wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Cisco 2, Modules 1-7 MidTerm Exam

Total questions: 106

Worksheet time: 2hrs 46mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which tasks can be accomplished by using the command history feature? (Choose two.)

a)

Save command lines in a log file for future reference.

b)

Recall up to 15 command lines by default.

c)

Recall previously entered commands.

d)

Set the command history buffer size.

e)

View a list of commands entered in a previous session.

2.

Which statement describes the system LED operation on Cisco Catalyst switches?

a)

If the LED is blinking green, the system is operating normally.

b)

If the LED is amber, the system is receiving power but it is not functioning properly.

c)

If the LED is blinking amber, the switch is performing POST.

d)

If the LED is amber, the system is not powered on.

3.

What type of Ethernet cable would be used to connect one switch to another switch when neither switch supports the auto-MDIX feature?

a)

straight-through

b)

rollover

c)

coaxial

d)

crossover

4.

What advantage does SSH offer over Telnet?

a)

more connection lines

b)

encryption

c)

username and password authentication

d)

connection-oriented services

5.

A network administrator has configured ​VLAN 99 as the management VLAN and has configured it with an IP address and subnet mask. The administrator issues the show interface vlan 99 command and notices that the line protocol is down. Which action can change the state of the line protocol to up?

a)

Configure a transport input method on the vty lines.

b)

Remove all access ports from VLAN 99.

c)

Configure a default gateway.

d)

Connect a host to an interface associated with VLAN 99.

6.

Which statement describes SVIs?

a)

A default SVI is created for VLAN 1 for switch administration.

b)

An SVI is created automatically for each VLAN on a multilayer switch.

c)

Creating an SVI automatically creates an associated VLAN.

d)

An SVI can only be created for the management VLAN.

7.

Which prompt is displayed when a network administrator successfully accesses the boot loader on a switch to recover from a system crash?

a)

system:

b)

switch:

c)

system#

d)

switch#

8.

Which router bootup sequence is correct?

a)

1 - perform the POST and load the Cisco IOS software, 2 - locate and load the startup configuration file or enter setup mode, 3 - locate and load the bootstrap program

b)

1 - perform the POST and load the bootstrap program, 2 - locate and load the startup configuration file or enter setup mode, 3 - locate and load the Cisco IOS software

c)

1 - perform the POST and load the bootstrap program, 2 - locate and load the Cisco IOS software, 3 - locate and load the startup configuration file or enter setup mode

d)

1 - perform the POST and load the startup configuration file, 2 - locate and load the bootstrap program, 3 - locate and load the Cisco IOS software

9.

What is the first action in the boot sequence when a switch is powered on?

a)

load boot loader software

b)

load a power-on self-test program

c)

load the default Cisco IOS software

d)

low-level CPU initialization

10.

What must an administrator have in order to reset a lost password on a router?

a)

physical access to the router

b)

a crossover cable

c)

access to another router

d)

a TFTP server

11.

When configuring a switch for SSH access, what other command that is associated with the login local command is required to be entered on the switch?

a)

login block-for [seconds] attempts [number] within [seconds]

b)

enable secret [password]

c)

username [username] secret [secret]

d)

password [password]

12.

Which command will provide information about the status of all interfaces including the number of giants, runts, and collisions on the interface?

a)

show interfaces

b)

show running-config

c)

show ip interface brief

d)

show history

13.

Which statement is true about broadcast and collision domains?

a)

Adding a router to a network will increase the size of the collision domain.

b)

The size of the collision domain can be reduced by adding hubs to a network.

c)

Adding a switch to a network will increase the size of the broadcast domain.

d)

The more interfaces a router has the larger the resulting broadcast domain.

14.

What is one function of a Layer 2 switch?

a)

duplicates the electrical signal of each frame to every port

b)

learns the port assigned to a host by examining the destination MAC address

c)

forwards data based on logical addressing

d)

determines which interface is used to forward a frame based on the destination MAC address

15.

What is the significant difference between a hub and a Layer 2 LAN switch?

a)

A hub divides collision domains, and a switch divides broadcast domains.

b)

A switch creates many smaller collision domains, and a hub increases the size of a single collision domain.

c)

Each port of a hub is a collision domain, and each port of a switch is a broadcast domain.

d)

A hub forwards frames, and a switch forwards only packets.

16.

What will a Cisco LAN switch do if it receives an incoming frame and the destination MAC address is not listed in the MAC address table?

a)

Use ARP to resolve the port that is related to the frame.

b)

Forward the frame out all ports except the port where the frame is received.

c)

Drop the frame.

d)

Send the frame to the default gateway address.

17.

Which switch characteristic helps alleviate network congestion when a 10 Gbps port is forwarding data to a 1 Gbps port?

a)

frame buffering

b)

high port density

c)

fast port speed

d)

fast internal switching

18.

Which switching method makes use of the FCS value?

a)

broadcast

b)

store-and-forward

c)

large frame buffer

d)

cut-through

19.

What does the term "port density" represent for an Ethernet switch?

a)

the numbers of hosts that are connected to each switch port

b)

the speed of each port

c)

the memory space that is allocated to each switch port

d)

the number of available ports

20.

Which information does a switch use to keep the MAC address table information current?

a)

the destination MAC address and the outgoing port

b)

the source MAC address and the outgoing port

c)

the source MAC address and the incoming port

d)

the destination MAC address and the incoming port

e)

the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port

21.

Which two statements are true about half-duplex and full-duplex communications? (Choose two.)

a)

Half duplex has only one channel.

b)

All modern NICs support both half-duplex and full-duplex communication.

c)

Full duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the bandwidth.

d)

Full duplex increases the effective bandwidth.

e)

Full duplex allows both ends to transmit and receive simultaneously.

22.

Which type of address does a switch use to build the MAC address table?

a)

source IP address

b)

destination IP address

c)

destination MAC address

d)

source MAC address

23.

Which option correctly describes a switching method?

a)

cut-through: provides the flexibility to support any mix of Ethernet speeds

b)

cut-through: makes a forwarding decision after receiving the entire frame

c)

store-and-forward: ensures that the frame is free of physical and data-link errors

d)

store-and-forward: forwards the frame immediately after examining its destination MAC address

24.

Which network device can serve as a boundary to divide a Layer 2 broadcast domain?

a)

access point

b)

router

c)

Ethernet hub

d)

Ethernet bridge

25.

What is the purpose of frame buffers on a switch?

a)

They provide temporary storage of the frame checksum.

b)

They provide a basic security scan on received frames.

c)

They execute checksum values before transmission.

d)

They hold traffic, thus alleviating network congestion.

26.

Which network device can be used to eliminate collisions on an Ethernet network?

a)

router

b)

firewall

c)

hub

d)

switch

27.

What happens to a port that is associated with VLAN 10 when the administrator deletes VLAN 10 from the switch?

a)

The port goes back to the default VLAN.

b)

The port becomes inactive.

c)

The port automatically associates itself with the native VLAN.

d)

The port creates the VLAN again.

28.

In which memory location are the VLAN configurations of normal range VLANs stored on a Catalyst switch?

a)

flash

b)

ROM

c)

NVRAM

d)

RAM

29.

An administrator is investigating a failure on a trunk link between a Cisco switch and a switch from another vendor. After a few show commands, the administrator notices that the switches are not negotiating a trunk. What is a probable cause for this issue?

a)

Switches from other vendors do not support DTP.

b)

DTP frames are flooding the entire network.

c)

Both switches are in nonegotiate mode.

d)

Both switches are in trunk mode.

30.

What is the purpose of the vlan.dat file on a switch?

a)

It holds the saved configuration.

b)

It holds the operating system.

c)

It holds the VLAN database.

d)

It holds the running configuration.

31.

What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?

a)

The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.

b)

A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.

c)

The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced.

d)

The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs.

32.

When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?

a)

management VLAN ID

b)

data VLAN ID

c)

native VLAN ID

d)

unused VLAN ID

33.

A network administrator is determining the best placement of VLAN trunk links. Which two types of point-to-point connections utilize VLAN trunking?​

a)

between a switch and a client PC

b)

between two switches that share a common VLAN

c)

between a switch and a network printer

d)

between a switch and a server that has an 802.1Q NIC

e)

between two switches that utilize multiple VLANs

34.

What are three primary benefits of using VLANs?

a)

end user satisfaction

b)

security

c)

a reduction in the number of trunk links

d)

cost reduction

35.

On a Cisco switch, where is extended range VLAN information stored?

a)

flash

b)

running configuration file

c)

startup configuration file

d)

NVRAM

36.

In which location are the normal range VLANs stored on a Cisco switch by default?

a)

RAM

b)

running-config

c)

flash memory

d)

startup-config

37.

Which distinct type of VLAN is used by an administrator to access and configure a switch?

a)

native VLAN

b)

management VLAN

c)

default VLAN

d)

data VLAN

38.

For what reason would a network administrator use the show interfaces trunk command on a switch?

a)

to view the native VLAN

b)

to verify port association with a particular VLAN

c)

to examine DTP negotiation as it occurs

d)

to display an IP address for any existing VLAN

39.

Where is the vlan.dat file stored on a switch?

a)

in RAM

b)

in NVRAM

c)

in flash memory

d)

on the externally attached storage media or internal hard drive

40.

If an organization is changing to include Cisco IP phones in its network, what design feature must be considered to ensure voice quality?

a)

Voice traffic needs to be tagged with the native VLAN.

b)

Voice traffic and data traffic require separate trunk links between switches.

c)

A separate VLAN is needed for voice traffic.

d)

Additional switch ports that are dedicated to Cisco IP phones are required.

41.

A Cisco switch currently allows traffic tagged with VLANs 10 and 20 across trunk port Fa0/5. What is the effect of issuing a [switchport trunk allowed vlan 30] command on Fa0/5?

a)

It allows VLANs 1 to 30 on Fa0/5.

b)

It allows only VLAN 30 on Fa0/5.

c)

It allows VLANs 10, 20, and 30 on Fa0/5.

d)

It allows a native VLAN of 30 to be implemented on Fa0/5.

42.

A PC is to access a web server on another network. Which inter-VLAN method will provide the highest bandwidth at Layer 3 and also provide a default gateway for the PC?

a)

multiple physical interfaces on the router, all connected to a Layer 2 switch

b)

trunked interface between the router and the switch

c)

multilayer switch with routing enabled

d)

router on a stick

43.

Which scalable method must be implemented in order to provide inter-VLAN routing on a switched network with more than 1000 VLANs?

a)

routing traffic internally to a Layer 3 switch device

b)

connecting each physical router interface to a different physical switch port, with each switch port assigned to a different VLAN

c)

connecting a router interface to a switch port that is configured in trunk mode to route packets between VLANs, with each VLAN assigned to a router subinterface​

d)

configuring static routes on a Layer 2 switch device

44.

When configuring a router as part of a router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing topology, where should the IP address be assigned?

a)

to the VLAN

b)

to the SVI

c)

to the subinterface

d)

to the interface

45.

A small college uses VLAN 10 for the classroom network and VLAN 20 for the office network. What is needed to enable communication between these two VLANs while using legacy inter-VLAN routing?

a)

A switch with a port that is configured as trunk is needed to connect to a router.

b)

Two groups of switches are needed, each with ports that are configured for one VLAN.

c)

A router with one VLAN interface is needed to connect to the SVI on a switch.

d)

A router with at least two LAN interfaces should be used.

46.

What is a disadvantage of using multilayer switches for inter-VLAN routing?

a)

Multilayer switches are limited to using trunk links for Layer 3 routing.

b)

Multilayer switches are more expensive than router-on-a-stick implementations.

c)

Multilayer switches have higher latency for Layer 3 routing.

d)

Spanning tree must be disabled in order to implement routing on a multilayer switch.

47.

Which type of inter-VLAN communication design requires the configuration of multiple subinterfaces?

a)

legacy inter-VLAN routing

b)

routing via a multilayer switch

c)

routing for the management VLAN

d)

router on a stick

48.

What is a disadvantage of using router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?

a)

does not scale well beyond 50 VLANs

b)

requires the use of more physical interfaces than legacy inter-VLAN routing

c)

requires the use of multiple router interfaces configured to operate as access links

d)

does not support VLAN-tagged packets

49.

What is the meaning of the number 10 in the encapsulation dot1Q 10 native router subinterface command?​

a)

the VLAN ID

b)

the subnet number

c)

the interface number

d)

the subinterface number​

50.

While configuring inter-VLAN routing on a multilayer switch, a network administrator issues the no switchport command on an interface that is connected to another switch. What is the purpose of this command?

a)

to create a routed port for a single network

b)

to provide a static trunk link

c)

to provide an access link that tags VLAN traffic

d)

to create a switched virtual interface

51.

A network administrator enters the following command sequence on a Cisco 3560 switch. What is the purpose of these commands?

a)

to enable the Gi0/1 port as a switch virtual interface

b)

to shut down the Gi0/1 port

c)

to enable the Gi0/1 port as a bridge virtual interface

d)

to make the Gi0/1 port a routed port

52.

What operational mode should be used on a switch port to connect it to a router for router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?

a)

dynamic desirable

b)

trunk

c)

access

d)

dynamic auto

53.

Which sentence correctly describes the SVI inter-VLAN routing method?

a)

A physical interface is needed for every VLAN that is created.

b)

An SVI is needed for each VLAN.

c)

Subinterfaces have to be created.

d)

The encapsulation type must be configured on the SVI.

54.

How is traffic routed between multiple VLANs on a multilayer switch?

a)

Traffic is routed via internal VLAN interfaces.

b)

Traffic is broadcast out all physical interfaces.

c)

Traffic is routed via subinterfaces.

d)

Traffic is routed via physical interfaces.

55.

What is required to perform router-on-a-stick inter-VLAN routing?

a)

a router that is configured with multiple subinterfaces

b)

a Layer 2 switch that is configured with multiple trunk ports

c)

a multilayer switch

d)

a router with multiple physical interfaces

56.

An administrator was troubleshooting a router-on-a-stick topology and concluded that the problem was related to the configuration of VLANs on the router subinterfaces. Which two commands can the administrator use in the router to identify the problem? (Choose two.)

a)

show ip interface

b)

show vlan

c)

show ip protocols

d)

show running-config

e)

show controllers

57.

Which two concepts relate to a switch port that is intended to have only end devices attached and intended never to be used to connect to another switch? (Choose two.)

a)

PortFast

b)

bridge ID

c)

extended system ID

d)

edge port

e)

PVST+

58.

Which three port states are used by Rapid PVST+? (Choose three.)

a)

forwarding

b)

learning

c)

discarding

d)

blocking

e)

trunking

59.

Which two statements describe a switch port that is configured with PortFast? (Choose two.)

a)

The switch port should never receive BPDUs.

b)

The switch port immediately transitions from blocking to the forwarding state.

c)

The switch port immediately processes any BPDUs before transitioning to the forwarding state.

d)

The switch port sends DHCP requests before transitioning to the forwarding state.

e)

The switch port immediately transitions from the listening to the forwarding state.

60.

What is one way to correct a spanning tree failure?

a)

Replace all instances of STP with RSTP.

b)

Manually remove redundant links in the switched network.

c)

Replace the cables on failed STP links.

d)

Insert redundant links to replace the failed STP links.

61.

When PVST is running over a switched network, which port state can participate in BPDU frame forwarding based on BPDUs received, but does not forward data frames?

a)

forwarding

b)

listening

c)

blocking

d)

disabled

62.

An administrator is troubleshooting a switch and wants to verify if it is a root bridge. What command can be used to do this?

a)

show running-config

b)

show spanning-tree

c)

show vlan

d)

show startup-config

63.

Which port state will switch ports immediately transition to when configured for PortFast?

a)

learning

b)

forwarding

c)

listening

d)

blocking

64.

During the implementation of Spanning Tree Protocol, all switches are rebooted by the network administrator. What is the first step of the spanning-tree election process?

a)

All the switches send out BPDUs advertising themselves as the root bridge.

b)

Each switch with a lower root ID than its neighbor will not send BPDUs.

c)

Each switch determines the best path to forward traffic.

d)

Each switch determines what port to block to prevent a loop from occurring.

65.

Which is the default STP operation mode on Cisco Catalyst switches?

a)

RSTP

b)

Rapid PVST+

c)

PVST+

d)

MST

e)

MSTP

66.

Which STP port role is adopted by a switch port if there is no other port with a lower cost to the root bridge?

a)

disabled port

b)

root port

c)

designated port

d)

alternate

67.

What additional information is contained in the 12-bit extended system ID of a BPDU?

a)

IP address

b)

port ID

c)

VLAN ID

d)

MAC address

68.

What value determines the root bridge when all switches connected by trunk links have default STP configurations?

a)

MAC address

b)

VLAN ID

c)

extended system ID

d)

bridge priority

69.

After the election of the root bridge has been completed, how will switches find the best paths to the root bridge?

a)

Each switch will analyze the BID of all neighbors to reach the root and use the path through the lowest BID neighbors.

b)

Each switch will analyze the port states of all neighbors and use the designated ports to forward traffic to the root.

c)

Each switch will analyze the sum of the hops to reach the root and use the path with the fewest hops.

d)

Each switch will analyze the sum of all port costs to reach the root and use the path with the lowest cost.

70.

What is an accurate description of redundancy?

a)

designing a network to use multiple virtual devices to ensure that all traffic uses the best path through the internetwork

b)

configuring a router with a complete MAC address database to ensure that all frames can be forwarded to the correct destination

c)

configuring a switch with proper security to ensure that all traffic forwarded through an interface is filtered

d)

designing a network to use multiple paths between switches to ensure there is no single point of failure

71.

Which three interface parameters must match for an EtherChannel to form? (Choose three.)

a)

native VLAN

b)

allowed VLANs

c)

trunking mode

d)

spanning-tree state

e)

EtherChannel mode

72.

What are three advantages of using EtherChannel technology? (Choose three.)

a)

A spanning tree recalculation is not required when a single link within the channel goes down.

b)

EtherChannel uses multiple logical links to provide redundancy.

c)

There is no need to upgrade links to faster connections to increase bandwidth.

d)

Configuration tasks can be done on the EtherChannel interface.

e)

The Spanning Tree Protocol shuts down the unused interfaces in the bundle to avoid loops.

73.

Which two load balancing methods can be implemented with EtherChannel technology? (Choose two.)

a)

destination IP to destination MAC

b)

source MAC to destination MAC

c)

source IP to destination IP

d)

destination IP to source IP

e)

destination MAC to destination IP

74.

Which two mode combinations would result in the successful negotiation of an EtherChannel? (Choose two.)

a)

active; passive

b)

desirable; desirable

c)

auto; auto

d)

passive; auto

e)

desirable; active

75.

Which two protocols are link aggregation protocols? (Choose two.)

a)

RSTP

b)

EtherChannel

c)

PAgP

d)

802.3ad

e)

STP

76.

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP so that it initiates the EtherChannel negotiation?

a)

passive

b)

desirable

c)

auto

d)

active

77.

Which function is provided by EtherChannel?

a)

enabling traffic from multiple VLANs to travel over a single Layer 2 link

b)

creating one logical link by using multiple physical links between two LAN switches

c)

spreading traffic across multiple physical WAN links

d)

dividing the bandwidth of a single link into separate time slots

78.

A network administrator is configuring an EtherChannel link between two physical ports on a switch. Which statement describes the result when one of the physical ports fails?

a)

An STP recalculation is needed.

b)

The EtherChannel link fails.

c)

The EtherChannel stops transmitting data until it is restarted.

d)

The EtherChannel continues transmitting data with reduced bandwidth.

79.

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure PAgP so that it initiates the EtherChannel negotiation?

a)

desirable

b)

passive

c)

active

d)

auto

80.

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel by the use of PAgP, which mode will form the bundled channel only if the port receives PAgP packets from another device?

a)

auto

b)

active

c)

passive

d)

desirable

81.

When EtherChannel is implemented, multiple physical interfaces are bundled into which type of logical connection?

a)

loopback

b)

VLAN interface

c)

port channel

d)

interface range

82.

Which statement is true about EtherChannel technology?

a)

STP does not run on redundant EtherChannel links.

b)

EtherChannel uses existing switch ports.

c)

All configuration tasks must be done on the individual ports in the EtherChannel link.

d)

Links must be upgraded to support EtherChannel.

83.

What will happen if a network administrator puts a port that is part of an EtherChannel bundle into a different VLAN than the other ports in that bundle?

a)

The EtherChannel bundle will stay up only if PAgP is used.

b)

The EtherChannel bundle will stay up if the ports were configured with no negotiation between the switches to form the EtherChannel.

c)

The EtherChannel will fail.

d)

The EtherChannel bundle will stay up if either PAgP or LACP is used.

e)

The EtherChannel bundle will stay up only if LACP is used.

84.

An EtherChannel link using LACP was formed between two switches, S1 and S2. While verifying the configuration, which mode combination could be utilized on both switches?​

a)

S1-on and S2-passive

b)

S1-passive and S2-active

c)

S1-on and S2-active​

d)

S1-passive and S2-passive​

85.

When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP on a port only if the port receives LACP packets from another device?

a)

desirable

b)

auto

c)

active

d)

passive

86.
  1. Which are benefits of EtherChannel technology? (Choose all that apply.)

a)
  1. fault-tolerance

b)
  1. load sharing

c)
  1. increased bandwidth

d)
  1. link redundancy

87.
  1. True or False? FastEthernet and GigabitEthernet links can be combined into a single EtherChannel.

a)

True

b)

False

88.
  1. True or False? PAgP and LACP are both Cisco-proprietary link aggregation protocols.

a)

True

b)

False

89.
  1. Which three are PAgP interface modes? (Choose three.)

a)

on

b)

auto

c)

active

d)

passive

e)

desirable

90.
  1. Which PAgP interface mode will initiate negotiation with other interfaces?


a)

on

b)

desirable

c)

auto

d)

preferable

91.
  1. Which combinations of PAgP modes will form an EtherChannel? (Choose two)


a)
  1. auto > desirable

b)
  1. auto > on

c)
  1. on > on

d)
  1. on > active

e)
  1. active > passive

92.

A DHCP-enabled client PC has just booted. During which two steps will the client PC use broadcast messages when communicating with a DHCP server? (Choose two.)

a)

DHCPNAK

b)

DHCPOFFER

c)

DHCPDISCOVER

d)

DHCPACK

e)

DHCPREQUEST

93.

When a client is requesting an initial address lease from a DHCP server, why is the DHCPREQUEST message sent as a broadcast?

a)
  1. The client does not have a MAC address assigned yet, so it cannot send a unicast message at Layer 2.

b)
  1. The DHCP server may be on a different subnet, so the request must be sent as a broadcast.

c)
  1. The client does not yet know the IP address of the DHCP server that sent the offer.

d)
  1. The client may have received offers from multiple servers, and the broadcast serves to implicitly decline those other offers.

94.

What is the reason why the DHCPREQUEST message is sent as a broadcast during the DHCPv4 process?

a)
  1. to notify other DHCP servers on the subnet that the IP address was leased

b)
  1. to notify other hosts not to request the same IP address

c)
  1. for routers to fill their routing tables with this new information

d)
  1. for hosts on other subnets to receive the information

95.

How is a DHCPDISCOVER transmitted on a network to reach a DHCP server?

a)
  1. A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with the IP address of the DHCP server as the destination address.

b)
  1. A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with the broadcast IP address as the destination address.

c)
  1. A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with a multicast IP address that all DHCP servers listen to as the destination address.

d)
  1. A DHCPDISCOVER message is sent with the IP address of the default gateway as the destination address.

96.

Which destination IPv4 address does a DHCPv4 client use to send the initial DHCP Discover packet when the client is looking for a DHCP server?

a)

the IP address of the default gateway

b)

255.255.255.255

c)

127.0.0.1

d)

224.0.0.1

97.

Under which two circumstances would a router usually be configured as a DHCPv4 client? (Choose two.)

a)

The administrator needs the router to act as a relay agent.

b)

The router has a fixed IP address.

c)

The router is meant to provide IP addresses to the hosts.

d)

The router is intended to be used as a SOHO gateway.

e)

This is an ISP requirement.

98.

Which address does a DHCPv4 server target when sending a DHCPOFFER message to a client that makes an address request?

a)

broadcast MAC address

b)

client hardware address

c)

client IP address

d)

gateway IP address

99.

An administrator issues the commands:
Router(config)# interface g0/1
Router(config-if)# ip address dhcp
What is the administrator trying to achieve?

a)

configuring the router to act as a relay agent

b)

configuring the router to obtain IP parameters from a DHCPv4 server

c)

configuring the router to act as a DHCPv4 server

d)

configuring the router to resolve IP address conflicts

100.

What kind of message is sent by a DHCPv4 client requesting an IP address?

a)

DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message

b)

DHCPDISCOVER unicast message

c)

DHCPOFFER unicast message

d)

DHCPACK unicast message

101.

As a DHCPv4 client lease is about to expire, what is the message that the client sends the DHCP server?

a)

DHCPACK

b)

DHCPREQUEST

c)

DHCPDISCOVER

d)

DHCPOFFER

102.

If more than one DHCP server is available on the local network, in which order will DHCP messages be sent between a host and a DHCP server?

a)

acknowledgment, request, offer, discover

b)

request, acknowledgment, discover, offer

c)

request, discover, offer, acknowledgment

d)

discover, offer, request, acknowledgment

103.

What is the most likely scenario in which the WAN interface of a router would be configured as a DHCP client to be assigned a dynamic IP address from an ISP?

a)

It is a SOHO or home broadband router.

b)

The router is configured as a DHCP server.

c)

There is a web server for public access on the LAN that is attached to the router.

d)

The router is also the gateway for a LAN.

104.

What is the destination IP address when an IPv4 host sends a DHCPDISCOVER message?

a)

0.0.0.0

b)

255.255.255.255

c)

224.0.0.1

d)

192.168.1.1

105.

Which is a DHCPv4 address allocation method that assigns IPv4 addresses for a limited lease period?

a)

dynamic allocation

b)

automatic allocation

c)

manual allocation

d)

pre-allocation

106.

Which DHCP IPv4 message contains the following information?

Destination address: 255.255.255.255

Client IPv4 address: 0.0.0.0

Default gateway address: 0.0.0.0

Subnet mask: 0.0.0.0

a)

DHCPREQUEST

b)

DHCPACK

c)

DHCPOFFER

d)

DHCPDISCOVER