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Chimney/Flue phase 3

Total questions: 58

Worksheet time: 29mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What are the two operating principles for any chimney or flue system?

a)

Heat the air and cool the combustion gases.

b)

Remove combustion products to the outside and draw in air for combustion.

c)

Filter the air and recycle the combustion gases.

d)

Produce electrical energy and heat water.

2.

On what principle do chimney or flue systems work to create a pressure differential called 'updraft'?

a)

The freezing of hot gases.

b)

The condensation of hot gases.

c)

The rise of hot gases, creating a pressure difference through convection.

d)

The thermal expansion of cold air.

3.

What is the basic concept of a chimney or flue system?

a)

To filter the air within a room

b)

To create an up draught to get rid of the fumes

c)

To heat the surrounding environment

d)

To circulate cold air

4.

Which of the following is a type of flue design?

a)

Forced draught

b)

Natural draught

c)

Electrical draught

d)

Solar draught

5.

What other flue design apart from natural draught can you identify?

a)

Room sealed

b)

closed vent

c)

Mechanical sealed

d)

Environmentally sealed

6.

What is the simplest design of all flues that relies on heat rising to create the up draught?

a)

Forced draught flue

b)

Chimney flue

c)

Open flue

d)

Balanced flue

7.

Open flues can be of which types?

a)

Natural draught or forced draught

b)

Electric draught or gas draught

c)

Indoor draught or outdoor draught

d)

Mechanical draught or manual draught

8.

Where is the air for combustion taken from in an appliance with an open flue?

a)

From outside the building

b)

From the combustion chamber

c)

From the room in which the appliance is located

d)

From the secondary flue

9.

How are the products of combustion removed in an appliance with an open flue?

a)

Through a vent in the room

b)

Up the flue by natural draught

c)

Directly outside through a side vent

d)

By a mechanical extractor

10.

What must be supplied to the room and appliance from outside via a vent in an open flue system?

a)

Natural gas

b)

Electricity

c)

Air for combustion

d)

Water for cooling

11.

What is the purpose of the fan positioned by the manufacturer in an open flue with forced draught?

a)

To cool down the appliance

b)

To create a positive up draught by blowing the products of combustion up the flue

c)

To filter the products of combustion

d)

To generate electricity for the appliance

12.

What is the function of room sealed (balanced) flues in appliances?

a)

They allow air to flow from the room into the appliance for combustion.

b)

They draw air for combustion directly from outside and do not let it enter the room.

c)

They release combustion gases into the room for better air circulation.

d)

They use room air for combustion and release it back into the room.

13.

Why are room sealed flued appliances considered safer than open-flued appliances?

a)

Because they use less energy for combustion.

b)

Because they can operate without electricity.

c)

Because they do not discharge combustion products into the room.

d)

Because they are easier to install.

14.

What are the two types of room sealed (balanced) flues?

a)

Electric and Gas

b)

Natural draught and Fan assisted (forced)

c)

Indoor and Outdoor

d)

Horizontal and Vertical

15.

Where are the combustion air inlet and the products of combustion outlet situated in a room sealed natural draught system?

a)

Inside the building in different positions

b)

Outside the building in the same position

c)

Inside the building in the same position

d)

Outside the building in different positions

16.

How are the products of combustion evacuated from the building in a room sealed natural draught system?

a)

Through a separate duct from the combustion air duct

b)

Through the same duct as the combustion air duct

c)

Through natural ventilation without a duct

d)

Through a duct that runs through the combustion air duct

17.

How does a room sealed fan assisted flue work compared to a natural draught flue?

a)

It uses natural convection to evacuate products.

b)

It is powered by a manufacturer's fan to ensure evacuation of products.

c)

It relies solely on wind power for evacuation.

d)

It uses a larger flue to improve the evacuation process.

18.

What is one advantage of a room sealed fan assisted flue over a natural draught flue?

a)

It requires more space for installation.

b)

It can only be positioned in a few specific places.

c)

It is much larger and more visible.

d)

It can be positioned in many more places than the natural draught flue.

19.

How many different versions of the fan assisted boiler are there?

a)

One

b)

Two

c)

Three

d)

Four

20.

Where is the fan positioned in the first version of the fan assisted boiler?

a)

On the fresh air inlet

b)

On the combustion product's outlet from the heat exchanger

c)

Inside the burner

d)

Outside the case

21.

What kind of pressure does the fan create in the first version of the fan assisted boiler?

a)

Positive pressure (blowing)

b)

Negative pressure (sucking)

c)

No pressure change

d)

Variable pressure

22.

Where is the fan positioned in the second version of the fan assisted boiler?

a)

On the fresh air inlet

b)

On the combustion product's outlet from the heat exchanger

c)

Inside the burner

d)

Outside the case

23.

What kind of pressure does the fan create in the second version of the fan assisted boiler?

a)

Positive pressure (blowing)

b)

Negative pressure (sucking)

c)

No pressure change

d)

Variable pressure

24.

Which design do modern condensing boilers use?

a)

The first version with negative pressure

b)

The second version with positive pressure

c)

A design without a fan

d)

A design with variable pressure

25.

What is the minimum length that the primary flue must be on open flued appliances?

a)

At least 500 mm

b)

At least 600 mm

c)

At least 700 mm

d)

At least 800 mm

26.

What is the function of the draught diverter?

a)

To increase the up-draught

b)

To moderate pressure fluctuations in the flue system

c)

To extend the length of the flue

d)

To filter the flue gases

27.

Which of the following is NOT a function of the draught diverter?

a)

Diverting down-draught away from the burner

b)

Diluting the flue gases

c)

Reducing the pull of the secondary flue

d)

Increasing carbon dioxide content

28.

Secondary flues should be constructed of what type of material?

a)

Single-wall insulated material

b)

Twin-wall insulated material

c)

Non-insulated material

d)

Triple-wall insulated material

29.

What is the job of the terminal in an open flue system?

a)

To filter the flue gases

b)

To increase the efficiency of the flue

c)

To help the flue gases discharge to atmosphere and prevent external elements from entering

d)

To regulate the temperature of the flue gases

30.

How does the design and installation of chimney and flue systems affect their function?

a)

They do not affect the function of air intake or the dispersion of combustion products.

b)

They only affect the aesthetic appeal of the systems without influencing their function.

c)

They affect both the function of air intake and the safe dispersion of the products of combustion.

d)

They only affect the function of air intake but not the dispersion of the products of combustion.

31.

What needs to be considered carefully in relation to chimney/flue systems?

a)

The color and design patterns of the chimney/flue systems.

b)

The cost-effectiveness of the chimney/flue systems.

c)

The factors that affect the layout of the chimney/flue systems.

d)

The brand of the chimney/flue systems.

32.

According to the manufacturer's instructions, how should all chimneys and flues be routed to ensure the best flow of gases?

a)

With as many bends as possible to fit the building design

b)

Following the path with the least number of bends

c)

With a minimum of a 90° angle at each bend

d)

In a zigzag pattern to increase surface area

33.

What is the minimum angle that should be kept if bends are required in chimneys and flue systems?

a)

30°

b)

45°

c)

60°

d)

90°

34.

What does the effective height of a chimney or flue system take into account?

a)

The physical measured height only

b)

The color and material of the chimney

c)

The frictional resistance encountered en route

d)

The external temperature and weather conditions

35.

For a flue to work efficiently, how quickly should the temperature rise and remain?

a)

Slowly and fluctuate often

b)

Quickly and remain constant

c)

Quickly and then drop rapidly

d)

Slowly and remain low

36.

What can happen when the flue is cool and the flue gases move slowly?

a)

The flue gases can create a strong draft

b)

The flue gases can exit more efficiently

c)

The flue gases can create condensation and the potential of flue gas spillage

d)

The flue gases can heat up the flue more quickly

37.

How long can it take for the chimney/flue to heat up fully when the flue is heated?

a)

1–2 minutes

b)

5–10 minutes

c)

15–20 minutes

d)

30–60 minutes

38.

What is the required velocity for the safe evacuation of flue gases according to the document?

a)

3m/s

b)

6m/s

c)

9m/s

d)

12m/s

39.

Terminals need to have an opening that is how many times the cross-sectional area of the flue itself?

a)

Equal to the cross-sectional area of the flue

b)

Twice the cross-sectional area of the flue

c)

Three times the cross-sectional area of the flue

d)

Four times the cross-sectional area of the flue

40.

According to the document, where should a terminal NOT be located?

a)

Where it will not be a nuisance

b)

Outside a pressure zone

c)

Inside a pressure zone

d)

Near the building entrance

41.

What is the minimum flue height termination for a pitched roof with a net input of less than 70 kW?

a)

600 mm above the roof line

b)

250 mm above the roof line

c)

At ridge, or 600 mm above or at least 1.5 m measured horizontally to the roof line

d)

1000 mm above the roof line

42.

For a flat roof with a net input of less than 70 kW, how far must the flue be above the roof line if it is within 2.5 m of a nearby structure?

a)

600 mm above that point

b)

250 mm above the roof line

c)

1000 mm above that point

d)

1.5 m measured horizontally to the roof line

43.

What is the required flue height termination for a flat roof with a net input of more than 70 kW?

a)

600 mm above the roof line

b)

250 mm above the roof line

c)

At ridge, or 600 mm above or at least 1.5 m measured horizontally to the roof line

d)

1000 mm above the roof line

44.

If a flue on a pitched roof with a net input of less than 70 kW is within 1.5 m of a nearby structure, how high must the flue be raised above that point?

a)

600 mm above that point

b)

250 mm above the roof line

c)

1000 mm above that point

d)

1.5 m measured horizontally to the roof line

45.

What does the layout and features of chimney and flue construction depend on?

a)

The type of fuel used

b)

The material they are constructed from

c)

The height of the building

d)

The preferences of the homeowner

46.

Which of the following is NOT a type of rigid chimney?

a)

Brick and masonry

b)

Pre-cast blocks

c)

Metallic flues

d)

Wooden beams

47.

What is a component of a flexible liner system for chimneys?

a)

Concrete lining

b)

Metallic flues

c)

Flexible liners

d)

Stone tiles

48.

What size were chimneys installed prior to 1966?

a)

175mm round

b)

200mm²

c)

9" x 9" or 225mm x 225mm

d)

175mm x 200mm

49.

After 1966, what materials were chimneys commonly made of?

a)

Wood and metal

b)

Clay, pumice, or concrete

c)

Plastic and asbestos

d)

Steel and brick

50.

Why were larger chimneys considered unsuitable for gas appliances after 1966?

a)

They were too expensive to produce

b)

They would cause the velocity of the flue gases to slow down too much

c)

They were difficult to install

d)

They were not aesthetically pleasing

51.

What is one identified problem with pre-cast flue blocks?

a)

They are too lightweight.

b)

They have excellent 'pull'.

c)

They can be quite poor in 'pull'.

d)

They are incompatible with all house builds.

52.

Pre-cast flue blocks are made from which material?

a)

Plastic

b)

Concrete

c)

Metal

d)

Wood

53.

Can all gas appliances be installed on pre-cast flue block systems?

a)

Yes, without exceptions.

b)

Only if modified.

c)

No, not all gas appliances can be installed.

d)

Yes, but only with manufacturer's consent.

54.

What should always be checked before installing a flue system?

a)

The house design plans.

b)

The local weather conditions.

c)

The manufacturer's instructions.

d)

The color compatibility with the house.

55.

What is the main purpose of using a twin wall in flue systems?

a)

To enhance the visual appeal of the chimney

b)

To create a barrier against condensation and heat

c)

To reduce the cost of chimney construction

d)

To increase the airflow within the chimney

56.

Which type of flue system is suitable for lining a chimney and sometimes used with Agas and stoves?

a)

Flexible non-metallic

b)

Twin wall

c)

Single wall

d)

Triple wall

57.

What material is a high-grade single wall flue system typically made from?

a)

Copper

b)

Aluminum

c)

Stainless steel

d)

Plastic

58.

Can a rigid-metallic single wall flue system be enameled?

a)

Yes, always

b)

No, never

c)

Sometimes

d)

Only if it is a twin wall system