relationship conflicts become hard to cope with?



a)

a.Intimidate personal ego

b)

b.Increased sense of self-worth

c)

c.Misconception

d)

d.People frequently aren't admitted for what they are

179.

Which behavior people often DON'T display when they
are being deceptive



a)

a.Reduction in eye contact while engaged in a conversation

b)

b.Awkward pauses in conversation

c)

c.Decreased rate of speech

d)

d.Increased smiling

180.

At what point in a business meeting should group members approve the agenda and minutes?



a)

a. right after the call to order

b)

b. right after routine reports are shared

c)

c. before the discussion of new business

d)

d. right before final announcements by members

181.

The person in charge of
conducting a meeting is
the.


a)

a. group leader

b)

b. dominator

c)

c. chairperson

d)


d. recorder

182.

oving at a comfortable pace EXCEPT


a)

a. Only begin the meeting until all important group members are present

b)

b. Place a time limit on each agenda item

c)


c. Stay focused on the meeting's goal

d)

d. Schedule another meeting to discuss unfinished business

183.

Which of the following labels does NOT represent how member behavior can disrupt a meeting?


a)

a. loudmouth

b)

b. whisperer

c)

c. latecomer

d)

d. summarizer

184.

Who is the meeting contributor?



a)

a. sleeper

b)

b. whisperer

c)

c. latecomer

d)

d. reporter

185.

The sentence "Let Nemo finish her point first, and then we'll hear other's opinions" can help a group deal with a member who is.......


a)

a. loudmouth

b)

b. whisperer

c)

c. interrupter

d)


d. quieter

186.

The written record of a group's discussion and activities is _____



a)

a. ameeting minute

b)

b.a report

c)

c. an agenda

d)

d.anote

187.

Which of the following is bad advice for group meeting?



a)

a. The group should
always use a 2/3 vote to
ensure the majority rules

b)

b. The group accepts the
will of the majority even
though some members do.
not like that decision

c)

c. The group follows an
approved agenda that
promotes orderly
business

d)

d. The group protects the
rights of all members by
guaranteeing everyone
the right to speak

188.

Meetings give members a ___________ that boosts their motivation to implement group ideas and actions



a)

a. real voice In decisions

b)

b. chance to argue

c)

c. time to relax

d)

d. time to chat

189.

Which of the following is the best example of constructive feedback?

a)

a. Not giving full attention to a customer gives the image that we don't think he or she is important.

b)


b.| believe that using mobile phone for personal purpose during working hours is not allowed in this company, but it seems like you do not see the real benefit of this policy.

c)


c. You are not paying attention to the customer when you are having a conversation with someone else at the same time.

d)

d. You were trained that you'll make a more positive corporate impression if you give the customer your complete attention.

190.

Which words below show emphasis?



a)

a. Significantly, primarily,
especially

b)

b. But, however, by
contrast

c)

c. For example, to
illustrate, like

d)

d. First, second, last

191.

Which words should you use to when you want to give contrast ideas?


a)

a. Significantly, primarily,
especially

b)


b. Nevertheless, however,
by contrast

c)

c. For example, to
illustrate, like

d)

d. First, second, last

192.

Which words should you use to when you want to add more ideas?


a)

a. Furthermore, also,
similarly

b)

b. Nevertheless, however,
by contrast

c)

c. For example, to
illustrate, like

d)


d. Therefore, as a result,
hence

193.

What are good advice for a meeting participants?



a)

a. become angry for no good reason

b)

b. demand much more information than is needed

c)

c. offer much more information than is needed

d)

d. demonstrate professionalism in your verbal and nonverbal
interactions

194.

Which is TRUE about persuasion?



a)

a. Persuasion is an act or process of presenting
arguments to move, motivate, or change your audience

b)

b. Persuasion can be implicit or explicit an only have positive effects

c)

c. Persuasion is forcing people to do as your request

d)

d. Persuasion is an act of leader giving order to followers without considering their will

195.

Which of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is primarily met when someone joins an exclusive club or is elected as leader of a prestigious group?



a)

a. Physiological

b)

b. Esteem

c)

c. Love and belonging

d)

d. Safety

196.

Which of Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs is primarily met when a neighborhood watch group forms to deter crime in the community?


a)

a. Physiological

b)

b. Esteem

c)

c. Love and belonging

d)


d. Safety

197.

Which is FALSE about Maslow hierarchy of needs?



a)

a. Maslow's basic need is safety need.

b)

b. Maslow's Hierarchy of Needs ranks critical needs in the following order:
physiological, safety, belongingness, esteem, and self-actualization

c)

c. Maslow's basic need is physiological need

d)

d. Mastow's Hierarchy ofNeeds includes control, inclusion, and affection needs.

198.

Reasons for us to engage in communication are all below EXCEPT



a)

a. Dominate people for personal benefits

b)

b. Understand communication context

c)

c. Understand our identity

d)

d. Meets our need

199.

Laura has an important meeting tomorrow to present her solution to the city People Committee about improving students' life. Which of the following is good advice for her to prepare herself for the presentation?



a)

a. Use emotional appeals

b)

b. Simplify the students' problems to make the solution look easy

c)

c. Hide numbers and facts if the committee do not ask

d)

d. Prepare the presentation with relevant data and rehearsal the speech carefully

200.

To produce a good opening in a persuasive message, you should keep it



a)

a. Neutral

b)

b. Negative and impersonal

c)

c. Impersonal

d)

d. Positive and personal

201.

When conducting a meeting, you should



a)

a. Be bold and honest, not afraid to hurt people's feeling

b)

b. Get every team member to voice out their feeling and opinions

c)

c. Make it as short as possible because time is gold

d)

d. Favor relationships

202.

At the end of a meeting, you should



a)

a. Ask a lot of questions to test the team members' understanding of the discussion

b)

b. Be brief and recapture the key points

c)

c. Be the first to leave the meeting room

d)

d. Take group photo and have conversation with members to build personal relationships with them

203.

Eye contact with your team members can be maintained by



a)

a. always looking at a few people

b)

b. always looking at your favourite people

c)

c. always looking at the nearest people

d)

d. looking at every individual in a regular pattern

204.

You may maintain less eye contact with audiences who are.



a)

a. very interested in your presentation

b)

b. not showing interest in your presentation

c)

c. want to ask questions

d)

d. new to your team

205.

In a communication transaction, feedback represents



a)

a. a group's physical and psychological environment.

b)

b. anything that interferes with or inhibits effective communication.

c)

c. the media through which group members share messages.

d)

d. the response or reaction to a message.

206.

On her way to an important Friday morning meeting, Susan observes one of the people she supervises speaking harshly to a customer. Susan knows she must offer constructive feedback to the employee, so she decides to



a)

a. concentrate more on her verbal than on her nonverbal message

b)

b. minimize the impact of her criticism by speaking in general terms

c)

c. speak to the employee early Monday morning

d)

d. stress the benefits the receiver will gain by modifying his/her behavior

207.

Which type of feedback requests confirmation or clarification of a message, and is often expressed in the form of a question?


a)

a. Evaluative

b)


b. Interpretive

c)

c. Supportive

d)

d. Probing

208.

Which type of feedback communicates encouragement in response to a message?



a)

a. Evaluative

b)

b. Interpretive

c)

c. Supportive

d)

d. Probing

209.

Which type of feedback communicates sympathy and empathy for the source of the message?


a)

a. Evaluative

b)

b. Interpretive

c)


c. Supportive

d)

d. Understanding