wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

NEW

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

Aviation Quiz 2 part 1

Total questions: 59

Worksheet time: 30mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

During flight in deteriorating VFR conditions there is a strong tendency to:

a)

Accept information consistent with plan and disregard information not consistent with flight plan

b)

Become complacent

c)

Continue on with original plan

d)

Evaluate new information and alter plans

2.

How many infants is an adult allowed to be in charge of?

a)

1

b)

Unlimited

c)

2

d)

As many child safety seats as you have

3.

When flying east or west, VFR, when must you start adding 500ft to the correct thousand-foot altitude for your direction of travel?

a)

3000ft AGL

b)

3500ft AGL

c)

2200ft AGL

d)

3000ft ASL

4.

How much fuel reserve is required on board a commercial helicopter operating under NIGHT VFR conditions?

a)

30

b)

60

c)

90

d)

120

5.

How many days prior to your expiry date may you complete a PPC check ride and maintain the original expiry date?

a)

30

b)

60

c)

90

d)

120

6.

Controlled airspace about an airport that extends upward, vertically from the surface to a specified height AGL is?

a)

A Control Area

b)

A Control Zone

c)

Always Class D Airspace

d)

Controlled airspace along airways above 2,200 feet ASL

7.

You are on a VFR cross country flight, while flying in uncontrolled airspace you encounter visibilities less than 3 miles. In order to comply with VFR weather minima you could:

a)

Terminate the flight immediately

b)

Descend below 1000ft AGL and must maintain at least 1 mile visibility and clear of cloud

c)

Descend below 1000ft AGL and maintain at least 2 miles visibility

d)

Descend below 1000ft AGL and maintain at least 1 mile visibility and 2000ft horizontally from cloud

8.

What is the minimum horizontal distance from cloud that must be maintained in a Control Zone?

a)

1 mile

b)

3 miles

c)

1000 feet

d)

2000 feet

9.

With a functioning two way radio and an ATC clearance, what is the minimum weather in a control zone that may be flown when the weather is below VFR limits?

a)

One mile visibility, 500 feet from cloud

b)

Three miles visibility

c)

½ mile visibility, clear of cloud

d)

½ mile visibility, 500 feet from ground minimum

10.

When operating a single engine, float equipped helicopter in a commercial air service beyond gliding distance from shore, what equipment is required?

a)

Life jackets for each passenger

b)

Water type ELT

c)

Life rafts large enough to hold all passengers

d)

All of the above

11.

When flying over snow covered ground, whiteout is most likely to occur:

a)

Over an unbroken snow layer with featureless terrain, under uniform overcast sky

b)

Over featureless terrain in a snowing blizzard and the horizon is barely discernible

c)

When the sky and horizon are discernible, and it is snowing hard

d)

Clear sky, sunshine is reflecting by the snow cover

12.

Can you carry passengers at night in a single engine aircraft in a commercial operation?

a)

Only if you have a valid instrument rating

b)

No

c)

Only if you have a night rating

d)

Only if you have a night rating and a valid instrument rating

13.

For flight over non-populous areas, over land and water, what is the minimum distance to be maintained from ground without creating a hazard to persons or property, ships and vessels?

a)

500ft

b)

1000ft

c)

2000ft

d)

700ft

14.

What statement is correct in regards to carrying passengers commercially in VFR flight in a helicopter?

a)

The pilot must inform the passengers of the operation of the ELT

b)

The pilot must inform the passengers of the location and operation of the ELT

c)

The ELT must be checked in the last 6 months and a journey log book entry must be made

d)

The ELT must be serviced in the previous 6 months

15.

What are the VFR weather minima for night VFR above 1000' in uncontrolled airspace?

a)

½ mile visibility, clear of cloud

b)

1 mile visibility, clear of cloud

c)

2 miles visibility, distance from cloud dependant on ambient light

d)

3 miles visibility, 2000 feet horizontally, 500 feet vertically from cloud

16.

When the tower asks you to "squawk 1222," you:

a)

Set the transponder code to 1222, switch to ALT mode

b)

Set the transponder code to 1222 and switch to STBY

c)

Set the transponder code to 1222 and push IDENT

d)

Set radio to 122.2 and query why you should

17.

How often does a commercial helicopter pilot receive Emergency Procedures training?

a)

Every 6 months

b)

Every year

c)

Every 2 years

d)

Every time you start with a new company

18.

Your maximum flight duty day is:

a)

12 hours in a 24 hour period

b)

14 hours in a 24 hour period

c)

15 hours within a 30 hour period

d)

16 hours, if less than three consecutive days

19.

If you are flying within the standard pressure region, what should you set your altimeter to?

a)

the nearest airport elevation

b)

the nearest airport altimeter setting

c)

29.92" Hg

d)

the altimeter setting when you left the airport

20.

When a fatigue situation occurs, who has the responsibility to limit flying?

a)

The pilot

b)

The operations manager

c)

The crew concerned or operations manager

d)

ATC

21.

During a sling operation when using a marshaller, how would you direct him or her to stand?

a)

Facing into wind, in plain view and slightly left or right of the helicopter

b)

Facing into wind and about 50 feet away from the helicopter

c)

Back to the wind and in plain view

d)

Back to the wind and directly in front of the helicopter

22.

The standard VFR equipment required to fly in controlled airspace includes a magnetic compass and:

a)

Airspeed Indicator, Timepiece, Turn and Bank Indicator, Vertical Speed indicator

b)

Sensitive Altimeter, Airspeed Indicator, Timepiece, Turn and Bank Indicator, Vertical Speed Indicator

c)

Sensitive Altimeter, Airspeed Indicator, Timepiece

d)

Sensitive Altimeter, Airspeed Indicator

23.

Under what conditions will carburetor ice most likely occur?

a)

Low power setting +10 degrees Celsius

b)

High power setting +10 degrees Celsius

c)

Low power setting -10 degrees Celsius

d)

High power setting -10 degrees Celsius

24.

Why do most piston helicopters have a shroud (cover) around the engine?

a)

To retain engine heat

b)

To augment cooling

c)

Prevent water damage to the cylinders

d)

To stop damage to the accessories

25.

What type of rotor system has dragging and flapping hinges?

a)

Rigid rotor system

b)

Fully articulated rotor system

c)

Semi rigid rotor system

d)

Semi articulated rotor system

26.

What causes low-frequency vertical vibrations?

a)

Tail rotor

b)

Engine

c)

Main rotor

d)

Cooling fan

27.

What should you do if your helicopter experiences ground resonance?

a)

Continue to hover

b)

Increase throttle

c)

If the RPM is in the green raise the collective to hover, and if not, lower the collective and shut off the engine

d)

If the RPM is in the green raise to the hover, if not raise the collective to take the weight off the landing gear temporarily before landing and shutting down.

28.

What forces act on a rotor blade hovering in still air?

a)

Lift and thrust

b)

Lift and torque

c)

Lift and drag

d)

Thrust and drag

29.

Your aircraft is at an indicated altitude of 2,200ft. The altimeter setting is 29.62" and the outside air temperature is +20 degrees Celsius. What is the density altitude?

a)

2200ft

b)

2500ft

c)

3200ft

d)

3700ft

30.

In an overpitching situation close to the ground, if you pull more pitch, what happens?

a)

Increased lift, decrease in rotor RPM and decreased angle of attack

b)

Decreased lift, increased rotor RPM and increased angle of attack

c)

Decreased in rotor RPM and increase in the total lift of the rotor disc

d)

Decrease in lift and decrease in rotor RPM where flight may not be possible

31.

When the pitot tube and pitot tube drain port become blocked:

a)

The airspeed will remain unchanged in level flight with large power changes

b)

The airspeed will increase in a descent

c)

The airspeed will read zero

d)

The airspeed will over read in a descent

32.

Immediately after lifting off, a pilot should:

a)

Perform a hover check, check wind direction and velocity

b)

Perform a hover check and check the take off area is clear

c)

Check C of G and hover check

d)

Go through translation immediately

33.

What effect would a decreased all up weight have on a helicopter’s autorotation characteristics?

a)

Decreased RPM, increased descent

b)

Increased RPM, decreases descent

c)

Increased RPM, increases descent

d)

Decreased RPM, decreases descent

34.

When starting and shutting down a helicopter in gusty winds, to minimize the chances of a tail boom strike due to blade sailing, how should you park?

a)

Slightly out of the wind, cyclic into wind

b)

On the lee side of obstructions, friction on

c)

Directly into wind, cyclic into wind

d)

Directly into wind

35.

Which of the following statements are true concerning aviation fuel?

a)

If fuel has been stored for long periods, the octane rating will not be affected

b)

Temperature variations can cause moisture/water to accumulate in fuel

c)

Fuel stored in sealed drums need not be filtered prior to use

d)

When fuel has been agitated the water will always quickly separate

36.

You are landing on sloping ground, after you make contact you should:

a)

Use the cyclic to maintain the attitude of the rotor disc as you lower the collective

b)

Use the cyclic to adjust the fuselage to conform to the slope

c)

Hold the cyclic neutral as you lower the collective

d)

Use the cyclic to maintain the rotor disc at right angles to the mast

37.

How should the pilot brief the passengers on embarking and exiting a helicopter?

a)

Always keep your head down and enter from the front or sides

b)

Always walk uphill when entering and downhill when exiting?

c)

Wait for the pilot to signal and give instructions for entering and exiting

d)

All of the above

38.

If the centre of gravity were past the forward limit, what effect would be most likely?

a)

Unable to hover into wind due to lack of rearward control

b)

Unable to hover into wind due to lack of forward control

c)

Unable to hover downwind due to lack of rearward control

d)

Unable to hover downwind due to the lack of forward control

39.

Helicopter performance is affected by air density and will perform best under conditions of:

a)

Low altitude, high temperature and low relative humidity

b)

Low altitude, low temperature and high relative humidity

c)

High altitude, low temperature and low relative humidity

d)

Low altitude, low temperature and low relative humidity

40.

Flying in poor visibility and low ceiling, you encounter power lines on your track. You should:

a)

Reduce power and go under, keeping maximum ground separation

b)

Cross over a pylon at a 45 degree angle if possible

c)

Cross between pylons at a 45 degree angle if possible

d)

Climb up regardless of cloud and descend when you calculate that you are across

41.

When tilting the rotor disc into forward flight without making an adjustment to your power setting, what would occur?

a)

Total amount of lift decreases

b)

Total amount of lift increases

c)

No change

d)

The total lift reaction would remain the same

42.

In what flight configuration is the tail rotor required most?

a)

a climbing left turn with climb power

b)

left turn

c)

hovering cross wind with the weathercock affect adding to the torque effect

d)

hovering cross wind with the weathercock affect opposite to torque effect

43.

You are experiencing retreating blade tip stall, what happens to the aircraft?

a)

Vibrations in the cyclic, airframe shakes, the nose pitches down and rolls left or right

b)

Vibrations in the cyclic, airframe shakes, the nose pitches down and rolls right

c)

Lift generated from the advancing blade will roll aircraft right

d)

You feel a vibration in the cyclic, the airframe shakes and the nose pitches up and rolls left or right

44.

Tail rotor power requirement is reduced as forward airspeed increases due to:

a)

Keel effect

b)

Ground effect

c)

Translational lift

d)

Translating tendency

45.

While flying in rain, raindrops are present on the windscreen of the aircraft. As you approach the top of a mountain range, how will the rain affect the appearance of the ridge or summit?

a)

It will appear to be higher than the actual height

b)

There will be no change

c)

The mountain will look distorted

d)

It will appear to be lower than the actual height

46.

What does the turn and bank indicator indicate?

a)

Too much right pedal

b)

Too much left pedal

c)

Coordinated right turn

d)

Slipping right turn

47.

Which of the following will most likely cause the onset of Vortex Ring State?

a)

Zero airspeed and power on, descent rate of 200 FPM

b)

Zero airspeed and power on, descent rate greater than 400 FPM

c)

Low airspeed during autorotation, descent rate lower than 300 FPM

d)

Low airspeed and power on descent rate of 300 FPM

48.

A squall line is forecasted 50 miles ahead of a cold front. What would you always expect to see as it approaches?

a)

Thunderstorms and heavy precipitation

b)

Cirrostratus and Nimbostratus

c)

Cumulonimbus and TCU parallel to the cold front

d)

Snow

49.

What is required for any type of fog to form?

a)

High relative humidity

b)

Wind higher than 8 knots and less than 13 knots

c)

Calm winds

d)

A cold clear night with cold air descending

50.

Flying from cold air into an active warm front you first encounter snow mixed with light ice pellets. What do you expect next?

a)

Snow showers

b)

Freezing rain

c)

Rain showers

d)

You have passed through the front and will have better weather

51.

What is the primary cause of wind?

a)

Rotation of the earth’s surface

b)

Relative humidity

c)

Horizontal pressure differences

d)

Distance between isobars

52.

What is the definition of an ISOBAR?

a)

A line of magnetic variation

b)

A line of no magnetic variation

c)

A line joining places of equal temperature

d)

A line joining places of equal pressure

53.

When a warm front is moving over cold ground, what will this most likely result in?

a)

Turbulence

b)

Smooth flying conditions

c)

Stratocumulus

d)

Good visibility

54.

How would you expect the winds to change with a passage of a cold front?

a)

Veer in direction and increase

b)

Back in direction and decrease

c)

Increases speed with no change of direction

d)

Change in direction without a change in speed

55.

What conditions would you expect during the passage of a warm front?

a)

Turbulence at lower levels

b)

Overcast layer of stratocumulus

c)

Poor visibility

d)

Cumulus clouds

56.

What is the most important factor in determining the height of cumulonimbus clouds bases?

a)

Relative humidity

b)

Adiabatic lapse rate

c)

The temperature and dew-point spread

d)

Unstable air

57.

The term “inversion” is used to describe conditions where:

a)

Pressure decreases with height

b)

Pressure increases with height

c)

Temperature decreases with height

d)

Temperature increases with height

58.

Of the factors influencing weather in an air mass, the most significant is:

a)

Stability

b)

Cooling by radiation

c)

Horizontal movement

d)

Expansion due to lifting

59.

When decoding a METAR what does the term “virga” imply?

a)

Mechanical turbulence

b)

High probability of microbursts

c)

Rain

d)

Smooth conditions