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AP Unit 6 Test Review

Total questions: 70

Worksheet time: 1hrs 6mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Prokaryotic organisms typically have ________ chromosomes, while eukaryotic organisms typically have multiple ________ chromosomes.

a)

linear, circular

b)

circular, linear

2.

Small, circular, double-stranded DNA molecules that carry accessory genes separate from those of a bacterial chromosome are called what?

a)

Plasmids

b)

Nucleoids

c)

Ribosomes

d)

RNA's

3.

Eukaryotic DNA is located in

a)

the nucleus

b)

the cytoplasm

c)

anywhere in the cell

4.

Which is NOT correct according to base pair rules?

a)

Adenine - Thymine

b)

Cytosine - Guanine

c)

Adenine - Guanine

d)

Adenine - Uracil

5.

Adenine and Guanine have a double ring structure, so they are called what?

a)

Pyrimidines

b)

Purines

6.

Cytosine, Thymine and Uracil have a single ring structure, so they are called what?

a)

Pyrimidines

b)

Purines

c)

Puritans

7.

Cytosine makes up 38% of the nucleotides in a sample of DNA from an organism.

Approximately what percentage of the nucleotides in this sample will be thymine?

a)

12%

b)

24%

c)

31%

d)

38%

8.

What type of bond holds nitrogen bases to one another forming the "rungs" of the DNA ladder?

a)

Covalent

b)

Hydrogen

c)

Ionic

d)

Phosphodiester

9.

What famous scientists built the first double helix model of DNA?

a)

Hershey & Chase

b)

Avery & MacLeod

c)

Watson & Crick

d)

Wilkins & Franklin

10.

Which of the following best describes the DNA molecules produced by replication

a)

One DNA molecule with two original strands, and a second DNA molecule with two new strands

b)

Two DNA molecules, each containing one original strand and one new strand

11.

In DNA Replication, which enzyme helps synthesize new strands of DNA?

a)

Helicase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA Polymerase III

d)

DNA Polymerase I

12.

In DNA Replication, which enzyme unwinds the DNA strands by breaking hydrogen bonds between base pairs?

a)

Helicase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA Polymerase

d)

Ligase

13.

In DNA Replication, which enzyme joins the fragments on the lagging strand?

a)

Helicase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA Polymerase

d)

Ligase

14.

In DNA Replication, relaxes supercoiling in front of the replication fork?

a)

Helicase

b)

Topoisomerase

c)

DNA Polymerase

d)

Ligase

15.

DNA is synthesized in the _________________ direction

a)

3' to 5'

b)

5' to 3'

16.

In DNA Replication, which strand is formed continuously?

a)

Leading

b)

Lagging

17.

In DNA Replication, which strand is formed in Okazaki fragments?

a)

Leading

b)

Lagging

18.

Which of the following demonstrates base pairing rules to 5' - CAGGT - 3'?

a)

3' - TGGAC - 5'

b)

3' - GTCCA - 5'

c)

5' - GTCCA - 3'

d)

5' - CAGGT - 3'

19.
What is the flow of genetic information in cells from DNA to protein? (Central Dogma)
a)

RNA --> DNA --> protein

b)

DNA --> RNA --> protein

c)

protein--> DNA--> RNA

d)

RNA --> protein--> DNA

20.

During _____________ Genetic instructions in DNA are rewritten into a messenger RNA molecule.

a)

RNA processing

b)

Transcription

c)

Translation

21.
Where does transcription occur in eukaryotic cells?
a)
Nucleus
b)
Ribosome
c)
Cytoplasm
d)
Rough E.R.
22.

Which of the following is the enzyme used in the process of transcription?

a)

DNA polymerase

b)

RNA polymerase

c)

Primase

d)

Helicase

23.

Explain the process of transcription INITIATION in eukaryotes.

a)

Replication of DNA

b)

Degradation of RNA by ribonucleases

c)

Assembly of transcription factors and RNA polymerase at the promoter region of the gene

d)

Translation of mRNA into protein

24.

What is the name of the promoter region of a gene in Eukaryotes?

a)

TATA box

b)

Promoter

c)

Initiation Section

d)

RNA Polymerase

25.
RNA polymerase moves in which direction along the DNA?
a)
5' to 3' 
b)
3' to 5' along the template strand
c)
3' to 5' along nontemplate(coding) strand
d)
5' to 3' along the template strand
26.
Which RNA bases would pair with TACGAA in transcription? 
a)
AUGCUU
b)
ATGCTT
c)
GCATCC
d)
GCAUCC
27.

Which of the following is the mRNA START codon?

a)

UGA

b)

AUG

c)

GUA

d)

GAU

28.
The production of mature mRNA in eukaryotes involves
a)
cutting introns out and spicing exons together
b)
adding the 5' cap
c)
adding the 3' poly A tail
d)
all of these are correct
29.
The parts of a gene that do NOT code for amino acids in a protein are called
a)
introns
b)
exons
c)
codons
d)
anticodons
30.

What is RNA splicing and why is it important in gene expression?

a)

RNA splicing is the process of removing introns and joining exons in a pre-mRNA molecule, and it is important in gene expression because it allows for the production of multiple proteins from a single gene.

b)

RNA splicing is the process of adding introns to a pre-mRNA molecule, and it is important in gene expression because it reduces the diversity of proteins produced.

31.

During _____________ tRNA brings amino acids to a ribosome where they are assembled into a polypeptide.

a)

Transcription

b)

Translation

32.
Translation is performed by:
a)

Ribosomes 

b)

Mitochondria

c)

Nucleus

d)

Endoplasmic Reticulum 

33.
Translation is crucial to the process of making proteins. Which statement best describes what takes place during translation? 
a)
A copy of chromosomal DNA is created 
b)
Information in mRNA is converted into a sequence of amino acids in a protein 
c)
A RNA copy of a DNA strand is made.
d)
Instructions from DNA in the nucleus are brought to the cytoplasm 
34.
The anticodon of a particular tRNA molecule is 
a)
complementary to the corresponding mRNA codon.
b)
complementary to the corresponding triplet in rRNA.
c)
the part of tRNA that bonds with a specific amino acid.
d)
catalytic, making the tRNA a ribozyme.
35.

Which of the following describes the conversion factor between nucleic acids and proteins?

a)

3 amino acids = 1 nucleotide

b)

3 amino acids = 3 nucleotides

c)

3 nucleotides = 1 amino acid

d)

3 nucleotides = 3 amino acids

36.

What is the function of the P site in the large subunit?

a)

To phosphorylate the polypeptide

b)

To hold the growing polypeptide

c)

To assist with the tertiary structure of the polypeptide

d)

To perform the base pairing for the polypeptide

37.

Which of the following shows the steps of translation in proper order from start to finish?

a)

Initiation, Elongation, Termination

b)

Elongation, Initiation, Termination

c)

Termination, Initiation, Elongation

38.

Which of the following events in translation occurs during INITIATION in eukaryotes?

a)
elongation of the polypeptide
b)
base pairing of activated methionine-tRNA to AUG of the messenger RNA
c)
binding of the larger ribosomal subunit to smaller ribosomal subunits
d)

the small subunit of the ribosome recognizing and attaching to the 5'cap of mRNA

39.

Which of the following describes the process of elongation?

a)

Codon recognition, peptide bond formation, translocation

b)

Anticodon recognition, ionic bond formation, translocation

c)

Codon recognition, ionic bond formation, translocation

d)

Anticodon recognition, peptide bond formation, translocation

40.
What is a peptide bond?
a)
Bond that holds two amino acids together.
b)
A bond that holds hydrogen and oxygen molecules together.
c)
A bond that holds the phosphate group of one nucleotide and a sugar of a neighboring nucleotide.
d)
A bond that is formed by the sharing of electrons.
41.

What signals the end of translation (termination)?

a)

Start Codon

b)

AUG

c)

Stop Codon

d)

Polyadenylation Signal Sequence

42.
The genetic code is essentially the same for all organisms. From this, one can logically assume which of the following?
a)
The same codons in different organisms translate into the different amino acids.
b)

A gene from an organism can theoretically be expressed by any other organism (common ancestry)

c)
All organisms have experienced convergent evolution.
d)
DNA was the first genetic material.
43.

True or False: All of your body cells contain the same genes.

a)

True

b)

False

44.

Muscle cells differ from nerve cells mainly because they

a)

express different genes.

b)

contain different genes.

c)

use different genetic codes.

d)

have unique ribosomes

45.

Which of the following biotechnologies allow for amplification (replication) of a DNA fragment?

a)

DNA sequencing

b)

Gel electrophoresis

c)

Polymerase chain reaction

d)

Bacterial transformation

46.

Which of the following biotechnologies is responsible for determining the order of nucleotides in a DNA molecule?

a)

DNA sequencing

b)

Gel electrophoresis

c)

Polymerase Chain Reaction

d)

Bacterial transformation

47.
Gel electrophoresis enables scientists to
a)
separate DNA fragments.
b)
combine DNA fragments.
c)
count the genes in DNA.
d)
insert DNA in cells.
48.

In gel electrophoresis, the largest DNA fragment will appear

a)

closest to the starting wells

b)

farthest from the starting wells

c)

three quarters away from the starting wells

d)

it depends on how many fragments there are

49.

Which kitten is most likely the offspring of this cat?

a)

1

b)

2

c)

3

d)

4

50.

Operons are found in the cells of which of the following types of organisms?

a)

prokaryotes

b)

eukaryotes

c)

animals only

d)

viruses

51.

What is 1 in the diagram?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

Inducer

c)

Repressor

d)

Operator

52.

What is 2 in the diagram?

a)

RNA polymerase

b)

Inducer

c)

Repressor

d)

Operator

53.

A protein that binds to the operator an operon and blocks the RNA polymerase from transcription.

a)
regulator
b)
repressor
c)
activator
d)
corepressor
54.

What is the role of operons in prokaryote gene expression?

a)
It makes the genes prokaryotes be turned on
b)
It accounts for the regulation of gene activity in response to the needs of the cells
c)
To make the gene turn of and off
55.

Which of the following describes an operon that is inactive but can be activated by a molecule binding to the repressor?

a)

Inducible operon

b)

Repressible operon

56.

The lac operon is an example of an inducible operon. Which of the following describes the process that occurs when lactose is present?

a)

Allolactose binds to the repressor which activates it and the repressor releases from the operator to turn transcription on.

b)

Allolactose binds to the repressor which inactivates it and the repressor releases from the operator to turn transcription on.

57.

The trp operon is an example of a repressible operon. Which of the following describes the process that occurs when tryptophan is present?

a)

When tryptophan is in high amounts, it binds to the repressor which activates it to bind to the operator. This blocks RNA Polymerase so transcription is turned off.

b)

When tryptophan is in high amounts, it releases from the repressor which inactivates it to prevent binding to the operator. This happens so transcription is turned off.

58.

The "on/off" switch for an operon is called the

a)

Promoter

b)

Operator

c)

Gene

59.

Identify the primary source of genetic variation

a)

crossing over

b)

mutations

c)

random fertilization

d)

independent assortment

60.

ATTTGAGCC- Original

TTTTGAGCC - Mutated

The example above is an example of a

a)

Frameshift Mutation

b)

Point Mutation

61.

Why are insertion and deletion (frameshift) mutations so harmful?

a)
They change all of the codons from the mutation on down the line, which changes the amino acid sequence
b)
They insert things that an organism doesn't need.
c)
They often delete things that organisms need.
d)
Insertion and deletions are not any more harmful than substitution mutations.
62.

What is the effect of a nucleotide-pair substitution that results in a nonsense mutation in a gene?

a)
it changes an amino acid in the encoded protein
b)
It has no effect on the amino acid sequence of the encoded protein
c)
it introduces  premature stop codon into the mRNA
d)
it alters the reading frame of the mRNA
63.
When human DNA is inserted in bacterial DNA to create insulin it is called
a)
viral DNA
b)
bacterial DNA
c)
recombinant DNA
d)
transcribed DNA
64.

Which of the following terms describes the process of the uptake of recombinant plasmids into bacteria cells?

a)

amplification

b)

insertion

c)

transformation

d)

screening

65.

In a transformation experiment, a sample of E. coli bacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin (ampr). Plasmid was not added to a second sample. Samples were plated on nutrient agar plates, some of which were supplemented with the antibiotic ampicillin. The results of E. coli growth are summarized above. The shaded area represents extensive growth of bacteria; dots represent individual colonies of bacteria.

Plates that have only ampicillin-resistant bacteria

growing include which of the following?

a)

I only

b)

III only

c)

IV only

d)

I and II

66.

In a transformation experiment, a sample of E. coli bacteria was mixed with a plasmid containing the gene for resistance to the antibiotic ampicillin (ampr). Plasmid was not added to a second sample. Samples were plated on nutrient agar plates, some of which were supplemented with the antibiotic ampicillin. The results of E. coli growth are summarized above. The shaded area represents extensive growth of bacteria; dots represent individual colonies of bacteria.

Which of the following best explains why there is no growth on plate II?

a)

The initial E. coli culture was not ampicillin resistant.

b)

The transformation procedure killed the bacteria.

c)

Nutrient agar inhibits E. coli grow

d)

The bacteria on the plate were transformed.

67.

Part of a chromosome is repeated

a)

Gene Mutation

b)

Point Mutation

c)

Deletion Mutation

d)

Duplication Mutation

68.

Part of a chromosome is reversed.

a)

Inversion Mutation

b)

Deletion Mutation

c)

Translocation

d)

Point Mutation

69.

Failure of homologous chromosomes

to separate during meiosis.

Results in gametes with either one extra or one missing chromosome.

a)

Translocation

b)

Nondisjunction

c)

Replication

d)

Transcription

70.

If a mutation is beneficial to an organism, this mutation is likely to...

a)

increase in the population

b)

decrease in the population

c)

go extinct

d)

have a harmful effect

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