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Cosmetology #3 Diseases, perm, relaxer

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 50mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is a mechanical process?

a)

sterilization

b)

bacteriacide

c)

disinfection

d)

cleaning

2.

According to your text, the GHS gives workers the right to ________.

a)

. Understand safety concerns associated with chemicals

b)

. Know safety concerns associated with chemicals

c)

. Refuse to be exposed to potentially dangerous chemicals

d)

Seek compensation for chemical-associated illness or injury

3.

Which item is included in the "identification" section of the MSDS?

a)

Possible hazards

b)

Restrictions on product use

c)

Chemical composition

d)

Exposure limits

4.

OSHA and state regulatory agencies require that SDSs be ________.

a)

. Kept available in the salon for all products used in salon

b)

provided to all employees in bound form

c)

Updated at least every six months

d)

Discussed with clients prior to services rendered

5.

Chemical products that destroy all bacteria, fungi, and viruses (but not spores) on surfaces are known as ________.

a)

antiseptics

b)

disinfectants

c)

sterilizers

d)

sanitizers

6.

Which agency is responsible for designating disinfecting agents as being effective enough to be used in a hospital setting and effective for cleaning blood and body fluids?

a)

EPA

b)

CDC

c)

OSHA

d)

DOL

7.

What is a safe and useful type of disinfectant, commonly called QUATS?

a)

Quarter antiseptic solution

b)

Quartenary-based compounds

c)

Phenolic quartenary agents

d)

Quartenary ammonium compounds

8.

Laws are also called ________.

a)

regulations

b)

guidelines

c)

statutes

d)

rules

9.

One-celled microorganisms with both plant and animal characteristics are known as ________.

a)
bacteria
b)

diseases

c)

cells

d)

minute

10.

Non-pathogenic bacteria are called ________.

a)
harmless
b)

harmful

c)

disease producing

d)

toxic

11.

Round-shaped bacteria are called ________.

a)

bacilli

b)

cocci

c)

spirilla

d)

retrobacteria

12.

Short, rod-shaped bacteria are called ________.

a)

bacilli

b)

cocci

c)

spirilla

d)

retrobacteria

13.

Spiral or corkscrew-shaped bacteria are called ________.

a)

bacilli

b)

cocci

c)

spirilla

d)

retrobacteria

14.

The type of bacteria that rarely shows any active motility is known as ________.

a)

cocci

b)

pus

c)

spirilla

d)

flagellum

15.

Together, the active stage and inactive, or spore-forming, stage of bacteria are referred to as the ________.

a)

Life cycle of bacteria

b)

Chemical origin of bacteria

c)

Beneficial effects

d)

Surrounding environment

16.

A sign of bacterial infection is ________.

a)

lesions

b)

tissue

c)

pus

d)

blood

17.

A pimple or abscess is an example of ________.

a)

Blood disease

b)

General infection

c)

Daughter cell

d)

Local infection

18.

Methicillin-resistant Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) initially appears as ________.

a)

Skin infection

b)

Respiratory infection

c)

Gastrointestinal infection

d)

Systemic infection

19.

A disease that is transmitted from one person to another is called ________.

a)

characteristic

b)

communicable

c)

communal

d)

microbial

20.

Disease-causing microorganisms that are carried in the body by blood or body fluids are called ________.

a)

Positive pathogens

b)

Acquired pathogens

c)

Inoculation pathogens

d)

Bloodborne pathogens

21.

Which disease is bloodborne and can cause liver damage?

a)

hepatitis

b)

tuberculosis

c)

pneumonia

d)

blood poisoning

22.

Human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) causes ________.

a)
AIDS
b)

MRSA

c)

HEPATITIS

d)

HPV

23.

Single-cell organisms such as molds, mildews, and yeasts are ________.

a)
fungi
b)

bloodborne pathogen

c)

parasites

d)

pathogens

24.

Poisonous substances produced by some microorganisms are called ________.

a)
toxins
b)

contaminants

c)

bacilli

d)

pathogens

25.

The body’s first line of defense against infection is ________.

a)

healthy uncompromised skin

b)

body secretions

c)

white blood cells

d)

antitoxins

26.

What is a contagious skin disease that is caused by the itch mite?

a)

scabies

b)

head lice

c)

pediculosis

d)

barber's itch

27.

What type of immunity does the body develop after overcoming a disease or through inoculation?

a)

Natural immunity

b)

Natural healing

c)

Acquired immunity

d)

Acquired resistance

28.

Which action is an acceptable way to clean tools or instruments?

a)

Using a supersonic unit

b)

Using a cleaning solvent

c)

Washing with soap and water

d)

Boiling for at least five minutes

29.

Phenolic disinfectants are ________.

a)

A form of alcohol

b)

Among the safest disinfectants

c)

Known carcinogens

d)

The preferred disinfectants for pedicure tubs

30.

Single use items that do not have the capacity to be disinfected after each client use must be ________.

a)

discarded

b)

washed

c)

stored

d)

immersed

31.

Which foot spa has come under scrutiny because disease-causing microorganisms tend to grow inside it?

a)

Whirlpool foot spa

b)

Airjet basin

c)

Pipeless spa

d)

Non-whirlpool basin

32.

Chemical germicides formulated for use on skin, and registered and regulated by the FDA are called ________.

a)

disinfectants

b)

quats

c)

antiseptics

d)

cleaners

33.

Which statement describes the proper use of waterless hand sanitizers in the salon?

a)

They are preferable to the use of soap and water because they are more effective

b)

They can be used after soap and water, but cannot be substituted for soap and water

c)

In general, they are as effective as soap and water, but may be more drying

d)

Most state health departments mandate the use of waterless hand sanitizers

34.

Specialized clothing or equipment worn by an employee for protection against a hazard is called ________.

a)

Personal protective equipment

b)

Standard precautions

c)

Universal precautions

d)

Infection control equipment

35.

Which scenario is an example of an exposure incident?

a)

A client slips and falls, spraining their ankle

b)

A client is found to have head lice

c)

A cosmetologist provides a service for which they are not licensed

d)

A cosmetologist cuts themselves while providing a service to a client

36.

The branch of science that applies to substances that contain carbon is called ________ chemistry.

a)
organic
b)

inorganic

c)

environmental

d)

structural

37.

What is the study of substances that lack the element carbon, but may contain the element hydrogen?

a)

Inorganic chemistry

b)

Physical chemistry

c)

Stereochemistry

d)

Biochemistry

38.

A characteristic of all inorganic substances is that they ________.

a)
Lack carbon
b)

burn easily

c)

contain hydrogen

d)

are derived from living things

39.

The simplest form of chemical matter that cannot be broken down without the loss of identity is a(n) ________.

a)

element

b)

energy

c)

substance

d)

mineral

40.

The basic unit of matter, with a nucleus at the center surrounded by negatively charged electrons that move around the nucleus in orbits is a(n) ________.

a)
atom
b)

ion

c)

proton

d)

neuron

41.

Chemically combining two or more atoms produces a ________?

a)
molecule
b)

substance

c)

Atom

d)

miscible

42.

The chemical combination of two or more atoms of different elements produces a(n) ______.

a)

compound

b)

Solution

c)

neutral

d)

acid

43.

Sodium chloride is an example of a(n) ______.

a)

compound molecule

b)

atom

c)

element

d)

mineral

44.

What state of matter has a definite volume but takes the shape of its container?

a)

solid

b)

liquid

c)

gas

d)

vapor

45.

What is an example of a chemical property?

a)

solubility

b)

density

c)

ability to rust

d)

boiling point

46.

The oxidation of haircolor is an example of a ______.

a)
Chemical change
b)

physical change

c)

reversible process

d)

change in the state of matter

47.

A chemical combination of matter in definite (fixed) proportions is a ______.

a)
Pure substance
b)

physical blend

c)

physical mixture

d)

pure combination

48.

Air contains many substances, including nitrogen, carbon dioxide, and water vapor, and is an example of a ______.

a)

physical mixture

b)

chemical change

c)

pure substance

d)

chemical compound

49.

A stable physical mixture of two or more substances in a solvent is a(n) ________.

a)

blend

b)

solute

c)

solution

d)

emulsion

50.

A substance, usually liquid, that dissolves another substance to form a solution is a(n) ________.

a)

solvent

b)

immiscible

c)

solute

d)

solid

51.

Mutually soluble liquids that can be mixed together to form clear solutions are ________.

a)
miscible
b)

fusible

c)

solvents

d)

compatible

52.

An unstable physical mixture of two or more immiscible substances is a(n) ________.

a)

synthesis

b)

emulsion

c)

suspension

d)

solution

53.

Being "capable of combining with or attracting water (water loving)" is defined as ________.

a)

lipophilic

b)

halophilic

c)

hydrophilic

d)

acidophilic

54.

What is an example of an oil-in-water emulsion of two immiscible liquids?

a)

Nail primer

b)

glycerin

c)

cold cream

d)

silicone

55.

Substances used to neutralize acids or raise the pH of many hair products are ________.

a)
alkanolamines
b)

volatile alcohols

c)

carbons

d)

silicons

56.

A sweet, colorless, oily substance that is used as a moisturizer in skin and body creams is ________.

a)

silicone

b)

ammonia

c)

glycerin

d)

alkanolamines

57.

A common volatile organic compound used in hair spray is ________.

a)

Ionized water

b)

Ammonia water

c)

Hydrogen peroxide

d)

Ethyl alcohol

58.

An atom or molecule that carries an electrical charge is a(n) ________.

a)

electrolyte

b)

ion

c)

current

d)

conductor

59.

What term refers to the separation of an atom or molecule into positive and negative ions?

a)

ionization

b)

aeration

c)

deionization

d)

dissolution

60.

An ion with a positive electrical charge is considered to be ________.

a)

nonaqueous

b)

a cation

c)

neutral

d)

an ion

61.

________ give you the ability to permanently change the hair's natural wave and curl pattern, thereby offering clients a variety of styling options that would not otherwise be possible.

a)

Chemical hair softening

b)

Chemical texture services

c)

Natural hair services

d)

Alternative texture services

62.

Which layer of the hair is located directly beneath the cuticle layer and is responsible for the incredible strength and elasticity of human hair?

a)

Hair shaft

b)

cuticle

c)

cortex

d)

medulla

63.

The term pH is an abbreviation used for potential ______, and the symbol pH represents the quantity of ______ ions in a solution.

a)

Hydrogen;hydrogen

b)

Hydrogen; oxygen

c)

Oxygen;oxygen

d)

Oxygen;nitrogen

64.

The ______ measures the acidity and alkalinity of a substance by measuring the quantity of hydrogen ions it contains.

a)

Oxygen content

b)

pH scale

c)

salinity

d)

radioactivity level

65.

Chemical hair texturizers temporarily raise the pH of the hair to an alkaline state in order to ______.

a)

Expand and harden the shaft

b)

Harden and close the shaft

c)

Swell and set the shaft

d)

Soften and swell the shaft

66.

Which compounds are made up of carbon, oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, and sulfur?

a)

Amino acids

b)

Peptide bonds

c)

Polypeptide chains

d)

Keratin proteins

67.

Which chemical bonds, also known as end bonds, join amino acids together, end-to-end in long chains, to form a polypeptide chain?

a)

Amino acids

b)

Peptide bonds

c)

Polypeptide chains

d)

Keratin proteins

68.

A ______ is a small brown or flesh-colored outgrowth of the skin.

a)

Stain

b)

Sebaceous cyst

c)

Skin tag

d)

Keratoma

69.

What are long, coiled polypeptide chains linked together end-to-end like beads?

a)

Disulfide bonds

b)

Peptide bonds

c)

Keratin bonds

d)

Amino acids

70.

Hydrogen bonds are weak physical side bonds that result from an attraction between negative and positive electrical charges and are easily broken by water or heat, but reform as the hair is _______.

a)

stretched

b)

dried

c)

softened

d)

styled

71.

_______ is a two-step process in which the hair first undergoes a physical change caused by wrapping the hair on perm rods, and then a chemical changed caused by the application of permanent waving solution and neutralizer.

a)

Cascade curling

b)

Chemical texture service

c)

Permanent waving

d)

Temporary waving

72.

In permanent waving, the reduction reaction is due to the addition of _______.

a)

hydrogen

b)

oxygen

c)

sodium

d)

carbon

73.

What are the most common reducing agents used in permanent waving?

a)

Ammonia water

b)

Hydrogen peroxide

c)

Thioglycolic acids

d)

Hydrogen acids

74.

The _______ of the permanent waving solution is determined primarily by the concentration of the reducing agent, or thio.

a)

durability

b)

shelf-life

c)

strength

d)

concentration

75.

Alkaline waves, also known as _______, were developed in 1941.

a)

Weak waves

b)

Strong waves

c)

Cold waves

d)

Hot waves

76.

Most alkaline permanent waves have a pH between _______.

a)

4.5 and 5.5

b)

6.0 and 7.0

c)

9.0 and 9.6

d)

10.0 and 11.0

77.

All acid waves have three components: permanent waving lotion, neutralizer, and ________.

a)

conditioner

b)

prewrap

c)

stabilizer

d)

activator

78.

Waves that are activated from an outside heat source, such as a conventional hood-type hair dryer are ________ waves.

a)

Stabilized

b)

endothermic

c)

exothermic

d)

acid

79.

What waving solutions use an ingredient other than ATG, such as cysteamine or mercaptamine, as the primary reducing agent?

a)

endothermic

b)

exothermic

c)

ammonia free

d)

thio free

80.

What is the most common type of perm rod?

a)

Straight rods

b)

Curved rods

c)

Soft bender rods

d)

Concave rods

81.

What perm rods are equal in diameter along their entire length or curling area?

a)

Convex rods

b)

Straight rods

c)

Conventional rods

d)

Spiral rods

82.

What soft foam perm rods are usually about 12 inches (30.5 centimeters) long with a uniform diameter along the entire length of the rod?

a)

Straight rods

b)

Curved rods

c)

Soft bender rods

d)

Concave rods

83.

_____, also known as circle rods, are usually about 12 inches (30.5 centimeters) long with a uniform diameter along the entire length of the rod, and are secured by fastening the ends together to form a loop.

a)

Loop rods

b)

Curved rods

c)

Soft bender rods

d)

Concave rods

84.

All perm wraps begin by sectioning the hair into ________.

a)
subsections
b)

base sections

c)

outer sections

d)

placements

85.

In permanent waving, panels of hair are divided into smaller subsections called ________.

a)
subsections
b)

rod sections

c)

outer sections

d)

placements

86.

_______ minimizes stress and tension on the hair.

a)

base placement

b)

on base placement

c)

half off base placements

d)

off base placement

87.

The angle at which a permanent wave rod is positioned on the head is referred to as ________.

a)

wrapping point

b)

rod direction

c)

diagonal technique

d)

base direction

88.

Base sections are offset from each other, row by row, to prevent noticeable splits and to blend the flow of the hair, in which wrapping pattern?

a)

weave technique

b)

bricklay permanent wrap

c)

basic permanent wrap

d)

straight wrap set

89.

What is a very effective technique for blending between perm rods with opposite base directions using zig zag partings to divide base areas?

a)

basic permanent wrap

b)

bricklay permanent wrap

c)

spiral wrap

d)

weave technique

90.

Hair that has been treated with a hydroxide relaxer is unfit for ________ and will not hold a curl.

a)

color services

b)

a haircut

c)

permanent waving

d)

wig fitting

91.

______, often found in home hair coloring products, leave a coating on the hair that may cause uneven curls, severe discoloration, or hair breakage.

a)
Metallic salts
b)

peroxide

c)

waving solution

d)

ammonia

92.

______ is the measurement of the thickness or thinness of a liquid that affects how the fluid flows.

a)
Viscosity
b)

fluidity

c)

liquidity

d)

movement

93.

Hair that is treated with hydroxide relaxers must not be treated with ________.

a)
Thio relaxers
b)

conditioning solutions

c)

color shampoos

d)

normalizing solutions

94.

Hydroxide relaxers remove a sulfur atom from a disulfide bond, converting it into a(n) ________.

a)

normalization bond

b)

acid bond

c)

lanthionine bond

d)

amino bond

95.

Sodium hydroxide relaxers are commonly called ________.

a)
Lye relaxers
b)

metal relaxers

c)

no lye relaxers

d)

medium relaxers

96.

Relaxers that contain two components and must be mixed immediately prior to use are ________.

a)

guanidine hydroxide relaxers

b)

ammonium thioglycolate

c)

no lye relaxers

d)

potassium hydroxide relaxers

97.

During a relaxer strand test, hair that is pressed to the scalp and continues to curl is ______.

a)

Sufficiently relaxed

b)

Insufficiently relaxed

c)

Normalized

d)

Overprocessed

98.

Which conditioner contains an acidic pH that restores the hair's natural pH and should be used after a hydroxide relaxer?

a)

Lanthionization solution

b)

Natural lotion

c)

Swelling cream

d)

Normalizing lotion

99.

Keratin straightening treatments work by ______ in a semi-permanent manner.

a)

flat ironing

b)

fixing the keratin in place

c)

breaking side bonds

d)

neutralizing hydrogen bonds

100.

Where should you start the application of the chemical relaxer, often considered the most resistant area?

a)

Back of the head

b)

Front hairline

c)

Scalp area

d)

Side area