wayground logo

Free Printable Worksheets

Font size

S
M
L
XL
Worksheets

AWS Certified Security Specialty Master Cheat Sheet Quiz

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 53mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the purpose of AWS Artifact according to the AWS Certified Security Specialty Master Cheat Sheet?

a)

It provides a list of AWS security services.

b)

It is used for DNS validation.

c)

It offers generic AWS compliance documents.

d)

It allows export of the private key.

2.

What is a characteristic of AWS Certificate Manager?

a)

It validates DNS CA Authorization records first.

b)

It allows export of the private key.

c)

It is used for managing AWS user accounts.

d)

It provides a list of AWS security services.

3.

Which AWS service allows export of the private key?

a)

AWS Artifact

b)

AWS Certificate Manager with private CA

c)

AWS Cloud Directory

d)

AWS Certificate Manager with public standard

4.

What is a limitation of AWS Certificate Manager's certificates?

a)

They are not region-locked.

b)

They can be issued instantly.

c)

They are region-locked, unless CloudFront is used (with Virginia).

d)

They do not support DNS validation.

5.

What is CloudHSM advertised as suitable for?

a)

General purpose encryption

b)

When you have contractual/regulatory constraints

c)

As a replacement for Active Directory

d)

For unlimited SQL Server and Oracle database encryption

6.

Which of the following is a feature of CloudHSM?

a)

It is FIPS 140-2 Level 1 certified

b)

It can be used for load balancing

c)

It allows HSM users to authenticate with username and biometrics

d)

It is FIPS 140-2 Level 3 certified

7.

What is the monthly active user limit for the free tier of Cognito User Pools?

a)

10k monthly active users

b)

25k monthly active users

c)

50k monthly active users

d)

100k monthly active users

8.

What does Cognito Identity Pools provide?

a)

Permanent AWS credentials

b)

Temporary AWS credentials

c)

Unlimited API calls

d)

Direct support for Active Directory

9.

How does the API Gateway interact with Cognito?

a)

It requires a separate identity pool

b)

It has direct support for Cognito tokens

c)

It only supports OAuth user tokens

d)

It does not support Cognito at all

10.

Which AWS service allows you to manage EC2 instances via group policies, among other features?

a)

IAM

b)

Guard Duty

c)

Firewall Manager

d)

AD Connector

11.

What is the backend for Simple AD?

a)

IAM

b)

Samba

c)

EC2

d)

CloudFront

12.

What does Guard Duty use to look for reconnaissance and instance compromise?

a)

CloudTrail, VPC Flow Logs, and DNS Logs

b)

WAF rules across CloudFront and ELB

c)

Direct Connect or VPN

d)

SNS topic and Lambda functions

13.

For how long are Guard Duty findings available in the Guard Duty console?

a)

30 days

b)

60 days

c)

90 days

d)

120 days

14.

What can Managed Microsoft AD do that Simple AD cannot?

a)

Use a Samba backend

b)

Join to an existing AD with trust relationships

c)

Manage WAF rules across CloudFront

d)

Look for EC2 instance compromise

15.

Where can the credentials for EC2 instances be found?

a)

http://127.0.0.1/latest/meta-data/iam/security-credentials/

b)

http://169.254.169.254/latest/meta-data/iam/security-credentials/

c)

http://192.168.1.1/latest/meta-data/iam/security-credentials/

d)

http://localhost/latest/meta-data/iam/security-credentials/

16.

What is required for a user to launch an EC2 instance?

a)

iam:PassRole for the relevant roles

b)

iam:CreateRole for the relevant roles

c)

iam:AttachRole for the relevant roles

d)

iam:DetachRole for the relevant roles

17.

What type of policy grants a service the permissions it needs and has an immutable trust policy?

a)

User access policy

b)

Service linked role

c)

Resource based policy

d)

Identity based policy

18.

What is the maximum number of managed policies that can be attached to a user/group/role?

a)

5

b)

10

c)

15

d)

20

19.

What do permissions boundaries set in IAM?

a)

The minimum permissions that an IAM entity can have

b)

The default permissions that an IAM entity starts with

c)

The maximum permissions that an identity-based policy can grant to an IAM entity

d)

The exact permissions that an IAM entity is required to have

20.

What does the "Null" operator in IAM policy conditions signify?

a)

The key exists and is null

b)

The key does not exist

c)

The key exists and isn't null

d)

The key is of null type

21.

Which IAM policy element allows you to tag users and roles?

a)

aws:PrincipalType

b)

aws:RequestedRegion

c)

aws:PrincipalTag

d)

aws:sourceVpc

22.

What is the purpose of the "aws:PrincipalOrgID" condition in IAM policies?

4 lines
23.

What does the "IfExists" operator return in IAM policy conditions?

a)

True if the key exists and is null

b)

True if the key does not exist

c)

False if the key exists and isn't null

d)

True if the key exists with multiple values

24.

Which of the following is NOT a use case for policy variables in IAM?

a)

To use in resource element conditions

b)

To use string operators in conditions

c)

To specify the requested AWS region

d)

To control access based on time of access

25.

What does NotPrincipal+Deny in an IAM policy act as?

a)

A) A blacklist

b)

B) A whitelist

c)

C) A temporary credential

d)

D) A user permission list

26.

Which AWS service uses SAML assertions for federation to exchange for temporary credentials?

a)

A) AWS SSO

b)

B) AWS IAM

c)

C) AWS Directory Service

d)

D) AWS Access Advisor

27.

Which of the following is a service that supports resource-based policies but does not support temporary credentials?

a)

A) Amazon ECR

b)

B) Amazon CloudFront

c)

C) Amazon S3

d)

D) AWS Lambda

28.

Can temporary credentials be revoked once issued?

a)

A) Yes, at any time

b)

B) No, they cannot be revoked

c)

C) Only if an IAM user created them

d)

D) Only before they are used

29.

What is included in temporary credentials to invalidate them when necessary?

a)

A) A token as well as access key & secret key

b)

B) A user permission list

c)

C) A resource policy

d)

D) A SAML assertion

30.

What is NOT supported anymore as a multifactor authentication option in AWS?

a)

SMS

b)

U2F

c)

Virtual TOTP

d)

Hardware TOTP

31.

Which AWS service provides predefined rules packages for network reachability and host configuration analysis?

a)

KMS

b)

Inspector

c)

Cognito

d)

STS

32.

What is required for host configuration in AWS Inspector?

a)

Agent

b)

Key policies

c)

Custom API

d)

Federation

33.

How does AWS KMS differ from standard IAM in terms of key policies?

a)

KMS uses the same evaluation logic as IAM.

b)

KMS allows any request if the key policy doesn't explicitly deny it.

c)

KMS denies the request if the key policy doesn't allow it, regardless of identity policies.

d)

KMS key policies are optional.

34.

What is the default policy for API-created CMKs in AWS KMS?

a)

Allows full access to all IAM identities

b)

Allows kms:* for the account / root user

c)

Allows all AWS services to manage the CMK

d)

Denies all access by default

35.

Which AWS service uses wrapped data keys with KMS for 'envelope encryption'?

a)

CloudTrail

b)

IAM

c)

S3

d)

EC2

36.

What is the purpose of the kms:ViaService condition key in KMS policies?

a)

To allow direct API use of CMKs

b)

To prevent direct API use or block specific service use

c)

To grant full access to all AWS services

d)

To enable logging of CMK usage

37.

What encryption algorithm do CMKs use in AWS KMS?

a)

RSA-2048

b)

SHA-256

c)

AES-256

d)

3DES

38.

Where are CMKs stored in AWS KMS?

a)

In a virtual private cloud (VPC)

b)

In HSMs (140-2 level 2)

c)

On AWS S3

d)

In AWS EC2 instances

39.

How many Customer Master Keys (CMKs) can you have per region?

a)

500 CMKs

b)

1000 CMKs

c)

1500 CMKs

d)

Unlimited

40.

What does the custom key store use?

a)

CloudTrail

b)

CloudHSM

c)

CloudWatch

d)

S3

41.

Can you import or automatically rotate keys in a custom key store?

a)

Yes, both import and automatic rotation are possible.

b)

No, neither import nor automatic rotation is possible.

c)

Yes, but only automatic rotation is possible.

d)

Yes, but only import is possible.

42.

What is CloudHSM's compliance level?

a)

Single tenant 140-2 level 1 HSM

b)

Single tenant 140-2 level 2 HSM

c)

Single tenant 140-2 level 3 HSM

d)

Multi-tenant 140-2 level 3 HSM

43.

What does Macie classify in S3?

a)

Only Personal Health Information (PHI)

b)

Only Personally Identifiable Information (PII)

c)

Only regulatory documents

d)

PII, PHI, regulatory documents, API keys, and secret key material

44.

How many levels can Organizational Units (OUs) be nested up to in AWS Organizations?

a)

3 levels

b)

4 levels

c)

5 levels

d)

Unlimited levels

45.

What does a full AWSAccess (allow *) policy automatically attach to in AWS Organizations?

a)

To any new OUs

b)

To the master account

c)

To the root and new OUs

d)

To all service-linked roles

46.

Which AWS service allows the creation of an organizational trail to log events for all member accounts?

a)

AWS Config

b)

AWS CloudTrail

c)

AWS Lambda

d)

AWS CloudWatch

47.

What is the maximum size limit for secrets (JSON documents) in AWS Secrets Manager?

a)

64kb

b)

128kb

c)

256kb

d)

4kb

48.

For cross-account access to a secret in AWS Secrets Manager, what type of encryption is required at rest?

a)

AWS managed CMK

b)

Custom CMK

c)

AES-256 encryption

d)

SSL/TLS encryption

49.

What is required for configuring rotation in AWS Secrets Manager?

a)

Creating and assigning a role to a Lambda function with IAMFullAccess

b)

Enabling multi-region support

c)

Setting up a CloudFront distribution

d)

Configuring AWS Shield Advanced

50.

What is the primary use case for AWS Single Sign-On (SSO)?

a)

To provide Layer 7 protection

b)

To manage multi-account access with Organizations

c)

To integrate with CloudFront for non-AWS origins

d)

To generate findings against CIS standards

51.

Which AWS service provides insights through collections and filters of findings?

a)

Security Hub

b)

Shield

c)

SSO

d)

IAMFullAccess

52.

What does AWS Shield Standard offer?

a)

Multi-account support

b)

Findings from Guard Duty, Inspector, Macie

c)

Integration into existing services and TCP/UDP protection

d)

Management of multi-account access

53.

Which of the following is not a feature of AWS Shield Advanced?

a)

CloudFront integration

b)

Global threat environment dashboard

c)

AWS DDoS team support

d)

Findings don't cross regions

54.

What is the limit of permission sets that can be implemented as Roles in member accounts for SSO?

a)

10

b)

20

c)

30

d)

No limit

55.

Which AWS service is used to create users and groups within SSO by default?

a)

AWS Directory Service

b)

Native directory

c)

IAM identity provider

d)

Managed AD

56.

What is the default action if no rule matches in Web ACLs?

a)

Allow

b)

Block

c)

Count

d)

No default action

57.

What type of rules can be managed from Marketplace sellers in WAF?

a)

Conditions

b)

Rate based rules

c)

Normal rules

d)

Managed rules

58.

For CLI access, what does the SSO user portal provide?

a)

Permanent credentials

b)

Temporary credentials for the Roles you have access to

c)

Direct access to the AWS Management Console

d)

Full administrative permissions

59.

What type of queries can Athena perform over data in S3?

a)

SQL queries over XML data only

b)

NoSQL queries over data in any format

c)

SQL queries over data in S3 after defining a schema

d)

SQL queries over encrypted data without a schema

60.

Which AWS service integrates with Glue's Data Catalog and supports fine-grained permissions?

a)

Redshift

b)

Athena

c)

CloudFront

d)

Kinesis Firehose

61.

What is charged per query in Athena?

a)

Number of records returned

b)

Fixed rate per query

c)

Volume of data scanned

d)

Time taken to execute the query

62.

Which AWS service is better for querying smaller datasets without pre-processing?

a)

Redshift

b)

Athena

c)

Elasticsearch Service

d)

Glue

63.

What does AWS Glue generate when selecting a data source and data target?

a)

A report on the data quality

b)

ETL code in Scala or Python

c)

A visualization of the data

d)

A backup of the source data

64.

Which AWS service allows configuration of public or VPC endpoints and integrates with Kinesis Firehose, Logstash, or ES's index/bulk APIs?

a)

Athena

b)

Glue

c)

Elasticsearch Service

d)

CloudTrail

65.

What is the purpose of Amazon Kinesis Data Firehose?

a)

To manage delivery frequency with buffer size or interval

b)

To ingest and analyze various data sources, notably logs

c)

To configure an IAM role that it assumes to access e.g. S3 or Elasticsearch

d)

To capture, transform, and load streaming data into Amazon S3, Amazon Redshift, Amazon Elasticsearch Service, and Splunk

66.

Which AWS service allows subscribers to validate through a challenge message before receiving notifications?

a)

SQS

b)

SNS

c)

Kinesis

d)

Lambda

67.

What is the main difference between the mechanisms of SNS and SQS?

a)

SNS uses KMS for optional encryption, while SQS does not.

b)

SNS has its own resource-based security policy, while SQS uses IAM policies.

c)

SNS is a polling service, while SQS is a push service.

d)

SNS is a push service, while SQS is based on polling.

68.

What type of security policy does SQS have?

a)

A resource-based security policy that predates IAM policies

b)

An IAM policy that is similar to S3 policies

c)

A queue-based security policy that is similar to Lambda policies

d)

A subscription-based security policy that is similar to SNS policies

69.

What does the LaunchPermission attribute of an AMI determine?

a)

The encryption status of the AMI

b)

Which accounts can use the AMI

c)

The number of instances that can be launched at once

d)

The region in which the AMI can be used

70.

What is the purpose of key pairs in EC2?

a)

To encrypt data at rest

b)

To manage network access

c)

To provide secure SSH access to instances

d)

To control the execution role of tasks

71.

What is the default encryption state for the instance store of an EC2 instance when it is stopped?

a)

Encrypted with S3 SSE

b)

Encrypted with host software disk encryption

c)

Not encrypted

d)

Encrypted with a customer-managed key

72.

What is the default encryption method for images in the Elastic Container Registry (ECR)?

a)

S3 SSE

b)

AES-256

c)

Customer-managed keys

d)

No encryption

73.

Which networking option allows tasks to get the host's network interface in Elastic Container Service (ECS)?

a)

none

b)

bridge

c)

host

d)

awsvpc

74.

What can tasks in ECS send to CloudWatch?

a)

Execution roles

b)

Repository policies

c)

Logs

d)

AMIs

75.

What network mode must be used with the Fargate launch type?

a)

awsvpc

b)

bridge

c)

host

d)

none

76.

Which AWS service is Lightsail compared to in terms of being a competitor?

a)

Azure

b)

Google Cloud

c)

DigitalOcean

d)

IBM Cloud

77.

What does Elastic Beanstalk provide a management wrapper around?

a)

EC2, S3, EBS, RDS

b)

VPC, IAM, Lambda, DynamoDB

c)

EC2, IAM, CloudFront, S3

d)

Lambda, API Gateway, S3, DynamoDB

78.

What is the minimum logging capability that an execution role in AWS Lambda is assumed to have?

a)

CloudWatch metrics

b)

CloudWatch alarms

c)

CloudWatch logs

d)

CloudWatch events

79.

What can the Beanstalk service role manage in other services?

a)

Only application deployment

b)

Only database instances

c)

Only security groups

d)

Instance profile - role used by instances to get the app, write logs, etc.

80.

What is required for a console to update function policies automatically when adding a trigger in AWS Lambda?

a)

The function must be in a VPC.

b)

The function must have a logging layer included.

c)

The triggering service must have access.

d)

The function must be connected to an Application Load Balancer.

81.

What does a role need in order to create network interfaces in each subnet of a VPC?

a)

The VPC must be connected to an internet gateway.

b)

The VPC must have ENI capacity and subnets must have spare IPs.

c)

The VPC must have a NAT gateway.

d)

The VPC must be integrated with WAF.

82.

Which AWS service is integrated with Certificate Manager to terminate TLS?

a)

VPC

b)

Identity policies

c)

Elastic Load Balancing (ELB)

d)

AWS Lambda

83.

What is a feature of the Application Load Balancer (ALB) in AWS?

a)

It doesn't support Server Name Indication (SNI).

b)

It can only use 2k RSA certificates.

c)

It can have a Lambda function as a target.

d)

It creates a network interface in a subnet in each AZ you choose.

84.

Which of the following is not a feature of the Network Load Balancer (NLB) in AWS?

a)

It is integrated with WAF.

b)

It supports authentication with Cognito.

c)

It doesn't support Server Name Indication (SNI).

d)

It can enable access logging to an S3 bucket.

85.

Which AWS service is mentioned as being able to potentially receive incident notification, but with another service being probably more appropriate?

a)

Amazon S3

b)

Amazon SES

c)

Amazon SNS

d)

Amazon KMS

86.

What port is used for TLS SMTP connection as mentioned in the Simple Email Service (SES) section?

a)

Port 443

b)

Port 587

c)

Port 25

d)

Port 80

87.

For the RDS database, what is the encryption at rest solution mentioned?

a)

Standard AWS

b)

KMS; TDE with SQL Server

c)

CloudHSM

d)

IAM identity policies

88.

What type of encryption is used for DynamoDB according to the table?

a)

Rooted at global RDS certs

b)

Standard AWS

c)

TDE with SQL Server

d)

CloudHSM Classic

89.

How is database authentication managed for DynamoDB as per the table?

a)

per-engine user accounts - SQL

b)

IAM only. Cognito

c)

KMS

d)

CloudTrail, excl.

90.

According to the table, what is the audit method for RDS?

a)

per-engine log files

b)

KMS

c)

CloudTrail, excl.

d)

IAM identity policies

91.

Which database uses ACM managed certificate, Redshift specific root for transport encryption?

a)

Neptune

b)

Aurora

c)

Redshift

d)

HTTPS endpoint

92.

What does Neptune use for transport encryption?

a)

Rooted at global RDS certs

b)

ACM managed certificate

c)

Publicly trusted Amazon root

d)

KMS; CloudHSM Classic

93.

Which service is used for encryption at rest in Aurora?

a)

ACM

b)

KMS

c)

CloudHSM Classic

d)

S3

94.

How can you audit Aurora?

a)

Using Console

b)

With CloudWatch Logs

c)

Through S3

d)

By enabling IAM identity policy

95.

What is the method of DB authentication for Redshift?

a)

IAM identity policy mechanism

b)

DB user accounts - SQL; IAM with custom drivers

c)

User accounts; or a limited IAM identity policy mechanism

d)

User accounts; or an IAM authenticated API to obtain short-lived passwords

96.

Which database allows broad access if using IAM?

a)

Redshift

b)

Aurora

c)

Neptune

d)

HTTPS endpoint

97.

What is the main resource in DynamoDB that requires access for full functionality?

a)

Resource based policies

b)

The table/ resource

c)

AmazonDynamoDBFullAccess

d)

CloudWatch Logs

98.

Which AWS service is used for optional encryption at rest in DynamoDB?

a)

IAM

b)

CloudTrail

c)

KMS

d)

Cognito

99.

What type of permission model does RDS use for managing the database?

a)

Resource based policies

b)

Master user is created with the instance

c)

Encryption at rest

d)

VPC endpoint

100.

What does 'RDS Encryption' cover?

a)

Only the database

b)

Database and CloudTrail logs

c)

Database, backups, replicas, snapshots

d)

Database and VPC endpoints