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Wood Occupations

Total questions: 85

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a career choice for an apprentice studying wood occupations in the built environment?

a)

Cabinet maker

b)

Site carpenter

c)

Green woodworker

d)

Cooper

2.

Which job role is considered a vanishing trade in wood occupations?

a)

Timber framer

b)

Shop fitter

c)

Wood turner

d)

Kitchen fitter

3.

What is the job role of someone who specializes in making wheels for carts and wagons in wood occupations?

a)

Cooper

b)

Wheelwright

c)

Furniture restorer

d)

Boat builder

4.

Which of the following is not listed as a main career choice for an apprentice in wood occupations?

a)

Interior systems fitter

b)

Roofer

c)

Boat builder

d)

Architectural joiner

5.

What are the responsibilities of a site carpenter regarding structural components?

a)

Install fixtures and fittings for shops, bars, offices, and public buildings.

b)

Make bespoke frontages for shops, bars, offices, and public buildings.

c)

Install structural components such as roofs, joists, studwork, and eaves finishings.

d)

Make made-to-measure fixtures and fittings for shops, bars, offices, and public buildings.

6.

Which of the following is a first fix component that a site carpenter installs?

a)

Kitchens

b)

Service boxings

c)

Partitions

d)

Skirting

7.

What does a shop fitter do?

a)

Install second fix components such as kitchens, doors, and staircase finishings.

b)

Install structural components such as roofs, joists, and fascia boards.

c)

Make bespoke frontages for shops, bars, offices, and public buildings.

d)

Snagging and final finish before the job is signed off.

8.

What is one of the responsibilities of an architectural joiner?

a)

Install and repair demountable partition walls.

b)

Measure and mark out internal systems.

c)

To set-out doors, windows, staircases and other timber products for housing, commercial and public buildings.

d)

Install bespoke frontages for shops, bars, offices and public buildings.

9.

Which of the following is a responsibility of an interior systems fitter?

a)

Manufacture doors, windows, staircases and other timber products for housing.

b)

Install bespoke frontages for shops, bars, offices and public buildings.

c)

Install and repair demountable suspended ceilings.

d)

Mark-out doors, windows, staircases and other timber products for housing.

10.

What does an interior systems fitter do in addition to installing and repairing demountable suspended ceilings?

a)

Manufacture doors, windows, staircases and other timber products for housing.

b)

Install and repair demountable partition walls.

c)

Install bespoke frontages for shops, bars, offices and public buildings.

d)

To set-out doors, windows, staircases and other timber products for housing, commercial and public buildings.

11.

What is the first requirement for a carpenter in a build according to the stages in site carpentry?

a)

Installing windows and doors

b)

Structural carcassing

c)

Interior finishing

d)

Painting and decorating

12.

Who is responsible for ensuring the health and safety on-site?

a)

Only the site manager

b)

Only the carpenters

c)

Everyone on-site

d)

Only the health and safety officers

13.

What does structural carcassing involve?

a)

Electrical installations

b)

Plumbing work

c)

Installation of roofs, joists, and structural studwork

d)

Flooring and tiling

14.

What is the second stage in the carpentry process described in the text?

a)

Structural

b)

First fix

c)

Second fix

d)

Finishing

15.

During which stage are interior doors hung and fitted with ironmongery according to the text?

a)

Structural

b)

First fix

c)

Second fix

d)

Finishing

16.

Who do carpenters work with to ensure safe lifting operations and access?

a)

Structural engineers

b)

Plant drivers and scaffolders

c)

Tilers and decorators

d)

Plumbers and electricians

17.

What do carpenters liaise with plasterers for?

a)

To install roofs and joists

b)

To begin the interior layout

c)

To schedule their return for second fix

d)

To ensure services are fitted through joists and studwork

18.

According to the text, what is involved in the first fix stage?

a)

Hanging interior doors

b)

Sealing the building with door and window frames

c)

Cutting and fixing architrave

d)

Scheduling the finishing process

19.

What is the first step in planning and producing joinery according to the processes described?

a)

Marking out

b)

Manufacturing

c)

Setting out

d)

Finishing

20.

What does the 'rod' refer to in the joinery planning process?

a)

A tool used for cutting

b)

The final product

c)

A scale drawing used for marking components

d)

A type of joint

21.

During which process are the joint sizes and positions determined in joinery?

a)

Setting out

b)

Marking out

c)

Manufacturing

d)

Assembling

22.

What is required before the manufacturing process can begin in joinery?

a)

The stock must be fully marked

b)

The joints must be finished

c)

The rod must be discarded

d)

The machines must be turned off

23.

What type of personal protective equipment is mentioned for respiratory protection in the image?

a)

Gloves

b)

Goggles

c)

Helmet

d)

PPE: Respiratory protection

24.

What is the minimum aerosol filtration percentage for FFP1 masks?

a)

80%

b)

94%

c)

99%

d)

50%

25.

FFP2 masks are mainly used in which of the following sectors?

a)

Home renovations

b)

Construction and agriculture

c)

Healthcare only

d)

Protection against asbestos

26.

What is the maximum leakage to the inside for FFP3 masks?

a)

22%

b)

8%

c)

2%

d)

5%

27.

Which type of face mask is normally referred to as FFP1?

a)

Disposable paper facemask

b)

Disposable valved paper facemask

c)

Moulded silicone mask with filters

d)

Full-faced respirator

28.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a full-faced respirator?

a)

Normally FFP1

b)

Normally FFP2

c)

Normally FFP3

d)

Dust filters/vapour filters

29.

At what decibel level must employers provide hearing protection and hearing protection zones?

a)

70 dBA

b)

80 dBA

c)

85 dBA

d)

91 dBA

30.

What is the maximum exposure limit to 85 dBA noise level recommended to minimize hearing risk?

a)

8 hours per day with 10 hours of recovery

b)

2 hours per day with 10 hours of recovery

c)

15 minutes per day with 10 hours of recovery

d)

1 minute per day with 10 hours of recovery

31.

At 100 decibels, how long can damage occur with exposure?

a)

2 hours

b)

15 minutes

c)

1 minute

d)

Immediately

32.

What type of sign is a blue circular sign?

a)

Mandatory

b)

Prohibited

c)

Warning

d)

Information

33.

What message does a red circular sign convey?

a)

Things you must do

b)

Things you must not do

c)

Be aware of dangers

d)

General information

34.

What does a yellow triangular sign signify?

a)

Mandatory actions

b)

Prohibited actions

c)

Warning to be aware of dangers

d)

Informational content

35.

What color are the information signs that give directions or information in a site/workshop?

a)

Red

b)

Green

c)

Orange

d)

Blue

36.

What should you do if you discover a fire and are trained to handle it?

a)

Evacuate immediately

b)

Attempt to put the fire out if it is small

c)

Leave all belongings and wait for help

d)

Call 999 and do nothing else

37.

What replaced the orange symbols in the European standard for signage regarding volatile organic compounds (VOCs)?

a)

Green squares

b)

Red diamonds

c)

Blue rectangles

d)

Yellow circles

38.

What should you NOT do if you are not trained to handle a fire?

a)

Raise the alarm

b)

Attempt to put the fire out

c)

Evacuate immediately

d)

Leave all belongings and tools

39.

What is the purpose of fire signs (red square)?

a)

To give directions to the nearest exit

b)

To indicate where to assemble in case of fire

c)

To inform where the fire equipment is located

d)

To warn about the presence of VOCs

40.

What are the three sources required for fire to burn?

a)

Wood, paper, and plastic

b)

Oxygen, heat or a spark, and fuel

c)

Water, air, and earth

d)

Gasoline, matches, and charcoal

41.

What does LEV stand for in the context of industrial safety?

a)

Local Energy Variation

b)

Local Exhaust Ventilation

c)

Limited Emission Valve

d)

Low Emission Vehicle

42.

Which of the following is NOT a component of LEV?

a)

Dust bag

b)

Portable extraction unit

c)

Industrial extraction unit

d)

Fire collection points

43.

What is the purpose of Heras fencing in a workplace setting?

a)

To provide a portable power source

b)

To act as a security barrier

c)

To serve as a fire collection point

d)

To function as an air filter

44.

Which of the following is a measure mentioned for risk assessments, first aid, and near miss records?

a)

Staff training

b)

Sign in book

c)

Heat or a spark

d)

Portable extraction unit

45.

How many steps are there to risk assessment according to the document?

a)

Three

b)

Four

c)

Five

d)

Six

46.

Which of the following is NOT one of the five steps to risk assessment listed in the document?

a)

Identify the hazards.

b)

Choose the best safety gear.

c)

Evaluate the risks and decide on control measures.

d)

Record your findings and implement them.

47.

What is described as an immediate danger to your safety in the document?

a)

Health inspection

b)

Safety risk

c)

Risk assessment

d)

Site induction

48.

Which of the following is an example of a safety risk mentioned in the document?

a)

Health and safety inspections

b)

Lifting operations

c)

Near miss book

d)

Safety boards

49.

What is described as a mid or long-term, often irreversible risk to your health?

a)

Safety risk

b)

Health risk

c)

Accident

d)

Injury

50.

Which of the following is NOT listed as a health and safety risk?

a)

Asbestos dust

b)

Silica dust

c)

Electrocution

d)

Noise

51.

What type of work is associated with the health risk of bursitis?

a)

Repetitive work

b)

Manual lifting

c)

Working in a noisy environment

d)

Exposure to hardwood/engineered board dust

52.

Which of the following is a health risk due to environmental factors?

a)

Vibration

b)

Dermatitis

c)

Temperature, damp, lighting etc.

d)

Falling objects

53.

What must be reported to the HSE under the Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations (RIDDOR) 2013?

a)

All accidents, regardless of severity

b)

Only accidents that result in more than five days of absence from work

c)

Accidents that cause death, major injury or absence from work for more than three days

d)

Only minor accidents

54.

Whose responsibility is it to report accidents and near misses at work?

a)

The person who had the accident

b)

A supervisor who completes accident reports

c)

The Health and Safety Executive (HSE)

d)

The first aid officer

55.

What is the purpose of reporting accidents and near misses according to the text?

a)

To create a record for legal purposes

b)

To identify hazards and take actions to avoid accidents in the future

c)

To penalize the person responsible for the accident

d)

To keep statistics on workplace accidents

56.

Which of the following regulations is NOT mentioned in the image?

a)

Electricity at Work Regulations, 1989

b)

Management of Health and Safety at Work Regulations, 1999

c)

Data Protection Act, 1998

d)

COSHH (Control of Substances Hazardous to Health) Regulations, 2002

57.

What is the purpose of the Personal Protective Equipment at Work Regulations, 1992?

a)

To ensure that work accidents are reported

b)

To mandate the provision and use of PPE at no charge to employees

c)

To regulate noise levels at the workplace

d)

To manage construction design

58.

According to the text, what should always be checked before using machinery, power tools, and extraction?

a)

The price of the equipment

b)

The mandatory requirements of the workplace

c)

The weather conditions

d)

The brand of the equipment

59.

What is a common cause of accidents at work mentioned in the text?

a)

Using high-quality machinery

b)

Rushing and improper set-up

c)

Performing too many safety checks

d)

Wearing too much PPE

60.

What does the acronym 'RIDDOR' stand for?

a)

Reporting of Injuries, Diseases and Dangerous Occurrences Regulations

b)

Regular Inspection and Detection of Occupational Risks

c)

Regulations for Industrial Disease and Disorder Outcomes

d)

Risk Identification and Disaster Operation Regulations

61.

What year were the Control of Noise at Work Regulations established?

a)

1992

b)

2005

c)

2013

d)

2015

62.

What are the two main types of timber categorised for use in construction?

a)

Manufactured and natural timber

b)

Softwood and hardwood

c)

Processed and unprocessed timber

d)

Chemically treated and untreated timber

63.

Which type of timber is generally less dense and faster growing?

a)

Hardwood

b)

Manufactured timber

c)

Softwood

d)

Chemically treated timber

64.

Which of the following is not a common type of softwood?

a)

Larch

b)

Cedar (Western Red)

c)

Birch

d)

Spruce (European, Sitka)

65.

What characteristic do softwood timber trees generally share?

a)

They are deciduous and have broad leaves.

b)

They are evergreen and have needle-like leaves.

c)

They are tropical and have large fruit.

d)

They are slow-growing and have thick bark.

66.

From which type of trees does hardwood timber come?

a)

Coniferous trees

b)

Deciduous trees

c)

Evergreen trees

d)

Palm trees

67.

Which of the following is not a common hardwood used in engineered board and timber?

a)

Plywood

b)

MDF

c)

Western Hemlock

d)

OSB

68.

What are Glulam beams made of?

a)

Glue and plastic timber

b)

Glue and metal timber

c)

Glue and laminated timber

d)

Glue and composite materials

69.

Which of the following is a characteristic of hardwoods compared to softwoods?

a)

They are less dense

b)

They grow faster

c)

They are normally denser

d)

They are made from evergreen trees

70.

What is the first step in the process to create joinery and carpentry products?

a)

Harvesting/storage

b)

Woodland or forest

c)

Drying the timber/storage

d)

Machining the timber (PSE, CLS)/storage

71.

Which of the following is NOT a process in creating joinery and carpentry products?

a)

Treating, coating timber

b)

Dimensioning the timber/storage

c)

Rough sawing and grading the timber/storage

d)

Polishing the timber

72.

What factor is important for the health of trees and underwood in a forest?

a)

Coppicing and thinning

b)

Parasites and insect attack

c)

Conversion methods

d)

Manufacturing the product/delivery to site

73.

What is minimized in dense forests to protect the trees?

a)

Growth cycles

b)

Effects of wind

c)

Rot, infection and burrs

d)

Harvesting/storage

74.

Which of the following can affect the timber quality?

a)

Conditions of soil/light

b)

Dimensioning the timber/storage

c)

Treating, coating timber

d)

Conversion methods

75.

What are tangential cuts also known as?

a)

Quarter cuts

b)

Crown cuts

c)

Radial cuts

d)

Boxed heart

76.

What is a characteristic of wood that has been quarter sawn?

4 lines
77.

What is the main advantage of the through and through (crown cutting) method?

4 lines
78.

What is the boxed heart method used for?

4 lines
79.

What is the tangential method primarily used for?

4 lines
80.

Before most timber can be used, it must lose a certain percentage of its felled water content to avoid what issue?

a)

Expansion

b)

Insect infestation

c)

Getting rot

d)

Color fading

81.

What is the maximum water content allowed in dried timber to prevent wet rot?

a)

50%

b)

20%

c)

14%

d)

6%

82.

What is the purpose of using 'stickers' during the air drying and kiln drying processes of timber?

a)

To increase the temperature

b)

To measure the moisture content

c)

To add weight and press the timber down

d)

To ensure even air circulation

83.

How long is timber typically allowed to air dry per inch of thickness?

a)

1 month

b)

6 months

c)

1 year

d)

2 years

84.

What is the minimum moisture content that kiln drying can achieve, which is required for internal joinery near sources of heat?

a)

20%

b)

14%

c)

10%

d)

6%

85.

What is the grade of timber referred to as 'Scant'?

a)

Scandinavian timber, slow grown spruce (whitewood) C14

b)

Scandinavian timber, fast grown spruce (whitewood) C16

c)

Scandinavian timber, slow grown spruce (whitewood) C16

d)

Scandinavian timber, fast grown spruce (whitewood) C14