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Worksheets

EOC REVIEW

Total questions: 186

Worksheet time: 3hrs 48mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

An abnormal mass of cancer cells is called a 

a)

tumor

b)

cyst

c)

lesion

2.

True or False: Environmental factors can increase the risk of cancer.

a)

True

b)

False

3.

Cancer is

a)

a premature stop in the cell cycle.

b)

uncontrolled mitosis.

c)

programmed cell death.

4.

What contains all of the genetic information about the cell?

a)

cell wall

b)

cell membrane

c)

cytoplasm

d)

DNA

5.

Which of the following are differences in the structure between RNA and DNA

a)

DNA uses deoxyribose sugar, RNA uses sugar ribose

b)

DNA pairs Adenine with Uracil, RNA pairs Adenine with Thymine

c)

DNA is a double helix, RNA is a single helix

d)

DNA pairs Adenine with Thymine, RNA pairs Adenine with Uracil

6.

When these bond together, they form a protein

a)

Amino Acids

b)

Peptide Bonds

c)

Ribose

d)

Nucleotides

7.

These building blocks consist of a sugar, phosphate, and nitrogen base.

a)

Ribose

b)

Nucleotide

c)

Gene

d)

Protein

8.
What is the three base sequence of mRNA that codes for a single amino acid?
a)
Anticodon
b)
Codon
c)
Protein
9.

Enzymes are an example of

a)

Lipids

b)

Carbohydrate

c)

Protein

d)

Nucleic Acid

10.
What is the purpose  of an enzyme?
a)
give permission for the reaction
b)
raise activation energy
c)
speed up reactions
d)
control how many reactions occur
11.
Each enzyme only has 1 substrate that will fit its active site.  What is this called?
a)
reusable
b)
catalyst
c)
specific
d)
fragile
12.
Any substance that is acted upon by an enzyme is called a(n)?
a)
Coenzyme
b)
Substrate
c)
Vitamin
d)
Polypeptide
13.
Letter D...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
14.
Letter B...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
15.
Letter C...
a)
active site
b)
enzymes
c)
substrate
d)
products
16.
Letter E...
a)
active site
b)
enzyme
c)
substrate
d)
products
17.
What makes an enzyme substrate specific?
a)
Size
b)
Shape
c)
Name
d)
Location it is found in
18.
What is a Cataylst?
a)
A substance that speeds up a rate of chemical reaction.
b)
Molecules that make enzymes work harder and faster 
c)
reaction of an enzyme
d)
A substance that slows down a rate of chemical reaction.
19.
What is the pigment in chloroplasts that performs photosynthesis?
a)
Chlorosynthesis
b)
Chlorophyll
c)
ADP
d)
Electron Transport
20.

5. Which biomolecules provide quick energy for the cell and also provide materials to build the cell membrane/wall?

a)

Carbohydrates

b)

Proteins

c)

Lipids

d)

Nucleic Acids

21.

10. Your friend is feeling irritable, lightheaded and dizzy. They are also feeling a bit of confusion and brain fog. Which biomolecule would you recommend your friend consume?

a)

Protein

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Nucleic Acid

d)

Lipid

22.

2. Which biomolecules contains your genetic information?

a)

Proteins

b)

Lipids

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Nucleic Acids

23.

9. Amino Acids are the monomers of __________.

a)

Nucleic Acids

b)

Proteins

c)

Carbohydrates

d)

Lipids

24.

3. Which biomolecules act as energy storage for the cell and also cushions and insulates organs?

a)

Carbohyrdates

b)

Lipids

c)

Proteins

d)

Nucleic Acids

25.

8. The monomer of Nucleic Acids is known as _________.

a)

Amino Acid

b)

Fatty Acid

c)

Nucleotide

d)

Saccharide

26.

1. The four most common elements found in biomolecules are __________.

a)

Sulfur, Phosphorus, Carbon, Oxygen

b)

Carbon, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Hydrogen

c)

Sulfur, Nitrogen, Carbon, Iron

d)

Carbon, Nitrogen, Hydrogen, Sulfur

27.

Click on the two products of Cellular Respiration?

a)

H2O

b)

O2

c)

CO2

d)

C6 H12 O6

28.

What do photosynthesis and cellular respiration have in common?

a)

They both require Sun light.

b)

Both are carried on by heterotrophs

c)

They both create energy for an organism to use.

d)

They both transform energy for an organism to use.

29.

Which of the following is the symbol for Glucose?

a)

O2

b)

CO2

c)

H20

d)

C6 H12 O6

30.

Which of the following statements best describes the term photosynthesis?

a)

When plants absorb the energy from the sun.

b)

How plants reproduce.

c)

The process by which plants make their own food.

d)

The process by which animals make their own food.

31.

Which of the following is needed for the process of photosynthesis?

a)

Water

b)

Oxygen

c)

Starch

d)

Carbon dioxide

32.

Chlorophyll is:

a)

The substance that makes plants green.

b)

Found inside the chloroplast cells.

c)

Used to absorb energy from the sun.

d)

All of the above.

33.

The openings that are found in the leaves of plants are called:

a)

Stomata

b)

Chlorophyll

c)

Xylem

d)

Chloroplast

34.

The tubes that carry water through the roots and stems are called:

a)

Stomata

b)

Chlorophyll

c)

Xylem

d)

Chloroplast

35.

The process of photosynthesis takes place in the:

a)

Leaves of the Plant.

b)

Stem of the plant.

c)

Roots of the plant.

d)

All of the above.

36.
Plants need what to do photosynthesis?
a)
Food absorbed from ground
b)
Sun's energy
c)
Food broken down
d)
Minerals from the soil
37.
What three things are needed for a plant to do photosynthesis?
a)
Glucose, Oxygen, Sunlight
b)
CO2, Oxygen, Sunlight
c)
CO2, Water, Sunlight
d)
Oxygen, Water, Sunlight
38.

Leaves are composed of vascular tissue that brings water in so that ground tissue can conduct photosynthesis. Based on this information, what level of organization describes leaves?

a)

Tissue

b)

Organ

c)

Organ system

d)

Organism

39.

Plants are complex organisms that are composed of multiple layers of organization. Which of the following best represents the organization of the root system from most complex to least complex?

a)

root system → root → phloem → cell

b)

root system → cell → phloem → root

c)

root system → phloem → root → cell

d)

root system → root → cell → phloem

40.

What internal stimulus would cause the plant to respond as depicted below?

a)

Exposure to too much sunlight

b)

Exposure to very little sunlight

c)

An abundance of water in the stem

d)

A lack of water in the stem

41.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

42.

Which of the following would result in a frameshift mutation?

a)

Insertions only

b)

Substitution only

c)

Deletion only

d)

Insertions and Deletions

43.

A mutation is defined as:

a)

A change in the cell's structure

b)

Anything that changes in an embryo

c)

Any change in the physical features of a human

d)

A change in the DNA sequence

44.

ATTTGAGCC- Original

ATTGAGCC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Insertion- Frameshift

b)

Deletion- Substitution

c)

Deletion -Frameshift

d)

All of the above

45.

What mutation has occurred here?

T-G-A-C-C-A

T-G-A-G-C-A

a)

Substitution

b)

Deletion

c)

Insertion

d)

Frameshift

46.

Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?

a)

They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence

b)

They insert things that an organism doesn't need.

c)

They often delete things that organisms need.

d)

Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.

47.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
48.

How many nucleotides code for 1 amino acid?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

49.

Which of the following is the complementary mRNA sequence to this DNA strand: AACTGAA

a)

UUGACUU

b)

TTGACTT

c)

AACTGAA

d)

AACUGAA

50.

Which organelle is the location where protein is made?

a)

Ribosome

b)

Nucleus

c)

Cytoplasm

d)

Nucleotide

51.

Match the DNA codon GCA to the correct mRNA codon

a)

CCU

b)

GCT

c)

CGU

d)

CGA

52.

Use your codon chart to match the mRNA CUU to the correct amino acid

a)

VAL

b)

TYR

c)

LEU

d)

PHE

53.

Use your codon chart to match the mRNA ACU to the correct amino acid.

a)

Thr

b)

Ala

c)

Val

d)

Gly

54.

Amino Acids are built up to make_______

a)

DNA

b)

mRNA

c)

Lipids

d)

Proteins

55.

Use your codon chart to find the amino acid that codes for AGU

a)

Tyr

b)

Gly

c)

Arg

d)

Ser

56.
Cattle egrets are birds that forage in fields among cattle. The egrets get easy access to food and the cattle don't care if they are there or not.
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
competition
d)
parasitism
57.
Which organisms compete for the same food?
a)
Rabbits and mice
b)
Rabbits and foxes
c)
Mice and grasshoppers
d)
Grasshoppers and owls
58.
Which of the following would best be identified as a predator/prey relationship?
a)
Dog --> Dragonfly
b)
Grass --> Cow
c)
Mouse --> Hawk
d)
Chipmonk --> grass
59.
Red-billed oxpeckers are birds that feed on parasites found on an impala. The impala gets rid of parasites and the red-billed oxpeckers get a yummy dinner. This is an example of _______.
a)
commensalism
b)
mutualism
c)
neutralism
d)
competition
60.
Energy increases as you move up the food pyramid (from producer up through tertiary consumer).
a)
True 
b)
False
61.
Temperature is an example of...
a)
Biotic factor
b)
Abiotic factor
62.
Use the diagram to answer the question.
The trout is a source of food for the human and the eagle. When there are more than one organism vying for (trying to get) the same source we call this____?
a)
Population
b)
Resources
c)
Community
d)
Competition
63.
Mistletoe extracts water and nutrients from the spruce tree to the tree's detriment (harm). 
a)
Mutualsim 
b)
Parasitism 
c)
Commensalism 
64.
A tick and a dog have this type of relationship.
a)
mutualism
b)
commensalism
c)
neutralism
d)
parasitism
65.
Yucca flowers are pollinated by yucca moths. The moths lay their eggs  in the flowers where  the larvae hatch and eat some of the developing seeds. Both species benefit.  
a)
Mutualism 
b)
Parasitism 
c)
Commensalism 
66.

A feature that allows an organism to better survive its environment

a)

Variation

b)

Natural Selection

c)

Adaptation

d)

Fitness

67.

Adaptations can be:

a)

camouflage

b)

ability to survive cold weather

c)

hunting skills

d)

all of the above

68.

What is most likely to happen to moth populations in the picture shown?

a)

Light moths--hunted easily, dark moths--population increase

b)

Dark moths--hunted easily, dark moths--population increase

c)

Light moths--hunted easily, light moths--population increase

d)

Lights moths will change their color to match dark moths.

69.

How do you "win" at natural selection?

a)

survive

b)

go extinct

c)

survive & reproduce

70.

Due to pollution, a pond becomes darker over time. Which trait variation became more common?

a)

light fish

b)

dark fish

71.
Where the better adapted organisms survive to pass traits along to offspring.
a)
Evolution
b)
Natural Selection
c)
Extinction
d)
Artifical Selection
72.

Natural Selection is driven by a change in the environment and survival of the

a)

Earth

b)

Fastest

c)

Fittest

d)

Biggest

73.

Change in a population over time that descend from a common ancestor.

a)

Natural Selection

b)

Selective Breeding

c)

Homeostasis

d)

Evolution

74.
Why is the mouse population changing over time?
a)
The light mice can reproduce more successfully than the dark mice
b)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because the dark mice taste better
c)
The hawks eat more light mice than dark mice because they can see the light mice more easily
d)
The hawks eat more dark mice than light mice because they can see the dark mice more easily
75.
The trees these moths used to live on were white, but have been covered in soot from coal factories. Which moth will be more successful in this environment?
a)
Dark moth
b)
Light moth
c)
Both will be equally successful
d)
Neither will be successful
76.

I can be either a heterotroph or an autotroph-

I am mostly unicellular

I am the "Junk Drawer" kingdom

The only thing for sure about me is that I have a nucleus in my cells...

I am Kingdom ____________ .

a)

Plantae

b)

Protista

c)

Animalia

d)

Fungi

77.

I am unicellular

I am prokaryotic

I am found in extreme environments

What kingdom do I belong to?

a)

The Eubacteria

b)

Kingdom Plantae

c)

Kingdom Animalia

d)

Kingdom Archaebacteria

78.

Which level of taxonomy shows the closest relationship between 2 organisms?

a)

kingdom

b)

class

c)

domain

d)

species

79.

There are many different species of big cats around the world. Why is having a scientific name for each species of an organism important?

a)

to prevent existing named organisms from having their name changed as they become extinct

b)

to keep the classification system from being altered as new organisms are discovered

c)

to allow organisms to be placed in many classification levels at the same time

d)

to standardize the naming and organization of organism to avoid confusion between scientist across the world

80.

All living things are divided into three groups called 'domains'. They include, Domain Bacteria, Domain Archaea, and ____________.

a)

Domain Animalia

b)

Domain Eukarya

c)

Domain Prokaryotic

d)

Domain Protista

81.
An illustration and a dichotomous key are given. What is the correct classification for this organism?
a)
Class Insecta
b)
Order Amblygygi
c)
Order Araneae
d)
Order Scorpiones
82.
In what kingdom would you find trees and flowers?
a)
Plantae
b)
Fungi
c)
Eubacteria
d)
Animalia
83.
When using a dichotomous key to identify organisms, what do we look at?
a)
physical features
b)
weather patterns
c)
environment
d)
diet
84.
What is the name of bird Z?
a)
Certhidea
b)
Geospiza
c)
Camarhynchus
d)
Platyspiza
85.
A student discovers an arachnid with a segmented abdomen, long legs, and a tail with no stinger. The student uses the dichotomous key below to identify it. Which arachnid has the student found?
a)
Whip Scorpion
b)
Wind Scorpion
c)
Daddy long legs
d)
Scorpion
86.

The three stages of the cell cycle are __________, mitosis, and

cytokinesis.

a)

interphase

b)

anaphase

c)

metaphase

d)

prophase

87.

Identical cells formed during cell division are called:

a)

daughter organelles

b)

daughter cycles

c)

daughter nucleus

d)

daughter cells

88.

____________ ensures that our bodies grow and repair

themselves.

a)

The cell growth

b)

The cell repair

c)

The cell recycle

d)

The cell cycle

89.

The final stage of the cell cycle is called:

a)

Interphase

b)

mitosis

c)

cytokinesis

d)

daughter cells

90.

What can the cell cycle also be called?

a)

Cell growth

b)

DNA Replication

c)

Preparation for Mitosis

d)

Cell Division

91.
What does DNA Replication mean?
a)
DNA is made.
b)
DNA makes new cells. 
c)
DNA copies itself.
d)
DNA starts the cell cycle.
92.
What happens in the first part of Interphase?
a)
Mitosis
b)
Cell Growth
c)
DNA Replication
d)
Anaphase
93.
Which part of the Cell Cycle takes the longest?
a)
Interphase
b)
Mitosis
c)
Prophase
d)
Cytokinesis
94.
During what phase of the cell cycle does cell division occur?
a)
Interphase
b)
M phase
c)
S phase
d)
G2 phase
95.

Centrioles pull the chromosomes apart towards the opposite sides of the cell describes:

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Anaphase

96.

Spindle fibers attach, centrioles line chromosomes in the center of the cell describes:

a)

Prophase

b)

Telophase

c)

Metaphase

d)

Anaphase

97.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

98.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here

a)

Prophase

b)

Metaphase

c)

Anaphase

d)

Telophase

99.

What stage of mitosis is depicted here

a)

Prophase

b)

Anaphase

c)

Telophase

d)

Metaphase

100.

Which of the following best describes Specialized Cells?

a)

They can divide rapidly

b)

They are identical to all other cells in the organism

c)

They have specific structures and functions

d)

They are only found in cancerous cells

101.

Cells differentiate to perform different functions because

a)

all genes are turned on inside that cell

b)

all genes are turned off inside that cell

c)

different genes are turned on inside that cell

d)

different genes are turned on or off inside that cell

102.

During the process of differentiation

a)

all sections of DNA are activated to determine the structure of a body cell

b)

ONLY ONE section of DNA are deactivated to determine the structure of a body cell

c)

only specific sections of DNA sequence are activated to determine the structure and functions of a body cell

103.
Which best explains why muscle cells are different from blood cells?
a)
Muscle cells are produced by the brain, but blood cells are produced by the heart. 
b)
Different genes are activated in muscle cells than in blood cells. 
c)
Muscles cells experience different environmental influences than blood cells. 
d)
A mutation occurs during the development of muscle cells but not in blood cells. 
104.

Unspecialized cells in our body that has the ability to differentiate into different types of cells are called

a)

specialized cells

b)

differentiated cells

c)

nerve cells

d)

stem cells

105.

Specialized cells such as muscle, blood, or nerve cells are caused by cell differentiation led by

a)

Environmental Factors

b)

nucleus

c)

ribosomes

d)

plasma membrane

106.

Living cell that does not have a nucleus

a)

Prokaryote

b)

Eukaryote

c)

Virus

107.

Which of the following is a viral infection?

a)

salmonella (food poisoning)

b)

influenza (Flu)

c)

strep throat (streptococcus)

108.

What do viruses need to reproduce?

a)

More viruses

b)

A host cell

c)

Bacteria

109.

What do viruses need to reproduce?

a)

More viruses

b)

A host cell

c)

Bacteria

110.

Which of the following is a risk of overusing antibiotics to treat infections>

a)

Bacteria may become resistant to antibiotics.

b)

Antibiotics increase the rate of infection.

c)

Antibiotics cause other diseases to develop.

111.

A bacterium reproduces asexually by dividing to form two new bacterial cells. What is the name of the process by which bacteria reproduce?

a)

meiosis

b)

budding

c)

binary fission

112.

Which statement is true about viruses?

a)

Viruses can eat and metabolize food.

b)

Viruses can reproduce only using a host cell.

c)

Viruses can reproduce on their own at any time.

113.

I’m a real “powerhouse.”

That’s plain to see.

I break down food

To release energy.

Who am I?

a)

mitochondria

b)

golgi body

c)

nucleus

d)

ribosome

114.
A(n) _____ is a virus that enters a bacterial cell.
a)
endospore
b)
decomposer
c)
plasmid
d)
bacteriophage
115.
Which viral life cycle allows viral genetic material to lay dormant while the host cell reproduces?
a)
lytic
b)
mitosis
c)
lysogenic
d)
S phase
116.
Which viral life cycle kills its host cell by lysing?
a)
lytic
b)
mitosis
c)
lysogenic
d)
S phase
117.
What is the 1st step of virus infection?
a)
Entry
b)
Attachment
c)
Replication
d)
Assembly
118.
Influenza infects a cell and causes it to lyse immediately. Which type of virus is influenza?
a)
Lytic
b)
Lysogenic
c)
Bacterial
d)
None of the above
119.

Vascular tissue (tubes) responsible for the transportation of water and minerals up from the roots and around the plant.

a)

Stomata

b)

Transpiration

c)

Phloem

d)

Xylem

120.

What vascular tissue carries organic nutrients "sugar" throughout the plant?

a)

Xylem

b)

Phloem

c)

Cones

d)

Leafs

121.

What 2 systems: Transports white blood cells throughout the body to fight disease

a)

Excretory and nervous

b)

Circulatory and immune

c)

Respiratory and nervous

d)

Digestive and immune

122.

Which two systems interact so the kidneys filter cellular waste out of blood for removal?

a)

circulatory and endocrine

b)

respiratory and circulatory

c)

digestive and respiratory

d)

circulatory and excretory

123.

increase the amount of sunlight plants absorb

a)

roots

b)

stems

c)

leaves

124.

What does xylem transport?

a)

Water and minerals

b)

Water only

c)

Sugar

d)

Food

125.

Water and minerals move in which direction within the plant

a)

Upward

b)

Down

126.

What does phloem transport?

a)

Water

b)

Minerals

c)

Fruit

d)

Sugar

127.
The plant tissue that carries food materials DOWNWARD from the leaves to the rest of the pant is the ______.
a)
Phloem
b)
Stomata
c)
Chlorophyll
d)
Xylem
128.

What is the stomata in plants?

a)

Large pores in the leaves

b)

The green pigment

c)

The chloroplast

d)

Tiny pores in the leaves

129.

The shoot system is the part of the plant that is ________________________________.

a)

below the ground

b)

above the ground

c)

in the water

d)

In the tree

130.
Against the concentration gradient
low to high uses energy/ATP
a)
facilitated diffusion
b)
osmosis
c)
active transport
d)
diffusion
131.
Allows certain molecules or ions to pass through it by diffusion and doesn't allow others.
a)
protein
b)
semi-permeable membrane
c)
isotonic
d)
homeostasis
132.
Particles are too large to enter the membrane.
Need help from channel proteins. No energy required.
a)
active transport
b)
passive transport
c)
facilitated diffusion
d)
osmosis
133.
Engulfs large molecules and moves them inside the membrane.
Uses energy.
a)
exocytosis
b)
endocytosis
c)
protein channel 
d)
diffusion
134.
Engulfing a large substance from the inside of the cell to move it outside of the cell. 
Uses energy. 
a)
exocytosis
b)
endocytosis
c)
photosynthesis
d)
diffusion
135.
Osmosis is the movement of 
a)
water from low to high concentration
b)
particles from low to high concentration
c)
water from high to low concentration
d)
particles from high to low concentration
136.
Diffusion is the movement of 
a)
water from low to high concentration
b)
particles from low to high concentration
c)
water from high to low concentration
d)
particles from high to low concentration
137.
A state of biological balance
a)
homeostasis
b)
hypertonic
c)
hypotonic
d)
hippocampus
138.
Particles move from high concentrations to low concentrations.
Doesn't need energy
a)
passive transport
b)
facilitated transport
c)
active transport
d)
exocytosis
139.
Against the concentration gradient
low to high uses energy/ATP
a)
facilitated diffusion
b)
osmosis
c)
active transport
d)
diffusion
140.
Which type of cell?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
141.
Which type of cell?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
142.
Which type of cell?
a)
Prokaryote
b)
Eukaryote
143.
Where is the DNA found in a eukaryotic cell? 
a)
floating around in the cytoplasm 
b)
in the nucleus 
144.

Prokaryotes do NOT have....

a)

membrane bound organelles

b)

DNA or RNA

c)

Cell membrane

d)

Life

145.
A fossilized cell is discovered, and evidence suggests it reproduced on its own and had DNA, but a membrane did not enclose its DNA. Which type of organism would this most likely be?
a)
prokaryote
b)
eukaryote
c)
plant cell
d)
animal cell
146.
Which RNA bases would pair with TAC  in transcription? 
a)
AUG
b)
ATG
c)
GCA
d)
GCA
147.
One difference between DNA and RNA is that....
a)
Only RNA has the base Uracil
b)
only RNA contains the base Thymine
c)
only RNA contains the base Cytocine
d)
only RNA contained the base Guanine
148.
A triplet (3 bases)  of mRNA is called a
a)
codon
b)
anticodon
c)
amino acid
d)
peptide bond
149.
What amino acid is represented by the codon CAG?
a)
Aspartic Acid
b)
Histidine
c)
Glutamine
d)
Methionine
150.

You can find DNA ONLY in...

a)

animals

b)

all living cells

c)

plants

d)

bacteria

151.

What is the backbone of DNA made of?

a)

glucose and sucrose

b)

amino acids and lipids

c)

deoxyribose (sugar) and phosphate

d)

carbon and helium

152.

What are the 4 nitrogenous bases?

a)

U T C G

b)

A T C G

c)

A C G R

d)

A T C P

153.

Adenine always binds with

a)

adenine

b)

thymine

c)

cytocine

d)

guanine

154.

Cytosine always binds with

a)

adenine

b)

thymine

c)

cytocine

d)

guanine

155.

The entire structure of DNA looks like a ladder twisted into a spiral. This shape is known as a

a)

double helix

b)

spun ladder

c)

spiralled

d)

DNA

156.

The process in sexual reproduction where chromosomes can swap sections during cell division?

a)

recombination

b)

meiosis

c)

mitosis

d)

asexual reproduction

157.

What cells does meiosis occur in?

a)

egg and sperm (sex cells)

b)

kidney cells

c)

somatic cells (body cells)

d)

skin cells

158.

When DNA nucleotides are removed from a genetic sequence?

a)

translocation

b)

insertion

c)

elimination

d)

deletion

159.

When nucleotides are added to a genetic sequence?

a)

deletion

b)

insertion

c)

substitution

d)

conversion

160.

What type of dominance is shown in the picture?

a)

Complete dominance

b)

Incomplete dominance

c)

Codominance

161.
Identify the homozygous dominant genotype:
a)
FF
b)
Ff
c)
ff
162.
In a heterozygous genotype, the ___________ allele takes over in the phenotype.
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
c)
lower case letter
d)
both 
163.
What you see, or the physical appearance.
a)
Genotype
b)
Phenotype
c)
Homozygous
d)
Heterozygous
164.

T - tall and t = short

In the punnett square below, what belongs in the missing square

a)

tt

b)

Tt

c)

Bb

d)

TT

165.

B = brown eyes

b = blue eyes

One brother has genotype BB and the other brother has genotype Bb.

Which statement is true about these two brothers?

a)

They have same phenotype and genotype

b)

They have different phenotypes and genotypes

c)

They have same phenotype, but different genotypes

d)

They have different phenotypes, but the same genotype

166.

The genotype Aa is called . . .

a)

Homozygous recessive

b)

Hybrid

c)

Purebred

d)

Homozygous dominant

167.

Which of the following genotypes is Purebred? Select 2 answers.

a)

aA

b)

Aa

c)

AA

d)

aa

168.

In a flowering plant species, red flower color (R) is dominant over white flower color (r). What is the genotype of any white-flowering plant resulting from this species?

a)

rr

b)

rR

c)

RR

d)

Rr

169.
Natural disasters such as flooding and tornadoes are linked to ________________.
a)
primary
b)
secondary
c)
old field
d)
ecosystem
170.
How do lichens contribute to primary succession?
a)
Lichens decompose organic matter from animals and plants
b)
Lichens begin to break down rock to form soil
c)
Lichens are nitrogen fixing bacteria
d)
Lichens convert carbohydrates into fossil fuels.
171.
What is formed during primary succession that doesn't need to be formed during secondary succession?
a)
pioneer species
b)
soil
c)
climax community
d)
lichens
172.
After a forest fire, an ecosystem would start regrowth through -
a)
primary succession
b)
secondary succession
c)
climax community
d)
limiting factors
173.
succession that occurs in an area with no soil
a)
ecological succession 
b)
primary succession 
c)
secondary succession
d)
pioneer speciles
174.

Which experiences the least change over time?

a)

Pioneer Species

b)

Primary Succession

c)

Aquatic Succession

d)

Climax Community

175.

Primary succession occurs in areas with:

a)

very little soil

b)

lots of soil

c)

no soil

d)

soil that has been disturbed

176.
What is the order of succession shown in this figure?
a)
A, B, C, D
b)
B, A, D, C
c)
C, D, A, B
d)
D, A, B, C
177.
What type of succession is shown going from figure A to figure B?
a)
primary succession
b)
ecological succession
c)
secondary succession
d)
intermediate
178.
What is the name given to lichen or algae after a primary succession?
a)
pioneer species
b)
volunteer species
c)
founder species
d)
conqueror species
179.
This is an example of...
a)
Climax communities
b)
Secondary succession
c)
Lichen
d)
Pioneer species
180.
Which cellular organelle is responsible for manufacturing ATP?
a)
Ribosome
b)
Nucleus
c)
Mitochondria
d)
Chloroplast
181.

Heterotrophs cannot

a)

make their own food

b)

consumer other organisms

182.

Heterotrophs are considered

a)

producers

b)

consumers

183.

An autotroph can

a)

not make its own food

b)

make its own food

c)

make plants

d)

make certain bacteria

184.

The greatest amount of ATP is produced during

a)

fermentation

b)

glycolysis

c)

anaerobic respiration

d)

aerobic respiration

185.

What are the REACTANTS for cellular respiration?

a)

oxygen and carbon dioxide

b)

water and glucose

c)

glucose and oxygen

186.

What is cellular respiration?

a)

the breakdown of glucose to release ATP

b)

the breakdown of glucose to release FADH

c)

the breakdown of glucose to release NADH

d)

the breakdown of glucose to release carbon

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