NEW
Font size
S
M
L
XL
WorksheetsProjekt Vici
Total questions: 50
Worksheet time: 2hrs 40mins
Name
Class
Date
1.
Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
a)
Control charts
b)
Pareto diagrams
c)
Ishikavva diagrams
d)
Checksheets
2.
The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
a)
Collect Requirements.
b)
Conduct Procurements.
c)
Estimate Activity Durations.
d)
Estimate Activity Resources.
3.
Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
a)
Procurement documents
b)
Communications plan
c)
Project charter
d)
Stakeholder register
4.
The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
a)
Initiating
b)
Monitoring and Controlling
c)
Planning
d)
Executing
5.
An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
a)
Business case.
b)
Activity list.
c)
Project management plan.
d)
Cost forecast.
6.
Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
a)
Change request
b)
Requirements documentation
c)
Scope baseline
d)
Risk urgency assessment
7.
Which process determines the risks that may affect the project and documents their characteristics?
a)
Control Risks
b)
Plan Risk Management
c)
Plan Risk Responses
d)
Identify Risks
8.
An example of a group decision-making technique is:
a)
Nominal group technique.
b)
Majority.
c)
Affinity diagram.
d)
Multi-criteria decision analysis.
9.
A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:
a)
mitigate
b)
accept
c)
transfer
d)
avoid
10.
An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:
a)
A process improvement plan,
b)
Quality control measurements.
c)
Work performance information,
d)
The project management plan.
11.
A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:
a)
Change control plan
b)
Stakeholder register
c)
Risk log
d)
Communications management plan
12.
Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
a)
Estimate Activity Resources
b)
Sequence Activities
c)
Estimate Activity Durations
d)
Develop Schedule
13.
Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?
a)
Enhance
b)
Share
c)
Exploit
d)
Accept
14.
The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?
a)
Timing
b)
Methodology
c)
Risk categories
d)
Budgeting
15.
When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?
a)
Negative
b)
Zero
c)
Positive
d)
Free
16.
A reward can only be effective if it is:
a)
Given immediately after the project is completed.
b)
Something that is tangible.
c)
Formally given during project performance appraisals.
d)
Satisfying a need valued by the individual.
17.
Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?
a)
Nominal group technique
b)
Idea/mind mapping
c)
Affinity diagram
d)
Brainstorming
18.
Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?
a)
Bottom-up
b)
Parametric
c)
Analogous
d)
Three-point
19.
Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?
a)
Direct
b)
Interactive
c)
Pull
d)
Push
20.
Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?
a)
Cost variance (CV)
b)
Cost performance index (CPI)
c)
Budget at completion (BAC)
d)
Variance at completion (VAC)
21.
Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?
a)
Direct and Manage Project Work
b)
Develop Project Management Plan
c)
Plan Quality Management
d)
Monitor and Control Project Work
22.
Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:
a)
Organizational process assets and the project charter,
b)
Enterprise environmental factors and schedule tools.
c)
Time tables and Pareto diagrams.
d)
Activity attributes and resource calendars.
23.
A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?
a)
Identify Risks
b)
Control Risks
c)
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
d)
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
24.
Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?
a)
Project Risk Management
b)
Project Human Resource Management
c)
Project Scope Management
d)
Project Stakeholder Management
25.
Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?
a)
Stakeholder register
b)
Scope management plan
c)
Stakeholder management plan
d)
Project charter
26.
Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?
a)
Plan Procurement Management
b)
Control Procurements
c)
Collect Requirements
d)
Plan Cost Management
27.
Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?
a)
Change control tools
b)
Expert judgment
c)
Delphi technique
d)
Change log
28.
The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:
a)
Work packages.
b)
Accepted deliverables.
c)
The WBS dictionary.
d)
The scope baseline.
29.
In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?
a)
Project Cost Management
b)
Project Scope Management
c)
Project Time Management
d)
Project Integration Management
30.
The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?
a)
Early
b)
Middle
c)
Late
d)
Completion
31.
Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?
a)
Estimate Costs
b)
Control Costs
c)
Determine Budget
d)
Plan Cost Management
32.
Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?
a)
Planning
b)
Executing
c)
Closing
d)
Initiating
33.
When should quality planning be performed?
a)
While developing the project charter
b)
In parallel with the other planning processes
c)
As part of a detailed risk analysis
d)
As a separate step from the other planning processes
34.
A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:
a)
The best use of communication methods.
b)
An efficient and effective communication flow.
c)
Project costs to be reduced.
d)
The best use of communication technology.
35.
The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:
a)
Control Schedule.
b)
Sequence Activities.
c)
Define Activities.
d)
Develop Schedule.
36.
Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:
a)
Enterprise environmental factors
b)
Work performance reports
c)
Organizational process assets
d)
Context diagrams
37.
The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:
a)
Responses
b)
Appetite
c)
Tolerance
d)
Attitude
38.
An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:
a)
change requests
b)
enterprise environmental factors
c)
the stakeholder management plan
d)
the change log
39.
Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?
a)
Plan Risk Management
b)
Plan Risk Responses
c)
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
d)
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
40.
An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:
a)
Source selection criteria.
b)
Market research.
c)
A stakeholder register.
d)
A records management system.
41.
Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
a)
Plan Risk Management
b)
Plan Risk Responses
c)
Identify Risks
d)
Control Risks
42.
Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?
a)
Close Project or Phase
b)
Conduct Procurements
c)
Control Procurements
d)
Close Procurements
43.
Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?
a)
Plan Risk Responses
b)
Plan Risk Management
c)
Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis
d)
Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis
44.
A regression line is used to estimate:
a)
Whether or not a process is stable or has predictable performance.
b)
How a change to the independent variable influences the value of the dependent variable.
c)
The upper and lower specification limits on a control chart.
d)
The central tendency, dispersion, and shape of a statistical distribution.
45.
An input to Conduct Procurements is:
a)
Independent estimates.
b)
Selected sellers.
c)
Seller proposals.
d)
Resource calendars.
46.
What are the Project Procurement Management processes?
a)
Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, Integrate Procurements, and Close Procurements
b)
Estimate Procurements, Integrate Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements
c)
Plan Procurement Management, Conduct Procurements, Control Procurements, and Close Procurements
d)
Plan Procurement Management, Perform Procurements, Control Procurements, and Validate Procurements
47.
Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?
a)
Ground rules
b)
Expert judgment
c)
Team-building activities
d)
Interpersonal skills
48.
Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?
a)
Only once, at the beginning
b)
At the beginning and the end
c)
Once during each phase
d)
Repeatedly
49.
A contract cannot contain
a)
Illegal activities
b)
Deadline for the completion of the work
c)
Penalties and fines for disclosure of intellectual rights
d)
All of the above
50.
Which one of the following comes first in the project plan?
a)
Scope Statement
b)
Quality Plan
c)
WBS
d)
Development Plan
Reset
