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Fire Safety Inspector, 8th Edition

Total questions: 100

Worksheet time: 58mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is one of the most important duties an inspector has when it comes to interacting with various officials and the general public about the basis and importance of the fire and life safety codes?

a)

Inspections

b)

Enforcement

c)

Investigations

d)

Communication

2.

Conversations that involve the exchange of detailed information or complete concentration should take place in:

a)

a public meeting

b)

front of witnesses

c)

a controlled environment

d)

an uncontrolled environment

3.

What is the best way to improve good listening skills?

a)

Practice

b)

Training

c)

Coaching

d)

Formal education

4.

What kind of communication is body language?

a)

Verbal

b)

Nonverbal

c)

Secondary

d)

Professional

5.

Primarily, administrative duties for inspectors include:

a)

custodial duties

b)

forensic investigation

c)

answering the phone

d)

preparing written communications

6.

The success of an inspection visit depends upon how familiar an inspector is with:

a)

model codes

b)

consensus standards

c)

the site being inspected

d)

the people who own the property

7.

The inspector should establish a " (a)   " method for conducting inspections in order to better identify unsafe conditions or behaviors.

8.

The most difficult aspect of dealing with people while conducting an inspection is:

a)

making appointments

b)

rescheduling inspections

c)

conducting violation discussions

d)

meeting people for the first time

9.

Follow-up inspections are made to verify that corrections noted in the inspection report have been:

a)

noted

b)

started

c)

completed

d)

issued permits

10.

What is the key to successfully handling any emergency, regardless of the type of occupancy?

a)

An effective emergency plan

b)

A convenient means of egress

c)

Effective training of owner/occupants

d)

Effective execution of an emergency plan

11.

Complaints that involve a serious life safety threat require:

a)

immediate action

b)

immediate research

c)

routine investigation

d)

effective execution of an emergency plan

12.

What must an inspector be prepared to deal with by business owner/occupants when they act on complaints?

a)

Pretext

b)

Legal action

c)

Physical harm

d)

Negative attitudes

13.

Which of the following is an area that fire department plans examiners are MOST likely trained in?

a)

Design and installation of electrical systems

b)

Design and installation of plumbing systems

c)

Zoning requirements of locally adopted codes

d)

Fire protection systems, including sprinklers, standpipes, and fire detection and alarm devices

14.

Which of the following statements about an Inspector I is MOST accurate?

a)

They are expected to perform plans review as a primary duty

b)

They do not perform, nor do they need to be familiar with, plans review

c)

They do not perform plans review when an Inspector II is unavailable

d)

They are not expected to perform plans review but must be familiar with the process

15.

Which of the following is the main reason local governments require construction permits and plans review?

a)

Collection of fees

b)

Community safety

c)

Show a need for specific positions

d)

Increase control within a community

16.

Which of the following is the BEST reason information about construction projects is useful?

a)

Collection of fines

b)

Reinforcement planning

c)

Release of community data

d)

Determining annual response fees

17.

An inspector should visit the site for fees to:

a)

collect any necessary fees on services

b)

spot approve any changes in the original plan

c)

determine whether OSHA violations are occurring

d)

verify each code requirement is being met based on the approved plan

18.

To ensure that fire and life safety requirements are met during construction, an inspector must verify:

a)

a reliable water supply

b)

mutual aid agreements

c)

manager/employee ratios

d)

trained fire protection personnel are on site

19.

During a construction site visit, if an inspector finds violations, the:

a)

financial backers should be notified

b)

general contractor should be notified

c)

building department should be notified

d)

local zoning department official should be notified

20.

When occupants remain in a building during construction, an inspector must verify:

a)

all means of egress are clear

b)

a building cannot exist positioned over floor

c)

occupants can monitor the building in under five minutes

d)

occupants can exit the building in under seven minutes

21.

Which fire alarm component serves as the brain of alarm systems?

a)

Initiating device

b)

Notifying appliance

c)

Fire alarm control unit (FACU)

d)

Secondary alarm power supply (SPS)

22.

How many types of specialty signals are most fire detection and alarm systems equipped with?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

23.

The type of fire detection and alarm system required depends upon the:

a)

age of the building

b)

budget of the owner/resident

c)

type of occupancy of the building

d)

location of nearest fire department

24.

What are alarm-initiating devices more commonly known as?

a)

Alarms

b)

Initiators

c)

Detectors

d)

Activators

25.

Which type of fire detection systems are among the oldest still in service?

a)

Heat detection devices

b)

Flame detection devices

c)

Smoke detection devices

d)

Combination detection devices

26.

Manual pull stations are usually _______ in color with white lettering that specifies what they are and how they are to be used.

a)

red

b)

blue

c)

black

d)

green

27.

Periodic testing of fire detection and alarm signaling systems is referred to as:

a)

Inspection

b)

Maintenance

c)

Testing

d)

Service

28.

Who has to test fire alarm systems on their own and document results?

a)

Occupants

b)

Fire inspectors

c)

Third-party experts

d)

Building contractors

29.

When should automatic alarm-initiating devices be checked?

a)

Annually

b)

After installation and every 5 years

c)

After installation, after a fire, and every 3 years

d)

After installation, after a fire, and at scheduled times based on guidelines

30.

If an alarm signaling system uses backup electrical generators, how long should a generator run under load for a monthly test?

a)

15 minutes

b)

30 minutes

c)

60 minutes

31.

Special-agent fire extinguishing systems are classified by the:

a)

type of occupancy

b)

type of fire they will extinguish

c)

type of agent used in the system

d)

amount of time it takes to expel the agent

32.

What type of special-agent fire extinguishing system is used when rapid fire extinguishment is required and where reignition is unlikely?

a)

Dry powder systems

b)

Clean agent systems

c)

Wet-chemical systems

d)

Dry-chemical systems

33.

What type of special-agent fire extinguishing system is used for combustible metal fires?

a)

Dry powder systems

b)

Clean agent systems

c)

Foam-chemical systems

d)

Dry-chemical systems

34.

Which special-agent fire extinguishing system is most effective on fires in commercial cooking equipment that produces grease-laden vapors?

a)

Dry powder systems

b)

Clean agent systems

c)

Dry-chemical systems

d)

Wet-chemical systems

35.

What general category of fire extinguishing agents effectively leaves no residue?

a)

Dry powder systems

b)

Clean agent systems

c)

Dry-chemical systems

d)

Carbon dioxide systems

36.

Which special-agent fire extinguishing system is extremely cold and can freeze exposed skin?

a)

Dry powder systems

b)

Clean agent systems

c)

Dry-chemical systems

d)

Carbon dioxide systems

37.

Which system is used when water alone may not be an effective fire extinguishing agent?

4 lines
38.

The value of a fire extinguisher lies in:

a)

how big it is

b)

its ease of use

c)

where it is located

d)

the speed with which it can be used

39.

Portable fire extinguishers are classified by the:

a)

type of fire they will extinguish

b)

type of agent used in the system

c)

amount of time it takes to expel the agent

d)

type of occupancy in which they are located

40.

How are portable fire extinguishers rated?

4 lines
41.

Which aspect of fire protection with portable fire extinguishers is essential, but often overlooked?

a)

Size

b)

Training

c)

Extinguisher capability

d)

Ensuring adequate placement

42.

For a fire suppression system to be effective, it must be reliable and:

a)

automatic

b)

inexpensive

c)

less than five years old

d)

less than ten years old

43.

Most fires in sprinkler-equipped structures are controlled by the operation of:

a)

all of the sprinklers

b)

one or two sprinklers

c)

at least fifty percent of the sprinklers

d)

at least seventy-five percent of the sprinklers

44.

Which automatic sprinkler system is typically provided in areas where freezing temperatures are likely to occur?

a)

Dry-pipe sprinkler system

b)

Wet-pipe sprinkler system

c)

One-time use sprinkler system

d)

Combination dry-pipe and wet-pipe system

45.

All sprinklers discharge water simultaneously in:

a)

deluge sprinkler systems

b)

dry-pipe sprinkler systems

c)

wet-pipe sprinkler systems

d)

preaction sprinkler systems

46.

Which of the following is a factor that determines the minimum waterflow required for an automatic sprinkler system?

a)

Cost

b)

Past history of fires

c)

Hazard being protected

d)

Mutual aid agreements

47.

Which of the following statements about waterflow control valves in automatic sprinkler systems is MOST accurate?

a)

They must be indicating-type valves

b)

They must be non-indicating-type valves

c)

They can be either indicating type or non-indicating type valves

d)

They can be any type of valve made by the sprinkler manufacturer

48.

Which operating valve is provided in automatic sprinkler systems to limit the flow of water to one direction?

a)

Drain valves

b)

Alarm valves

c)

Check-valves

d)

Drip check or drip ball valves

49.

Which method is the MOST accurate for determining the pipe diameters of automatic sprinkler system pipes?

a)

Previous usage

b)

Pipe schedule tables

c)

Hydraulic calculations

d)

Correlation of hazards

50.

Which type of automatic sprinkler is mounted horizontally from a wall face so that the deflector causes the water to be distributed in an arc over the protected area?

a)

Upright

b)

Sidewall

c)

Recessed

d)

Concealed

51.

Which type of automatic sprinkler is designed to direct 40 to 60 percent of its discharge in a downward direction?

a)

Extended coverage

b)

Old-style/conventional

c)

Quick-response application

d)

Control mode early suppression

52.

What is a primary concern for residential sprinkler systems installed according to NFPA® 13R?

a)

Life safety

b)

Installation cost

c)

Limitation of the sprinkler system

d)

Likelihood of false activation of the sprinkler system

53.

Which fire protection system discharges water over the area or surface of electrical equipment to be protected through an arrangement of pipes and nozzles?

a)

Spray

b)

Standpipe

c)

Foam

d)

Deluge

54.

Which fire protection system is considered a replacement for fixed fire suppression systems that used halogenated hydrocarbon agents?

a)

Water-mist system

b)

Foam-water system

c)

Combination system

d)

Water-spray fixed system

55.

Which fire protection system requires a proportioner?

a)

Water-mist system

b)

Foam-water system

c)

Combination system

d)

Water-spray fixed system

56.

Which classification of standpipe and hose systems is primarily for use by firefighters trained in handling large handlines (2½-inch [65 mm]) hose?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

57.

Which classification of standpipe and hose systems is designed to be used by both fire department personnel and trained building occupants?

a)

Class I

b)

Class II

c)

Class III

d)

Class IV

58.

Which type of standpipe system contains unpressurized air in pipes and has no permanent water supply?

a)

Manual-dry

b)

Manual-wet

c)

Automatic-dry

d)

Automatic-wet

59.

Which of the following is a reason for use of pressure regulating devices at hose outlets?

a)

Limit personnel required for hoselines

b)

Reduce monetary costs for water supplies

c)

Allow some fire protection requirements to be waived

d)

Prevent pressures that make fire hose difficult or dangerous to handle

60.

Which fire pump's main advantage is its compactness?

a)

End suction

b)

Vertical turbine

c)

Horizontal split-case

d)

Vertical split-case

61.

Which pump is very useful for lifting water from a source below the pump?

a)

End suction

b)

Vertical turbine

c)

Horizontal split-case

d)

Vertical split-case

62.

Public water supply distribution systems are usually a function of:

a)

fire departments

b)

local contractors

c)

local government

d)

state government

63.

What is the BEST method for evaluating the capabilities of a private water supply distribution system?

a)

Photographs

b)

In-person inspection

c)

Reviewing documentation

d)

Interviewing the property owner

64.

Which of the following is used to move water from treatment facilities to distribution and use points?

a)

Suction

b)

Reservoirs

c)

Pressure tanks

d)

Gravity systems

65.

A hydrant is a component of a water:

a)

supply source

b)

piping system

c)

distribution system

d)

secondary feeders system

66.

Which type of water main is small enough to serve individual fire hydrants?

a)

Distributors

b)

Primary feeders

c)

Secondary feeders

d)

Combination feeders

67.

Fire flow tests determine:

a)

the way a fire moves through a building

b)

the rate of fire flow available for fire suppression

c)

how many hydrants are needed on a residential street

d)

the optimum time period for fire suppression at a specific location

68.

To perform fire flow tests, an inspector must have the ability to:

a)

read a set of building plans

b)

operate a static pressure valve

c)

operate a pitot tube and gauge

d)

calculate the costs related to water use

69.

The easiest way to determine how much water is flowing from a hydrant outlet is to:

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70.

Residual pressure can be defined as enough " (a)   " to overcome friction in a hydrant, branch pipe, or intake hose.

71.

Which of the following precautions is crucial during a fire flow test?

a)

Traffic control

b)

Re-directing pedestrians

c)

Only conducting tests at peak hours

d)

Minimizing damage to public and private property

72.

Which method can be used to compute fire flow test results?

a)

Jacob method

b)

Graphical analysis

c)

Different equations

d)

Finite difference method

73.

Hazardous materials responses generally require that responding personnel be specifically trained and equipped to manage a(an):

a)

fire

b)

crowd

c)

chemical release

d)

emergency management plan

74.

Who in a business is responsible for understanding the hazards of storing, using, and handling hazardous materials?

a)

Fire inspector or city manager

b)

Fire department liaison or fire chief

c)

Fire inspector or emergency response coordinator

d)

Fire department liaison or emergency response coordinator

75.

Materials must be assigned the proper classification using the criteria in:

a)

state laws

b)

the adopted fire code

c)

manufacturer standards

d)

the facility emergency management plan

76.

When a material presents multiple hazards, fire codes require " (a)   " of the hazards be addressed.

77.

What can assist inspectors in determining the proper storage or handling procedures during inspections?

a)

Markings

b)

Personnel

c)

Third-party consultants

d)

Manufacturer instructions

78.

Which of the following is a detailed information bulletin prepared by the manufacturer or importer of a chemical to describe or give information about hazards?

a)

Marking

b)

Placard

c)

Safety data sheet

d)

Manufacturer label

79.

A material in a package that is static and not moving is defined as:

a)

Markings

b)

Personnel

c)

Third-party consultants

d)

Manufacturer instructions

80.

What sets limits for the amount of hazardous materials allowed inside a building?

a)

Model fire codes

b)

State/federal laws

c)

Safety data sheets

d)

Manufacturer's standards

81.

Packaging for hazardous materials is categorized into how many broad categories?

a)

Two

b)

Three

c)

Four

d)

Five

82.

When inspecting hazardous materials, it is important that the mechanical integrity and the tightness of the system are maintained to prevent ______.

a)

lawsuit

b)

citation

c)

cost overrun

d)

unauthorized discharge

83.

What is one of the most important ways in which an inspector can make a difference when it comes to unsafe behaviors?

a)

Allowing building managers to deal with them

b)

Repeatedly issuing citations to property owners

c)

Helping occupants/owners change unsafe behaviors

d)

Report unsafe behaviors to the appropriate authorities

84.

Oily rags in an open waste container is an example of which type of unsafe behavior?

a)

Inadequate housekeeping

b)

Improper ignition sources

c)

Unintentional storage of flammable liquids

d)

Improper storage of combustible liquids

85.

Leaving food unattended on a stove is an example of which of the following unsafe behaviors?

a)

Open burning

b)

Inadequate housekeeping

c)

Unintentional ignition sources

d)

Improper use of electrical equipment

86.

What is required by most model fire codes for individuals before open burning can take place?

a)

Permits

b)

Contracts

c)

Participant list

d)

Appropriate weather

87.

In addition to creating a potential ignition source, the improper use of electrical equipment also increases the ______.

a)

danger of electrocution or shock

b)

cost of electricity for the occupant

c)

likelihood of false smoke or fire alarms

d)

insurance costs for the property owner

88.

Using gasoline to ignite a solid fuel, such as charcoal, is an example of which unsafe behavior?

a)

Open burning

b)

Inadequate housekeeping

c)

Improper ignition sources

d)

Unintentional use and storage of flammable and combustible liquids

89.

As an SOP, the proper application of “ (a)   ” will reduce unsafe conditions.

90.

Detailed electrical inspections are typically the responsibility of qualified ______.

a)

fire inspectors

b)

electrical engineers

c)

electrical inspectors

d)

electrical contractors

91.

Which of the following statements about arcing is MOST accurate?

a)

It cannot ignite combustible materials

b)

It does not produce high temperatures

c)

It commonly occurs in new electrical equipment

d)

It is the movement of current between two electrodes or conductors

92.

Who is usually responsible for the design, installation, and maintenance of fire protection systems in retail outlets?

(a)  

93.

Which common storage method uses structural framework onto which pallets or other materials are placed?

a)

Store owners

b)

Occupants

c)

Common string

d)

Contractors

e)

Pallet storage

94.

Which common storage method gives a fire the least chance to develop?

a)

Solid piling

b)

Loose piling

c)

Rack storage

d)

Pallet storage

95.

Inspectors should review "_____" before conducting an inspection at a storage facility or retail outlet.

a)

building plans

b)

architect blueprints

c)

storage documentation

d)

manufacturer's recommendations

96.

It is critical that inspectors diligently inspect a warehouse's:

a)

smoke detectors

b)

architect blueprints

c)

ownership documentation

d)

automatic sprinkler system

97.

What is the primary hazard associated with lumberyards?

a)

High storage

b)

Rack failure

c)

Size of the lumberyard

d)

Unpredictable staff presence

98.

The majority of pallets are constructed of:

a)

paper

b)

metal

c)

plastic

d)

wood

99.

What are the two main hazards associated with recycling plants?

a)

High fuel loads and improper storage

b)

Bulk storage and hazardous processes

c)

Bulk storage and limited sight presence

d)

Hazardous processes and high fuel loads

100.

Which facilities present unique challenges due to the quantity of materials, the presence of treated and untreated materials, and the processes used on those materials?

a)

Lumberyards

b)

Warehouses

c)

Recycling facilities

d)

Waste-handling facilities