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hehe network+ quiz n10-008

Total questions: 157

Worksheet time: 1hrs 19mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which layer of the OSI model is responsible for providing the hardware means of sending and receiving data on a carrier?

a)

Layer 1 – Physical

b)

Layer 2 – Data link

c)

Layer 3 – Network

d)

Layer 4 – Transport

2.

What is the correct sequence of layers in the OSI model from the top layer to the bottom layer?

a)

Application, Presentation, Session, Transport, Network, Data link, Physical

b)

Physical, Data link, Network, Transport, Session, Presentation, Application

c)

Application, Presentation, Transport, Session, Network, Data link, Physical

d)

Presentation, Application, Session, Transport, Network, Data link, Physical

3.

Which of the following is a characteristic of a mesh network topology?

a)

Devices are connected to a central hub

b)

Each device is connected to every other device

c)

Devices are connected in a linear sequence

d)

Devices are connected in a closed loop

4.

What is the maximum size of data that can be transmitted at once referred to as in the OSI model context?

a)

Payload

b)

Ethernet header

c)

TCP flags

d)

Maximum transmission unit (MTU)

5.

Which of the following is a type of network that covers a large geographical area, often a country or continent?

a)

Local area network (LAN)

b)

Metropolitan area network (MAN)

c)

Wide area network (WAN)

d)

Personal area network (PAN)

6.

What is the term used for a network that connects computers across a city or a large campus?

a)

Local area network (LAN)

b)

Metropolitan area network (MAN)

c)

Wide area network (WAN)

d)

Campus area network (CAN)

7.

Which technology is used to create a virtual version of a computer hardware platform, operating system, storage device, or network resources?

a)

Hypervisor

b)

Virtual network interface card (vNIC)

c)

Network function virtualization (NFV)

d)

vSwitch

8.

What type of network is specifically designed to transmit data between storage devices and servers within an enterprise?

a)

Storage area network (SAN)

b)

Wide area network (WAN)

c)

Local area network (LAN)

d)

Personal area network (PAN)

9.

Which of the following is not a type of service-related entry point?

a)

Demarcation point

b)

Smartjack

c)

Hypervisor

d)

vSwitch

10.

Which category of twisted pair cable is the highest mentioned in the image?

a)

Cat 5

b)

Cat 6a

c)

Cat 7

d)

Cat 8

11.

What does the termination standard TIA/EIA-568B specify?

a)

A type of fiber cable

b)

A type of coaxial cable

c)

A connector type

d)

A cabling standard

12.

Which of the following is not a type of fiber mentioned in the image?

a)

Single-mode

b)

Multimode

c)

Coaxial

d)

Twisted pair

13.

What type of connector is RJ45?

a)

Fiber connector

b)

Coaxial cable connector

c)

Twisted pair cable connector

d)

Transceiver

14.

Which of the following is a type of transceiver mentioned in the image?

a)

F-type connector

b)

RJ11

c)

Small form-factor pluggable (SFP)

d)

TIA/EIA-568A

15.

Which of the following is not a type of punchdown block listed in the cable management section?

a)

66

b)

110

c)

Krone

d)

101

16.

What Ethernet standard is categorized under copper and supports a transmission rate of 10 Gbps?

a)

10BASE-T

b)

100BASE-TX

c)

1000BASE-T

d)

10GBASE-T

17.

Which of the following is a standard for fiber optic Ethernet?

a)

100BASE-TX

b)

1000BASE-LX

c)

10GBASE-T

d)

40GBASE-T

18.

What does CWDM stand for in the context of Ethernet standards for fiber?

a)

Coarse wavelength division multiplexing

b)

Compact wavelength division multiplexing

c)

Combined wavelength division multiplexing

d)

Clear wavelength division multiplexing

19.

Which RFC is mentioned in the section about configuring a subnet and using appropriate IP addressing schemes?

a)

RFC1918

b)

RFC1928

c)

RFC1981

d)

RFC1991

20.

A target wireless client has been disconnected from the company AP and associated with a rogue device. What has most likely occurred?

a)

Disassociation

b)

Propagation

c)

Incorrect AP placement

d)

Misconfigured parameter

21.

To maintain coverage between areas, you need to have overlapped coverage areas among wireless APs using nonoverlapping channels. In the United States, what channels in the 2.4GHz band of frequencies should you use?

a)

CSMA/CA channels

b)

1, 6, and 11

c)

EIRP channels

d)

2, 7, and 12

22.

Which of the following should you consider conducting before designing and deploying a high-performance WLAN infrastructure?

a)

Site survey

b)

Reconnaissance

c)

Nmapping

d)

Port scan

23.

What is the name for a web page that is presented to wireless clients seeking access to a network?

a)

Authentication server

b)

Captive portal

c)

Self-registration gateway

d)

Supplicant client

24.

A satellite dish antenna is an example of what type of wireless antenna?

a)

Omnidirectional

b)

Integrated

c)

Beam-focused

d)

Unidirectional

25.

Which metric provides the best idea of how a wireless network is actually performing?

a)

Throughput

b)

Speed

c)

Relative jitter

d)

Availability

26.

Which of the following is a value measuring the power of a wireless signal?

a)

RSSI

b)

SSID

c)

RFI

d)

CSMA/CA

27.

Which of the following is often the first step in a structured troubleshooting methodology?

a)

Hypothesize the probable cause.

b)

Create an action plan

c)

Create a postmortem report.

d)

Define the problem.

28.

You have verified full system functionality and implemented preventive measures. What should you do next?

a)

Question the obvious and duplicate the problem.

b)

Create a differential backup plan

c)

Document findings, actions, outcomes, and lessons learned.

d)

Gather information and create a baseline.

29.

What step is most likely to follow the “create an action plan” step in a structured troubleshooting methodology?

a)

Verify problem resolution.

b)

Test the hypothesis.

c)

Define the problem

d)

Hypothesize the possible cause.

30.

What type of cloud solution would be used to implement a SAN?

a)

Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)

b)

Software as a service (SaaS)

c)

Platform as a Service (PaaS)

31.

A service offered over the Internet by cloud service providers (CSPs) to cloud consumers, often referred to as tenants

a)

Public (or multitenant)

b)

Private

c)

Community

d)

Hybrid

32.

A technician boots a server from USB media and installs a virtualization product. What type of hypervisor is being used?

a)

Type 1

b)

Type 2

c)

Type 3

d)

Type 4

33.

An infrastructure technician has been asked to allow communication between a set of Virtual Machines. What might they add to the virtual machines to allow this?

a)

Physical network adaptor

b)

Dynamic storage

c)

virtual storage

d)

virtual network adaptor

34.

Cloud service QoS is determined by

a)

The quality of the service provider

b)

the quality of the communications provider

c)

the quality of the application provider

d)

all of the above

35.

End users use software located within the cloud

a)

Saas

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

SecaaS

36.

Computing platforms are available through the cloud

a)

Saas

b)

PaaS

c)

IaaS

d)

SecaaS

37.

XaaS stands for

a)

Mentor as a service

b)

Everything as a service

c)

xylophones as a service

d)

none of the above

38.

What is PaaS?

a)

Portfolio as a service

b)

Platform and architecture Security

c)

Personnel as a service

d)

Platform as a Service

39.

In SDN this applies the business logic to make decisions about how

traffic should be prioritized and secured and where it should be switched.

a)

Application layer

b)

Infrastructure layer

40.

You need a network that provides centralized authentication for your users.

a)

VLANs

b)

Peer-to-Peer

c)

Client-Server

d)

Mesh

41.

Which of the following physical topologies has the most connections and is the least popular?

a)

Star

b)

Ring

c)

Mesh

d)

Bus

42.

A SOHO can be at a home

a)

True

b)

False

c)

Soho is in NY......

43.

When data is encapsulated, which is the correct order?

a)

Data --> Frame --> Packet --> Segment --> Bits

b)

Segment --> Data --> Packet --> Frame --> Bits

c)

Data --> Segment --> Packet --> Frame --> Bits

d)

Data --> Segment --> Frame --> Packet --> Bits

44.

At which layer of the OSI model would you find IP?

a)

Transport

b)

Network

c)

Data Link

d)

Carter

45.

Is data transported as bits in the Physical layer?

a)

Yes

b)

No

c)

I don't remember

d)

What is data?

46.

Understanding the OSI model assists with troubleshooting network problems.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

What does OSI stand for?

a)

Open Service Interconnection

b)

Open System Interconnection

c)

Open System Internet

d)

Only System Interconnection

48.

The network layer uses physical addresses to route data to destination hosts?

a)

True

b)

False

49.

Which of the following is a concern when using peer-to-peer networks?

a)

Where to place the server

b)

Whose computer is least busy and can act as the server

c)

The security associated with such a network

d)

Having enough peers to support creating such a network

50.

You want to have a mechanism that automates IP. Which protocol will you use to accomplish this?

a)

SMTP

b)

SNMP

c)

DHCP

d)

ARP

51.

Which model has the most layers?

a)

OSI

b)

TCP/IP Model

c)

Mentor's have layers.

d)

Onions have layers.

52.

22

a)

SSH

b)

Telnet

c)

HHS

d)

LDAP

53.

53

a)

SSH

b)

DNS

c)

SMTP

d)

RDP

54.

25

a)

SSH

b)

POP

c)

SMTP

d)

DHCP

55.

22

a)

SSH

b)

RDP

c)

SMB

d)

DNS

56.

20

a)

LDAP

b)

HTTP

c)

FTP

d)

OPP

57.

21

a)

LDAP

b)

HTTP

c)

IMAP

d)

FTP

58.

69

a)

TFTP

b)

NTP

c)

FTP

d)

SFTP

59.

23

a)

H.323

b)

NTP

c)

SSH

d)

Telnet

60.

67

a)

DNS

b)

DHCP

c)

LDAP

d)

POP

61.

80

a)

HTTPS

b)

HTTP

c)

RDP

d)

POP

62.

443

a)

NTP

b)

HTTPS

c)

SNMP

d)

RDP

63.

In routers, packet switching takes place using a CPU, but in a layer 3 switch handles this using application-specific integrated circuit hardware (ASIC).

a)

True

b)

False

64.

On an Ethernet switched network, what address does one host computer use to communicate with another?

a)

IP

b)

MAC

c)

Street

d)

HUB

65.

Which of the following devices can work at both Layers 2 and 3 of the OSI model?

a)

Hub

b)

Switch

c)

Bridge

d)

Layer 3 Switch

66.

Which should be used if you need to send packets to one or more machines that are hidden behind a single IP Address?

a)

Switch

b)

Load Balancer

c)

Hub

d)

Repeater

67.

Switches that are connected together to work as a group

a)

Unmanaged

b)

Stackable

c)

Modular

d)

Fixed

68.

Switch operates right out of the box without additional configurations being made

a)

Unmanaged

b)

Stackable

c)

Modular

d)

Fixed

69.

Protocol that causes network switches to organize into a hierarchical structure

a)

STP

b)

OPP

c)

DNS

d)

HTTP

70.

Maintains a routing table of networks it is connected

a)

Router

b)

Switch

c)

Hub

d)

VPN

71.

This is called routing by rumor

a)

Distance Vector

b)

Link State

72.

Based on the Data Over Cable Service Interface Specification

a)

DSL Router

b)

Cable Router

c)

Modem

d)

Traffic Shaper

73.

1+1=

a)

2

b)

00000001

c)

000000101

d)

10000000

74.

What is the security mechanism behind WPA3?

a)

SAE

b)

CCMP

c)

TKIP

d)

passphrase

75.

What is the security mechanism behind WPA2?

a)

SAE

b)

CCMP

c)

TKIP

d)

passphrase

76.

What is the security mechanism behind WPA?

a)

SAE

b)

CCMP

c)

TKIP

d)

passphrase

77.

What type of antenna, used in wireless APs and wireless routers in SOHO locations, radiates power equally in all directions?

a)

Unidirectional

b)

Yagi

c)

Parabolic

d)

Omnidirectional

78.

Long-distance point-to-point links.

a)

Unidirectional

b)

Yagi

c)

Parabolic

d)

Omnidirectional

79.

Multiple parallel rods mounted on a central spine, are strongly directional but usually less so than parabolic dishes

a)

Unidirectional

b)

Yagi

c)

Parabolic

d)

Omnidirectional

80.

A device that coordinates all communications between wireless devices, as well as the connection to the wired network.

a)

Access Point

b)

Router

c)

Switch

d)

Hub

81.

One of the dangers with these phones is cell phone cloning, a process where copies of the SIM chip are made, allowing another user to make calls as the original user

a)

GSM

b)

FDMA

c)

TDMA

d)

CDMA

82.

Works without an Access Point

a)

AD Hoc

b)

Infrastructure

83.

Class C

a)

1-126

b)

128-191

c)

192-223

d)

192-224

84.

IPv6

a)

Binary

b)

Hexadecimal

85.

IPv4

a)

Binary

b)

Hexadecimal

86.

You can't get to Twitch.tv to see your instructor streaming. You check you IP address and it starts with 169.254

a)

APIPA

b)

Beth hacked you

c)

DNS is down

d)

I don't remember....

87.

_____ uses TCP port 22.

a)

SFTP

b)

FTP

c)

TFTP

d)

AJ

88.

22

a)

SSH

b)

Telnet

c)

HHS

d)

LDAP

89.

53

a)

SSH

b)

DNS

c)

SMTP

d)

RDP

90.

25

a)

SSH

b)

POP

c)

SMTP

d)

DHCP

91.

22

a)

SSH

b)

RDP

c)

SMB

d)

DNS

92.

20

a)

LDAP

b)

HTTP

c)

FTP

d)

OPP

93.

21

a)

LDAP

b)

HTTP

c)

IMAP

d)

FTP

94.

69

a)

TFTP

b)

NTP

c)

FTP

d)

SFTP

95.

23

a)

H.323

b)

NTP

c)

SSH

d)

Telnet

96.

67

a)

DNS

b)

DHCP

c)

LDAP

d)

POP

97.

80

a)

HTTPS

b)

HTTP

c)

RDP

d)

POP

98.

443

a)

NTP

b)

HTTPS

c)

SNMP

d)

RDP

99.

Not really used

a)

6to4

b)

4to6

100.

Used with Windows

a)

Teredo

b)

Miredo

101.

Used with Linux/UNIX

a)

Teredo

b)

Miredo

102.

IPV6 addresses

a)

12 bit

b)

32 bit

c)

64 bit

d)

128 bit

103.

This is an agreement between two or more organizations that details a common line of action

a)

MOU

b)

NDA

c)

SLA

d)

OPP

104.

All scenarios in which contractors and other third parties must execute a nondisclosure agreement are defined

a)

MOU

b)

NDA

c)

SLA

d)

OPP

105.

This is an agreement that defines the allowable time in which a party must respond to issues on behalf of the other party

a)

MOU

b)

NDA

c)

SLA

d)

OPP

106.

SNMP uses which 2 ports?

a)

161, 162

b)

160, 161

c)

389, 3389

d)

20, 21

107.

Scans and captures packets

a)

Wireshark

b)

Nmap

c)

WinPcap

d)

Nessus

108.

A smartphone/tablet provisioning model that allows users to select a personal device to use to interact with corporate network services and cloud apps.

a)

BYOD

b)

DLP

c)

COPE

d)

SaaS

109.

If a network has five nines availability, how much downtime does it experience per year?

a)

30 Seconds

b)

5 Minutes

c)

12 Minutes

d)

26 Minutes

110.

What type of site provides a nearly identical level of service to the organization’s main site, with virtually no downtime?

a)

Warm

b)

Hot

c)

Cold

d)

Remote

111.

In order to measure high availability (HA), you need to know the average amount of time that passes between hardware component failures. What is this called?

a)

MTTR

b)

RPO

c)

RTO

d)

MTBF

112.

You are tasked with locating a backup facility for your organization to use in the event of a disaster. You have a slim budget, and the facility needs to include electricity, bathrooms, and space. Which type of recovery site suits your requirements?

a)

Hot

b)

Cold

c)

Warm

d)

Cloud

113.

Scenario

Greene City Interiors is an interior design firm with several offices in the metro Greene City area, along with several suppliers in the region.

The network administrator at Greene City Interiors describes different Greene City Interiors offices and wants you to identify the type of each network.


The Greene City Interiors headquarters occupies four floors in their building. What category does this network fit into?

a)

LAN

b)

WAN

c)

CAN

d)

MAN

114.

Scenario

Greene City Interiors is an interior design firm with several offices in the metro Greene City area, along with several suppliers in the region.

The network administrator at Greene City Interiors describes different Greene City Interiors offices and wants you to identify the type of each network.

Greene City Interiors has a remote office that accesses its corporate office with relatively high bandwidth. Which network category does it use?

a)

LAN

b)

WAN

c)

CAN

d)

MAN

115.

What layer transmits bits from one device to another and regulates the transmission stream over a medium?

a)

Physical

b)

Network

c)

Transport

d)

Data Link

116.

Which OSI layer is responsible for establishing connections between two devices?

a)

Transport

b)

Presentation

c)

Application

d)

Physical

e)

Data link

117.

True or False? Multicasting is more efficient in the use of network media than unicast transmission when many clients need to receive the same information from a server.

a)

True

b)

False

118.

Which of the following documents describes the concept of private IP addressing?

a)

RFC 4949

b)

RFC 1918

c)

RFC 1208

d)

RFC 1983

119.

Which of the following solutions alleviates the problem of the depleting IPv4 address space by allowing multiple hosts on the same private LAN to share a single public IP address?

a)

DNS

b)

APIPA

c)

NAT

d)

DHCP

120.

Which of the following solutions below hides the internal IP addresses by modifying IP address information in IP packet headers while in transit across a traffic routing device?

a)

QoS

b)

DHCP

c)

NAT

d)

DNS

121.

An extension to network address translation (NAT) that permits multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) to be mapped to a single public IP address. The goal being to conserve IP addresses.

a)

PAT

b)

NAC

c)

DNS

d)

ARP

122.

An IPv4 address consists of:

a)

32 bits

b)

48 bits

c)

64 bits

d)

128 bits

123.

Which of the answers listed below refers to a binary representation of the decimal number 192?

a)

10101100

b)

11000000

c)

01100010

d)

10101010

124.

IPv4 addresses are expressed with the use of:

a)

Octagonal numbers

b)

Binary numbers

c)

Hexadecimal numbers

d)

Decimal numbers

125.

Which of the following answers lists a decimal notation of the binary number 10101100?

a)

168

b)

172

c)

192

d)

224

126.

An IPv6 address consists of:

a)

32 bits

b)

48 bits

c)

64 bits

d)

128 bits

127.

IPv6 addresses are expressed with the use of:

a)

Octagonal numbers

b)

Binary numbers

c)

Hexadecimal numbers

d)

Decimal numbers

128.

A double colon in an IPv6 address indicates that part of the address containing only zeros has been compressed to make the address shorter.

a)

True

b)

False

129.

Automatic Private IP Addressing (APIPA) allows a Windows host to self-configure an IPv4 address and subnet mask when Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) is unavailable. APIPA uses an address block range between 169.254.0.0 and 169.254.255.255. APIPA-assigned addresses are valid only for communications within a network segment that a given host is connected to (a host with APIPA-assigned address cannot connect to the Internet).

a)

True

b)

False

130.

A type of network traffic intended for a particular group of hosts is called:

a)

Unicast

b)

Anycast

c)

Multicast

d)

Broadcast

131.

A type of network traffic intended for a single host identified by a unique IP address is referred to as:

a)

Unicast

b)

Anycast

c)

Multicast

d)

Broadcast

132.

Which of the following answers refers to an IPv6-only, one-to-nearest data transmission type?

a)

Unicast

b)

Anycast

c)

Multicast

d)

Broadcast

133.

A networked host with unknown IPv4 address can be reached via:

a)

Unicast

b)

Anycast

c)

Multicast

d)

Broadcast

134.

An IPv6 link-local address is an equivalent of IPv4's:

a)

APIPA address

b)

Routable IP address

c)

Public IP address

d)

MAC address

135.

Which of the answers listed below refers to an IPv6 link-local address?

a)

2002::/16

b)

FE80::/10

c)

2001::/32

d)

::1/128

136.

Which of the following answers refers to an IPv4 loopback address?

a)

169.254/16

b)

FE80::/10

c)

0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1

d)

127.0.0.1

137.

Which of the following answers refer to IPv6 loopback addresses?

a)

0:0:0:0:0:0:0:1

OR

::1

b)

127.0.0.1

OR

127::1

c)

169.254/16

d)

FE80::/10

138.

In a network using subnets, the term "Default gateway" refers to a network device that enables exchange of data between hosts residing in different subnets.

a)

True

b)

False

139.

Which of the following allows to determine which network segment an IP address belongs to?

a)

Physical address

b)

Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)

c)

Address Resolution Protocol (ARP)

d)

Subnet mask

140.

What is the name of a solution that increases the efficiency of IP address space management by allowing network administrators to divide networks into subnets of variable sizes?

a)

DNAT

b)

VLSM

c)

MPLS

d)

VLAN

141.

Which of the following answers refer to the characteristic features of the 10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 (10.0.0.0/8) IPv4 address space?

a)

Class A range

Non-routable (private) IP address range

b)

Class B range

c)

Class C range

d)

Class E range

142.

Which of the answers listed below refer to the 172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 (172.16.0.0/12) IPv4 address space?

a)

Class A range

b)

Class B range

c)

Class C range

d)

Class D range

143.

The class for 192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 (192.0.0.0/16) IPv4 address range is?

a)

Class A range

b)

Class B range

c)

Class C range

d)

Class E range

144.

Which of the following answers refers to an IPv4 address range used for loopback addresses?

a)

127.0.0.0 – 127.255.255.255 (127.0.0.0/8)

b)

0.0.0.0 – 0.255.255.255 (0.0.0.0/8)

c)

169.254.0.0 – 169.254.255.255 (169.254.0.0/16)

d)

240.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.254 (240.0.0.0/4)

145.

Which of the answers listed below refers to an IPv4 address range reserved for future use?

a)

240.0.0.0 – 255.255.255.254 (240.0.0.0/4)

b)

192.168.0.0 - 192.168.255.255 (192.0.0.0/24)

c)

172.16.0.0 - 172.31.255.255 (172.16.0.0/12)

d)

10.0.0.0 - 10.255.255.255 (10.0.0.0/8)

146.

In IPv4 addressing, the leading octet of an IP address with a value of 1 through 126 denotes that the IP address within that range belongs to the:

a)

Class A address space

b)

Class B address space

c)

Class C address space

d)

Class D address space

147.

Which of the answers listed below refers to an example of a valid subnet mask?

a)

255.255.225.0

b)

255.255.191.0

c)

255.255.127.0

d)

None

148.

Which of the following answers lists the default (classful) subnet mask for a class A network?

a)

255.0.0.0

b)

255.128.0.0

c)

224.0.0.0

d)

255.224.0.0

149.

What is the leading octet value range for an IPv4 address belonging to a class B network?

a)

240 - 254

b)

128 - 191

c)

1 - 126

d)

192 - 223

150.

Which of the following answers lists the default (classful) subnet mask for a class B network?

a)

255.252.0.0

b)

255.255.0.0

c)

255.248.0.0

d)

255.224.0.0

151.

In IPv4 addressing, the leading octet of an IP address with a value of 192 through 223 denotes that the IP address within that range belongs to the:

a)

Class A

b)

Class B

c)

Class C

d)

Class D

152.

Which of the answers listed below refers to the default (classful) subnet mask for a class C network?

a)

255.255.192.0

b)

255.255.224.0

c)

255.255.255.0

d)

255.255.252.0

153.

Which of the answers listed below refers to a solution that replaces the classful network design?

a)

VLAN

b)

RSTP

c)

SNAT

d)

CIDR

154.

What is the first valid host address that can be assigned to a node residing in the 10.119.136.143/20 network?

a)

10.119.96.1

b)

10.119.128.1

c)

10.119.132.1

d)

10.119.136.1

155.

A limited IPv4-to-IPv6 transition mechanism that allows for encapsulation of IPv6 packets in IPv4 packets transmitted over IPv4 networks is referred to as:

a)

6to4

b)

802.3af

c)

eDiscovery

d)

Miredo

156.

An IPv4-to-IPv6 transition mechanism with native support for Network Address Translation (NAT) is known as:

a)

6to4

b)

Teredo

c)

eDiscovery

d)

Miredo

157.

The term "Dual-stack IP" refers to a solution that relies on implementing both IPv4 and IPv6 protocol stacks on various network devices to facilitate seamless migration from IPv4 to IPv6.

a)

True

b)

False

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