NEW
Font size
S
M
L
XL
WorksheetsSKN MANAGER
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which project documents can determine the budget?
a)
Procurement documents, contracts, requirements documentation, and basis of estimates
b)
Basis of estimates, cost estimates, project schedule, and risk register
c)
Business case, project charter, statement of work, and cost estimates
d)
Scope baseline, resource management plan, activity list, and assumption log
2.
When managing costs in an agile environment, what should a project manager consider?
a)
Lightweight estimation methods can be used as changes arise
b)
Agile environments make cost aggregation more difficult
c)
Agile environments make projects more costly and uncertain
d)
Detailed cost calculations benefit from frequent changes
3.
Which statement describes the Monitor Communications process?
a)
Evaluates the differences between the communications management plan and the reality of communications in a project
b)
Ensures that the information needs of the project and the stakeholders are met
c)
Ensures that project information is created, collected, and distributed in a timely and appropriate manner
d)
Develops an appropriate and plan for communication of project activities
4.
Which tasks should a project manager accomplish in order to manage project scope correctly?
a)
Define, Validate, and Control Scope; Control Schedule; Control Costs and Manage Stakeholder Engagement.
b)
Collect Requirements, Define Scope, Create WBS, Develop Schedule, and Manage Stakeholder Engagement.
c)
Plan Scope Management; Collect Requirements; Define, Validate, and Control Scope; and Create WBS.
d)
Define, Validate, and Control Scope; Control Costs; Manage Stakeholder Engagement; and keep budget under control.
5.
In a preliminary meeting for a project, team members decide to execute the project with agile methodology. A finance team member wants to know how project cost will be determined at this early stage.
How will the project team determine project cost?
a)
Use a lightweight cost estimation due to the nature of agile projects
b)
Use a detailed cost estimation for agile projects
c)
Retrieve a budget from a previous project and create a baseline for this project based on it
d)
Use a detailed work breakdown structure (WBS) to get cost estimation
6.
Which of the following lists represents the outputs of the Monitor Communications process?
a)
Project communications, project management plan updates, project documents updates, and organizational process assets updates
b)
Work performance information, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates
c)
Communications management plan, project management plan updates, work performance report, and project documents update
d)
Stakeholder engagement plan, change requests, project management plan updates, and project documents updates
7.
A project team member is estimating the cost of an activity and is checking documentation from previous similar projects. Which estimation method is the project manager using to complete this task?
a)
Bottom-up estimating
b)
Three-point estimating
c)
Analogous estimating
d)
Parametric estimating
8.
Which are inputs for the Plan Quality Management process?
a)
Quality metrics, project documents, and financial performance
b)
Quality management plan, project documents, and quality metrics
c)
Project management plan, project documents, and organizational process assets
d)
Project management plan, quality metrics, and project documents
9.
The project manager needs to manage a critical issue immediately, and this requires action from the upper management of a specific stakeholder group. Which plan should the project manager consult?
a)
Risk management plan
b)
Communications management plan
c)
Change management plan
d)
Stakeholder engagement plan
10.
During what project management process does the project team begin identifying risks?
a)
Initiating
b)
Planning
c)
Executing
d)
Monitoring and Controlling
11.
A project manager is reviewing the change requests for project documents, deliverables, and the project plan. In which project management process does this review belong?
a)
Monitor and Control Project Work
b)
Direct and Manage Project Work
c)
Close Project or Phase
d)
Perform Integrated Change Control
12.
Which format can a network diagram take?
a)
Flow chart
b)
Control chart
c)
Affinity diagram
d)
Cause-and-effect diagram
13.
A project manager is working on the communications management plan. Which of these documents are inputs to consider?
a)
Stakeholder engagement plan and organizational process assets
b)
Project schedule and stakeholder register
c)
Quality management plan and risk register
d)
Basis of estimates and scope baseline
14.
According to the PMI Talent Triangle, leadership skills relate to the ability to:
a)
understand the high-level overview of the organization
b)
tailor traditional and agile tools for the project
c)
work with stakeholders to develop an appropriate project delivery
d)
guide, motivate, and direct a team to reach project goals
15.
Which is the best way for a project manager to ensure efficient and frequent communication with management and stakeholders in an agile/adaptive environment?
a)
Post project artifacts in a transparent fashion and engage stakeholders on a regular basis.
b)
Make surveys among the stakeholders and meet with the team once a month.
c)
Create a social network and post news there.
d)
Create personalized emails for each stakeholder, asking for requests and reviewing objectives with them periodically.
16.
A project manager is assigned to a strategic project. Senior management asks the project manager to give a presentation in order to request support that will ensure the success of the project.
Which entities will the project manager attempt to influence?
a)
The project and the organization
b)
The organization and the industry
c)
The subject matter experts and the project
d)
The change control board and the organization
17.
Which statement summarizes the role of the change control board?
a)
The change control board is responsible for presenting the change for approval
b)
The change control board will analyze the change impact in terms of cost and schedule
c)
The change control board is responsible for managing the change management and configuration management systems
d)
The change control board is responsible for reviewing and approving changes to the project
18.
Which group of inputs will a project manager use during the Monitor Stakeholder Engagement process?
a)
Project charter, business documents, and project management plan
b)
Agreements, scope baseline, and project management plan
c)
Project charter, business case, and project management plan
d)
Work performance data, enterprise environmental factors, and project management plan
19.
Which of the following are outputs from the process of creating a work breakdown structure (WBS)?
a)
Project scope statement and accepted deliverables
b)
Scope baseline and project documents update
c)
Accepted deliverables and enterprise environmental factors
d)
Scope baseline and work performance information
20.
Which statement about identification and engagement of stakeholders during a project is correct?
a)
Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged in every phase of the project to influence the success of the project directly.
b)
Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged once the prototype is completed to provide their feedback but refrain from making inputs during the project.
c)
Project stakeholders should be identified when the project charter is being completed and engaged during requirements gathering.
d)
Project stakeholders should be identified and engaged during requirements elicitation but not during the Define Scope process
21.
Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?
a)
Mitigate
b)
Transfer
c)
Exploit
d)
Avoid
22.
A weighting system is a tool for which area of procurement?
a)
Plan contracting
b)
Request seller responses
c)
Select sellers
d)
Plan purchase and acquisition
23.
Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?
a)
Fixed-price, cost reimbursable, time and materials
b)
Make-or-buy, margin analysis, fixed-price
c)
Time and materials, fixed-price, margin analysis
d)
Make-or-buy, lump-sum, cost-plus-incentive
24.
Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?
a)
Contract plan
b)
Procurement plan
c)
Closure process
d)
Procurement audits
25.
Which of the following is a project constraint?
a)
Twenty-five percent staff turnover is expected.
b)
The technology to be used is cutting-edge.
c)
Project leadership may change due to volatile political environment.
d)
The product is needed in 250 days.
26.
A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?
a)
Project scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the products of the work packages
b)
Central coordinator of communication management across projects, and for the delivery of specific project objectives, organization opportunity assessment
c)
Assigns project resources to best meet project objectives
d)
Overall risk, overall opportunity and interdependencies among projects
27.
Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration"?
a)
Changing project specifications continuously
b)
Elaborate tracking of the project progress
c)
Elaborate tracking of the project specifications with a change control system
d)
Project specifications becoming more explicit and detailed as the project progresses
28.
What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?
a)
To focus on the coordinated planning, prioritization, and execution of projects and subprojects that are tied to the parent organizations' or the client's overall business objectives.
b)
To coordinate and manage the procurement of projects relevant to the parent organization's business objectives and to administer the project charters accordingly.
c)
To administer performance reviews for the project manager and the project team members and to handle any personnel and payroll issues.
d)
To focus on the specified project objectives and to manage the scope, schedule, cost, and quality of the work packages.
29.
An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
a)
Communication models.
b)
Enterprise environmental factors.
c)
Organizational communications,
d)
Organizational cultures and styles.
30.
Regression analysis, failure mode and effect analysis (FMEA), fault tree analysis (FTA), and trend analysis are examples of which tool or technique?
a)
Expert judgment
b)
Forecasting methods
c)
Earned value management
d)
Analytical techniques
31.
The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
a)
Executing
b)
Monitoring and Controlling
c)
Initiating
d)
Planning
32.
Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
a)
Control Scope
b)
Define Scope
c)
Plan Scope Management
d)
Collect Requirements
33.
Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?
a)
Identify Risks
b)
Control Risks
c)
Plan Risk Management
d)
Plan Risk Responses
34.
The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
a)
Plan Schedule Management.
b)
Develop Project Charter.
c)
Develop Schedule.
d)
Plan Scope Management.
35.
Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?
a)
Issue log
b)
Change log
c)
Expert judgment
d)
Change requests
36.
An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
a)
The project charter.
b)
The stakeholder analysis.
c)
A communication management plan.
d)
A stakeholder register.
37.
An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
a)
Cost estimates.
b)
Resource calendars,
c)
The project charter,
d)
The risk register.
38.
A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:
a)
Product analysis.
b)
Variance analysis.
c)
Document analysis,
d)
Decomposition.
39.
The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known as:
a)
Develop Project Team.
b)
Manage Project Team.
c)
Acquire Project Team.
d)
Plan Human Resource Management.
40.
Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?
a)
Mandatory
b)
Discretionary
c)
Internal
d)
External
41.
During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?
a)
Monitor and Control Project Work
b)
Perform Quality Assurance
c)
Close Project or Phase
d)
Control Scope
42.
An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
a)
Work performance reports.
b)
Change requests.
c)
Activity resource requirements.
d)
Enterprise environmental factors.
43.
Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
a)
Procurement statement of work
b)
Purchase order
c)
Source selection criteria
d)
Bidder conference
44.
A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?
a)
Executing
b)
Planning
c)
Monitoring and Controlling
d)
Closing
45.
A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?
a)
Efficient
b)
Effective
c)
Push
d)
Pull
46.
Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
a)
Performance measurement baseline.
b)
Analysis of project forecasts,
c)
Summary of changes approved in a period,
d)
Analysis of past performance.
47.
A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:
a)
Adaptive
b)
Predictive
c)
Incremental
d)
Iterative
48.
What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is $150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
a)
0.50
b)
0.67
c)
1.50
d)
2.00
49.
Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
a)
Schedule data
b)
Activity list
c)
Risk register
d)
Scope baseline
50.
When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
a)
Interactive communication
b)
Claims administration
c)
Conflict management
d)
Performance reporting
Reset
