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4TH QUARTER Long Quiz in DIASS

Total questions: 202

Worksheet time: 3hrs 28mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The BEST definition of a social group is

a)

two or more persons together

b)

two or more persons who meet and interact on a regular basis to achieve a common goal

c)

an audience in a theatre

d)

several persons waiting at a bus terminal

2.

All of the following are examples of groups EXCEPT

a)

the family

b)

a group of friends

c)

a class with their teacher

d)

a large crowd of people at a football game

3.

Social groups can be identified by all of the following EXCEPT

a)

uniforms or manner of dress

b)

emblems and symbols

c)

the neighbourhood in which a person lives

d)

patterns of behaviour

4.

Groups can be classified by all of the following EXCEPT

a)

emotional maturity of its members

b)

size

c)

structure

d)

the nature of the relationship among group members

5.

Which of the following can be classified as a primary group?

a)

police service

b)

political party

c)

family

d)

trade union

6.

Which function of social groups can BEST be identified in this picture?

a)

Opportunity to learn new skills

b)

Opportunity for leadership

c)

Sense of belonging

d)

Achievement of a particular goal

7.

Which of the following can be classified as a secondary group?

a)

class reunion

b)

school reunion

c)

immediate family

d)

study group

8.

The above picture represents members which of the following type of group

a)

formal

b)

informal

c)

peer

d)

involuntary

9.

A group which consists of individuals who are approximately the same age and social status is referred to as

a)

an interest group

b)

a peer group

c)

a congregation

d)

a clique

10.

Organizations with this type of structure can BEST be described as a/ an

a)

primary group

b)

involuntary group

c)

formal group

d)

peer group

11.

What type of group would a "family" be?

a)

Secondary

b)

Primary

c)

Formal

d)

Peer

12.

Which social group does the term below belongs to?

best friend since kindergarten

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Voluntary

d)

Pressure

13.

Which social group does the term below belongs to?

classmates in Form 2

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Interest

d)

Involuntary

14.

Groups can only be categorized in terms of membership and nothing more.

a)

True

b)

False

15.

This is an example which kind of social group

a)

primary

b)

secondary

c)

reference

16.

I am made up of two or more people who work together to achieve a common goal. What am I?

a)

a social studies group

b)

a social gathering

c)

a social group

d)

a society group

17.

Which of the following is NOT a purpose of a social group?

a)

Work towards a common goal

b)

Share memes on social media

c)

Share common interests and needs

d)

Create a sense of unity

18.

Which of the following listed below is considered a category or type of group? (select all that may apply).

a)

Informal Groups

b)

Facebook Groups

c)

Primary Groups

d)

Secondary Groups

e)

Formal Groups

19.

Which of the following are considered issues in Social Groups?

a)

Dissatisfaction with the leader

b)

Members working together

c)

Members helping each other

d)

Lack of cooperation

20.

From the list below, which of the following are appropriate ways to over come issues within a group?

a)

Compromise

b)

Communicate with the leader of the group

c)

Cooperate closely together

21.

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a group

a)

Common needs and interests

b)

established patterns of behaviour

c)

cooperation among members

d)

Intelligence

22.

Keeping the group together is called group ____________

a)

Characterization

b)

Collaboration

c)

Cohesion

d)

Communication

23.

Tick ALL the requirements for group cohesion below

a)

Leadership

b)

authority

c)

control

d)

cooperation

24.

Which of the following is NOT a quality of a good leader

a)

listens to their members

b)

make decisions

c)

guide, direct and counsel their members

d)

communicates with only one member of the group

25.

Give another name for the democratic leadership style

a)

Proactive

b)

Platonic

c)

Patriotic

d)

Participative

26.

Give another name for the authoritatian leadership style

a)

Diplomatic

b)

Autocratic

c)

Charismatic

d)

Oligarchy

27.

Give another name for laissez-faire leadership style

a)

Lazy

b)

Diplomatic

c)

Hands- off/ Delegative

d)

Instructional

28.

Which of the following is not something that a democratic leader would do

a)

accepts suggestions from others

b)

shares decision-making with others

c)

utilizes the talent of the members who are his/her friends

d)

acts as a facilitator

29.

which of the following is not something that a authoritatian leader would do

a)

makes all decisions and informs the group

b)

does as he sees fit

c)

interact with members

d)

believes that getting the task done in the job is a priority

30.

Which of the following is not something a laissez-faire leader would do

a)

get involved in all decision making

b)

sets priorities and delegates tasks

c)

has a large influence on the members

d)

allows the group to function on its own.

31.

Authority is the legitimate right of a leader to be involved in decision-making, to give orders and to allocate resources.

a)

True

b)

False

32.

Which of the following is a type of Authority

a)

Rational Legal authority

b)

Charismatic Authority

c)

Traditional authority

d)

Unconventional authority

33.

This type of authority is based on the idea that all authority is God-given

a)

Rational Legal authority

b)

Charismatic Authority

c)

Traditional authority

d)

Unconventional authority

34.

This type of authority is based on the position that a person holds in an organization or group

a)

Rational Legal authority

b)

Charismatic Authority

c)

Traditional authority

d)

Unconventional authority

35.

The leader for this group ha special qualities and a personality that inspires and influence the actions of members

a)

Rational Legal authority

b)

Charismatic Authority

c)

Traditional authority

d)

Unconventional authority

36.

Members working together to achieve common goals within that group

a)

social control

b)

Group cohesion

c)

Togetherness

d)

Integrity

37.

A group needs good leadership for all of the following EXCEPT:

a)

For organizing and coordinating actions

b)

Give the group direction

c)

Ensure that members needs are being met

d)

For one's lifestyle to be dictated

38.

Which of the following terms best describe Authority?

a)

A dictator

b)

A boss

c)

Leadership needs the rights/power to make decisions

d)

Person who applies sanctions

39.

Process of group working or acting together for common, mutual or underlying benefits.

a)

cooperation

b)

Social control

c)

Laws

d)

Rules

40.

A devotion and faithfulness to a nation, cause, philosophy, country, group or person.

a)

Devoted Christian

b)

Mentor

c)

Loyalty

d)

Integrity

41.

Unwritten rules that define acceptable behavior in a particular situation

a)

Rules

b)

Norms

c)

Values

d)

mores

42.

A set of regulations and principles that govern the behavior within a particular group

a)

Rules

b)

Norms

c)

Values

d)

mores

43.

Rules which have been set out by the state.

a)

Mores

b)

Values

c)

Rules

d)

Law

44.

Customs which relate to the culture of a particular group with no penalty if they are not carried out.

a)

Norms

b)

Folkways

c)

values

d)

laws

45.

All the following are accurate as it relates to social control EXCEPT:

a)

To promote stability group members may need.

b)

Consists of only rewards specific behavior

c)

Help to regulate written and unwritten rules

d)

Disregarding rules can result in sanction or penalties

46.

A leader is a person who

a)

is being led for the achievement of some important goals

b)

makes all the decision in an active organization

c)

occupies a central role or position of dominance and influence in a group

d)

has subservient roles to perform in a group

47.

All of the following are qualities of a good leader EXCEPT

a)

Intelligence

b)

Tolerance

c)

Authoritarianism

d)

Honesty

48.

Cohesion among members of a group would lead to

a)

competition among members

b)

conflict among members

c)

disunity among members

d)

attainment of groups goals

49.

This type of leader obtains leadership through an election and is based on joint decision making

a)

Authoritarian leader

b)

Democratic leader

c)

Formal leader

d)

Informal leader

50.

Identify the type of leader who orders and commands those around him and requires everyone to follow his instructions

a)

Democratic leader

b)

Laissez-faire leader

c)

Informal leader

d)

Authoritarian leader

51.

The laissez-faire leader

a)

Orders group members about

b)

Pays little attention to group members and goals

c)

Attempts to influence others by his/her recognized status

d)

Derives influence as a result of personal qualities

52.

This authority type is seen when the leader on his hierarchical position in an organization

a)

Charismatic authority

b)

Rational-legal authority

c)

Traditional authority

d)

Democratic authority

53.

Which of the following may contribute to group cohesion in the Caribbean? (Select ALL that apply)

a)

clear goals

b)

similar interests

c)

special privileges

d)

shared values

54.

Which of the following act demonstrate good leadership? (Select ALL that apply)

a)

Motivating the group

b)

Giving direction and focus to the group

c)

Allowing all group members to have their own way

55.

Which of the following actions is likely to lead to the survival of a group?

a)

Solving problems as a group

b)

Members acting individually

c)

Leader controlling group members

d)

Members being critical of group goals

56.

Which of the following are characteristics of a strong leader? ( Select ALL that apply)

a)

Is willing to make decisions

b)

Is always lenient with members

c)

Does not tolerate disorder

57.

Ralph is the leader of his school's choir. He makes all group decisions without consulting his other group members. What type of leader is Ralph?

a)

Traditional

b)

Democratic

c)

Laissez-faire

d)

Authoritarian

58.

The following are poor qualities of leadership EXCEPT:

a)

Sole exercise of influence and authority within a social group

b)

Domination and control by the members of the group

c)

Formulates all activities for subordinates

d)

coordinates activities in consultation with members

59.

Paul is the captain of his school's Chess Club. At meetings, he allows members to make whatever decisions they want. What leadership style is he displaying?

a)

Traditional

b)

Democratic

c)

Laissez-faire

d)

Authoritarian

60.

Which of the following are characteristics of a democratic leadership style? ( Select ALL that apply)

a)

shares decision-making with others

b)

makes all decisions within the group

c)

members share in the execution of tasks

d)

members of the group function independently of the leader's guidance

61.

Which of the following are characteristics of a good leader?

(Select ALL that apply)

a)

communicate with members

b)

Inspire members of the group to meet group goals

c)

Listens to the concerns of members of the group

d)

Sets goals and objectives for the group

62.

Which of the following is a type of authority?

a)

Democratic Authority

b)

Leader-given Authority

c)

Rational-legal Authority

d)

Assigned Authority

63.

Which of the following does not hinder cooperation within groups?

a)

Selfishness

b)

Ignorance

c)

Honesty

d)

Discrimination

64.

Which of the following types of leaders is the captain of the school netball team LEAST likely to be?

a)

Charismatic

b)

Hereditary

c)

Elected

d)

Nominated

65.

Which of the following are requirements for group cohesion? (Select ALL that apply)

a)

Effective leadership

b)

Cooperation

c)

Loyalty

d)

Freedom

66.

Approach emphasizing the role of conflict, competition, and constraint within a society

a)

Functionalism

b)

Conflict Perspective

c)

Symbolic Interactionism

d)

Dramaturgy

67.

Patterned interaction of people in social relationships

a)

Sociology

b)

Sociological Perspective

c)

Social Structure

d)

Theoretical Perspective

68.

Ability to control the behavior of others

a)

Sociology

b)

Dramaturgy

c)

Power

d)

Conflict Perspective

69.

Set of assumptions about an area of study accepted as true

a)

Theoretical Perspective

b)

Sociological Perspective

c)

Sociological Imagination

d)

Dramaturgy

70.

Approach that emphasizes the contributions made in each part of society

a)

Sociological Perspective

b)

Conflict Perspective

c)

Symbolic Interactionism

d)

Functionalism

71.

Ability to see the link between society and self

a)

Sociology

b)

Social Structure

c)

Sociological Perspective

d)

Sociological Imagination

72.

Approach that focuses on the interactions among people based on mutually understood symbols

a)

Symbolic Interactionism

b)

Dramaturgy

c)

Conflict Perspective

d)

Functionalsim

73.

View that looks at the behavior of groups, not individuals

a)

Sociological Perspective

b)

Theoretical Perspective

c)

Conflict Perspective

d)

Symbolic Interactionism

74.

Scientific Study of social structure; patterned social behavior

a)

Social Structure

b)

Dramaturgy

c)

Sociology

d)

Power

75.

Approach that depicts human interaction as theatrical performances

a)

Sociology

b)

Dramaturgy

c)

Power

d)

Functionalsim

76.

Questions a person must answer by choosing from a limited, predetermined set of responses

a)

Interview

b)

Closed-Ended

c)

Open-Ended

d)

Case Study

77.

Research that takes place in a natural setting

a)

Population

b)

Sample

c)

Questionnaire

d)

Field Research

78.

Case study in which the researcher becomes a member of the group being studied

a)

Interview

b)

Secondary Analysis

c)

Participant Observation

d)

Case Study

79.

Group of people with certain specific characteristics

a)

Population

b)

Sample

c)

Open-Ended

d)

Participant Observation

80.

Using precollected information for data collection and research purposes

a)

Secondary Analysis

b)

Field Research

c)

Case Study

d)

Participant Observation

81.

Group of people who represent a larger population

a)

Population

b)

Sample

c)

Secondary Analysis

d)

Field Research

82.

Questions a person is to answer in his/her own words

a)

Questionnaire

b)

Sample

c)

Open-Ended

d)

Closed-Ended

83.

Written set of questions to be answered by a research participant

a)

Questionnaire

b)

Interview

c)

Closed-Ended

d)

Open-Ended

84.

Intensive study of a single group, incident, or community

a)

Field Research

b)

Participant Observation

c)

Case Study

d)

Interview

85.

Survey method in which a trained researcher asks questions and records answers

a)

Questionnaire

b)

Interview

c)

Secondary Analysis

d)

Field Research

86.

Knowledge, values, customs, and physical objects shared by the members of a society

a)

Culture

b)

Society

c)

Norms

d)

Folkways

87.

Rewards and punishments used to encourage people to follow norms

a)

Folkways

b)

Mores

c)

Sanctions

d)

Values

88.

Ideas about the nature of reality

a)

Mores

b)

Sanctions

c)

Values

d)

Beliefs

89.

Rules defining appropriate and inappropriate behavior

a)

Stereotype

b)

Culture

c)

Society

d)

Norms

90.

Norms that have moral dimensions and that should be followed by members of the society

a)

Folkways

b)

Mores

c)

Values

d)

Beliefs

91.

Judging others in terms of one's own cultural standards

a)

Society

b)

Sanctions

c)

Ethnocentrism

d)

Stereotype

92.

Norms that lack moral significance

a)

Folkways

b)

Sanctions

c)

Stereotype

d)

Values

93.

Broad ideas about what is good or desirable shared by people in a society

a)

Mores

b)

Values

c)

Beliefs

d)

Norms

94.

To believe unfairly that all people/things with a particular characteristic are the same

a)

Ethnocentrism

b)

Folkways

c)

Stereotype

d)

Sanctions

95.

Group of people who inhabit a specific territory and share a common culture

a)

Culture

b)

Society

c)

Norms

d)

Mores

96.

Informal and unofficial aspects of culture that children are taught in school

a)

Mass Media

b)

Resocialization

c)

Hidden Curriculum

d)

Reference Group

97.

The process of learning to participate in a group

a)

Socialization

b)

Desocialization

c)

Resocialization

d)

Rites of Passage

98.

Process of adopting new norms, values, attitudes, and behaviors

a)

Rites of Passage

b)

Resocialization

c)

Desocialization

d)

Hidden Curriculum

99.

Set of individuals of roughly the same age and interests

a)

Significant Others

b)

Peer Group

c)

Mass Media

d)

Reference Group

100.

Image of yourself as having an identity separate from other people

a)

Self-Concept

b)

Socialization

c)

Resocialization

d)

Reference Group

101.

Group whose norms and values are used to guide behavior; group with whom you identify

a)

Significant Others

b)

Peer Group

c)

Mass Media

d)

Reference Group

102.

Means of communication designed to reach the general population

a)

Self-Concept

b)

Hidden Curriculum

c)

Mass Media

d)

Resocialization

103.

Those people whose reactions are most important to your self-concept

a)

Peer Group

b)

Significant Others

c)

Reference Group

d)

Mass Media

104.

Rituals marking the passage from one status to another

a)

Hidden Curriculum

b)

Resocialization

c)

Rites of Passage

d)

Desocialization

105.

Process of giving up old norms, values, attitudes, and behaviors

a)

Socialization

b)

Self-Concept

c)

Resocialization

d)

Desocialization

106.

Position a person occupies within a social structure

a)

Status

b)

Ascribed Status

c)

Achieved Status

d)

Role

107.

Behavior that individuals are expected to perform toward others

a)

Role

b)

Rights

c)

Obligations

d)

Role Strain

108.

Group of people living within defined territorial borders and sharing a common culture

a)

Society

b)

Social Structure

c)

Ascribed Status

d)

Achieved Status

109.

Expected behavior associated with a particular status

a)

Obligations

b)

Role Conflict

c)

Role Strain

d)

Role

110.

Position in a social structure that is neither earned nor chosen but assigned to a person

a)

Status

b)

Rights

c)

Ascribed Status

d)

Achieved Status

111.

Situation that occurs when a person has trouble meeting the many roles connected with a single status

a)

Obligations

b)

Role Conflict

c)

Role

d)

Role Strain

112.

Situation that exists when expectations for or performance of a role in one status clash with expectations for or performance of a role in another status

a)

Role Conflict

b)

Rights

c)

Obligations

d)

Role Strain

113.

Behavior that individuals expect from others

a)

Achieved Status

b)

Rights

c)

Obligations

d)

Ascribed Status

114.

Pattern of social relationships within a group

a)

Society

b)

Role

c)

Obligations

d)

Social Structure

115.

Position in a social structure that is earned or chosen

a)

Status

b)

Ascribed Status

c)

Achieved Status

d)

Society

116.

At least 2 people who have one or more goals in common and share ways of thinking and behaving

a)

Group

b)

Primary Group

c)

Secondary Group

d)

Reference Groups

117.

Group used for self-evaluation and the formation of attitudes, values, beliefs, norms, and mores

a)

Primary Group

b)

Secondary Group

c)

Reference Group

d)

In-Group

118.

Group deliberately created to achieve one or more long-term goals

a)

Formal Organization

b)

In-Group

c)

Out-Group

d)

Bureaucracy

119.

Web of social relationships that join a person to other people and groups

a)

Group

b)

Formal Organization

c)

Bureaucracy

d)

Social Networks

120.

Exclusive group demanding extreme loyalty

a)

Primary Group

b)

Secondary Group

c)

In-Group

d)

Out-Group

121.

Mind-set that emphasizes knowledge, reason and planning

a)

Rationalization

b)

Reference Groups

c)

Formal Organization

d)

Bureaucracy

122.

People who are emotionally close, know one another well, and seek one another's company

a)

In-Group

b)

Out-Group

c)

Primary Group

d)

Secondary Group

123.

Formal organization based on rationality and efficiency

a)

Social Networks

b)

Formal Organization

c)

Group

d)

Bureaucracy

124.

Group targeted by an in-group for opposition, antagonism, or competition

a)

Reference Groups

b)

In-Group

c)

Out-Group

d)

Social Networks

125.

People who share only part of their lives while focusing on a goal or task

a)

Primary Group

b)

Secondary Group

c)

Formal Organization

d)

Bureaucracy

126.

Behavior that departs from societal or group norms

a)

Deviance

b)

Anomie

c)

Labeling Theory

d)

Crime

127.

Ways to encourage conformity to society's norms

a)

Strain Theory

b)

Stigma

c)

Victim Discounting

d)

Social Control

128.

Undesirable label used to deny a deviant acceptance

a)

Control Theory

b)

Labeling Theory

c)

Stigma

d)

Victim Discounting

129.

Process of reducing the seriousness of the crimes that injure people of lower status

a)

White Collar Crime

b)

Crime

c)

Social Control

d)

Victim Discounting

130.

Deviance is more likely to occur when a gap exists between cultural goals, and the ability to achieve them

a)

Anomie

b)

Strain Theory

c)

Control Theory

d)

Labeling Theory

131.

Theory that society creates deviance by identifying particular members as deviant

a)

Strain Theory

b)

Labeling Theory

c)

Control Theory

d)

Victim Discounting

132.

Act committed in violation of the law

a)

White Collar Crime

b)

Anomie

c)

Stigma

d)

Crime

133.

Social condition in which norms are weak, conflicting, or absent

a)

Anomie

b)

Stigma

c)

White-Collar Crime

d)

Deviance

134.

Job-related crimes committed by high-status people

a)

White Collar Crime

b)

Crime

c)

Stigma

d)

Victim Discounting

135.

Theory that compliance with social norms requires strong bonds between individuals and society

a)

Social Control

b)

Strain Theory

c)

Control Theory

d)

Labeling Theory

136.

Ability to control the behavior of others, even against their will

a)

Power

b)

Prestige

c)

Global Stratification

d)

Class Consciousness

137.

Identification with the goals and interests of a social class

a)

Social Class

b)

Social Stratification

c)

Class Consciousness

d)

Social Mobility

138.

Based on the economic disparity between those at the bottom of a society and the rest of the society

a)

Absolute Poverty

b)

Relative Poverty

c)

Feminization of Poverty

d)

Global Stratification

139.

Ranking of people or groups according to their unequal access to scarce resources

a)

Social Stratification

b)

Social Class

c)

Global Stratification

d)

Class Consciousness

140.

Movement of individuals/groups between social classes

a)

Feminization of Poverty

b)

Global Stratification

c)

Social Mobility

d)

Power

141.

Absence of enough money to secure life's necessities

a)

Social Stratification

b)

Absolute Poverty

c)

Relative Poverty

d)

Feminization of Poverty

142.

Unequal distribution of wealth, power, and resources among the countries of the world

a)

Global Stratification

b)

Social Stratification

c)

Power

d)

Prestige

143.

Segment of society whose members have similar economic circumstances, norms, and status

a)

Social Stratification

b)

Class Consciousness

c)

Social Mobility

d)

Social Class

144.

Trend in US society in which women/children make up an increasing proportion of the poor

a)

Absolute Poverty

b)

Relative Poverty

c)

Feminization of Poverty

d)

Global Stratification

145.

Recognition, respect, and admiration attached to social positions

a)

Social Stratification

b)

Prestige

c)

Power

d)

Class Consciousness

146.

The four stages of Piaget's cognitive development (in order) are:

a)

Sensory-motor, pre-operational, formal operational, concrete operational.

b)

Sensory-motor, formal operational, concrete operational, optional.

c)

Sensory-motor, pre-operational, concrete operational, formal operational.

d)

Sensory-motor, abstract operational, logical operational, formal operational.

147.

Object permanence can be defined as:

a)

Pieces of information continuing to be remembered.

b)

Events and ideas being permanently engrained in the mind.

c)

Objects continuing to exist even after they have left our perception.

d)

Believing you can see things that are not there.

148.

The key feature of the 'pre-operational stage' is:

a)

Thinking logically

b)

Thinking in operational format

c)

Being egocentric

d)

Seeing things from others points of view

149.

The concrete operational stage occurs in what age bracket?

a)

Birth - 2

b)

7 - 11 years

c)

11+ years

d)

2 - 7 years

150.

The two key characteristics of the concrete operational stage (7 - 11 years) are:

a)

Conservation and classifying

b)

Classifying and concentration

c)

Conservation and concentration

d)

Classifying and categorising

151.

Two key features of formal operational stage (11+) are:

a)

Abstract and logical thinking

b)

Concentrated and logical thinking

c)

Conservation and abstract thinking

d)

Logical and conservational thinking

152.

Which of these are criticisms/weaknesses of Piaget's 4 stages of cognitive development?

a)

Some babies/younger children have shown higher levels of cognitive development but are generalised by the theory.

b)

Theory fails to distinguish between 'competence' and 'performance'.

c)

Gives insufficient attention to social influences on performance.

d)

Children don't gain conservation until much later ages.

153.

These are concepts or frameworks that organize and interpret information.

a)

Assimilation

b)

Accommodation

c)

Crystallized Intelligence

d)

Schema

154.

Taking in new information and fitting it into existing schemas

a)

Crystallized intelligence

b)

Fluid intelligence

c)

Assimilation

d)

Accommodation

155.

Changing and revising existing schema in face of new experiences or new information.

a)

Crystallized intelligence

b)

Fluid intelligence

c)

Assimilation

d)

Accommodation

156.

Refers to the process by which a child learns to interact with others around them.

a)

Physical Development

b)

Social Development

c)

Cognitive Development

d)

Spiritual Development

157.

Which of the following best describes a critical period?

a)

A moment in development where the infant is ready to talk

b)

Moments in time where individuals recognize the urge to urinate

c)

Developmental periods where individuals recall past events

d)

A time during development when the individual is ready to move to the next objective

158.

Who developed the 4 stage theory of cognitive development?

a)

Lev Vygotsky

b)

Arnold Palmer

c)

Erik Erikson

d)

Jean Piaget

159.

Which of the following is an example of fine motor development?

a)

control of the torso

b)

the development of leg muscles

c)

the movement of fingers

d)

the development of arm muscles

160.

Which of the following methods of observation is most commonly used when looking at childhood development?

a)

longitudinal method

b)

case-study method

c)

laboratory method

d)

cross-sectional method

161.

What term is used to describe a child’s inability to see the world through anyone else’s eyes except his or her own?

a)

egocentrism

b)

narcissism

c)

disparity

d)

assimilation

162.

According to Piaget, the ability to understand that simply changing the appearance of an object does not change the object’s nature is known as _______.

a)

centration

b)

assimilation

c)

conservation

d)

object permanence

163.

________________ is a term Piaget used to represent the building blocks of knowledge.

a)

Assimilation

b)

Schema

c)

Assimilation

d)

Equilibration

164.

_____________ is using an existing schema and applying it to a new situation or object.

a)

Accommodation

b)

Equilibration

c)

Assimilation

165.

________________ is changing approaches when an existing schema doesn’t work in a particular situation.

a)

Assimilation

b)

Accommodation

c)

Equilibration

166.

ZPD stands for________.

a)

Zone of Probable Development

b)

Zone of Proximal Direction

c)

Zone of Proximal Development

d)

Zone of Proximal Decision

167.

The ZPD is between

a)

anxiety and boredom

b)

anxiety and frustration

c)

stress and calm

d)

learning and relearning

168.

To help in the ZPD the teacher must use

a)

inependent practice

b)

scaffolding

c)

student goal setting

d)

continuos help

169.

The ZPD is between

a)

What the learner can do with help and what the learner cannot do

b)

What the learner can do on their own and what they can do with help

c)

What the learner can do on their own and what the learner will be able to do on their own

170.

___________ believed the stages of development must be met before learning can occur.

a)

Piaget

b)

Vygotsky

171.

______________ believed the learning was a collaboration between the teacher and student.

a)

Piaget

b)

Vygotsky

172.

True or False: Scaffolding refers to doing the task for the child to set an example.

a)

True

b)

False

173.

Vygotsky defined which three types of language?

a)

Social speech

b)

Private speech

c)

Emotional Speech

d)

Silent Inner Speech

174.

According to Vygotsky, children develop their behavior and habits...

a)

from treats/ prizes

b)

from their cultures and through interpersonal experiences

c)

from punishment's/ discipline

d)

from friendships

175.

True or False: According to Vygotsky, unassisted performance alone does give a true idea/picture about a child's level?

a)

True

b)

False

176.

What is an example of Vygotsky's theory?

a)

a child knows that if they cry or scream their parent will give them a treat to clam down

b)

a child will copy and do whatever his or her friends are doing

c)

a child knows that some things are private and shouldn't be shared or talked about due to social norms

d)

a child does not know when they did something wrong so he or she will be disciplined for no reason

177.

According to Vygotsky, why is language important in development?

a)

Language is the main means by which adults transmit info to children.

b)

Language is a powerful tool of intellectual adaptation.

c)

Language is an accelerator to thinking and understanding.

d)

All of the above.

178.
This is a method of research where an investigator manipulates one or more factors (independent variables) to observe the effect on some behavior or mental process (the dependent variable).
a)
Experiments
b)
Case Study
c)
Survey
d)
Observational
e)
Correlational
179.

Whether the selected test actually measures the stated variable is know as?

a)

Reliability

b)

Valididty

c)

Accuracy

d)

Precision

180.

Which type of research method is best suited for revealing the meaning of events as experienced by individuals?

a)

Quantitative

b)

Qualitative

181.

A measure of the relationship between two variables.

a)

scientific method

b)

experiment

c)

correlation

d)

dependent variable

182.
This research method is a technique for ascertaining the self – reported attitudes or behaviors of a particular group, usually by questioning a representative, random sample of the group.
a)
Survey
b)
Observational
c)
Correlational
d)
Experiments
e)
Case Study
183.

This research method is a measure of the extent to which two variables change together, and thus of how well either variable predicts the other

a)

Correlational

b)

Experiments

c)

Case Study

d)

Survey

e)

Observational

184.
This is a method of research where an investigator manipulates one or more factors (independent variables) to observe the effect on some behavior or mental process (the dependent variable).
a)
Experiments
b)
Case Study
c)
Survey
d)
Observational
e)
Correlational
185.

The scatter graph shows the relationship between the age of a car and its value.


Describe the correlation shown on the diagram.

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

No Correlation

186.

The scatter graph shows the relationship between the height and arm span of some students.


Describe the correlation shown on the diagram.

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

No Correlation

187.

The scatter graph shows the relationship between two test scores of some students.


Describe the correlation shown on the diagram.

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

No Correlation

188.

The scatter graph shows the relationship between the test score and the time spent revising for a group of students.


Describe the correlation shown on the diagram.

a)

Positive

b)

Negative

c)

No Correlation

189.

Which graph has a negative correlation?

a)
b)
c)
d)
190.

Which graph has a weak and positive correlation?

a)
b)
c)
d)
191.

Which line best fits the scattered plot?

a)
b)
c)
d)
192.
This research method is a descriptive technique in which one individual or group is studied in depth in the hope of revealing universal principles
a)
Case Study
b)
Survey
c)
Observational
d)
Correlational
e)
Experiments
193.
This research method is a measure of the extent to which two variables change together, and thus of how well either variable predicts the other
a)
Correlational
b)
Experiments
c)
Case Study
d)
Survey
e)
Observational
194.
This research method is a technique for ascertaining the self – reported attitudes or behaviors of a particular group, usually by questioning a representative, random sample of the group.
a)
Survey
b)
Observational
c)
Correlational
d)
Experiments
e)
Case Study
195.
This is a method of research where an investigator manipulates one or more factors (independent variables) to observe the effect on some behavior or mental process (the dependent variable).
a)
Experiments
b)
Case Study
c)
Survey
d)
Observational
e)
Correlational
196.
The advantage of this descriptive method of research is that it creates an immense amount of data to be gathered quickly and inexpensively.
a)
Survey
b)
Observational
c)
Correlational
d)
Experiments
e)
Case Study
197.
The advantage of this method of research is that the behavior observed in the subject(s) natural environment to be more natural, spontaneous, and varied than that observed in a laboratory.
a)
Observational
b)
Correlational
c)
Experiments
d)
Case Study
e)
Survey
198.
The advantage of this method of research is that it can help to clarify relationships between variable that cannot be explained by other research methods, in other words- predictions.
a)
Correlational
b)
Experiments
c)
Case Study
d)
Survey
e)
Observational
199.
The advantage of this descriptive method of research is that the strict control of variables offers researchers the opportunity to draw conclusions about cause and effect relationships.
a)
Experiments
b)
Case Study
c)
Survey
d)
Observational
e)
Correlational
200.
The disadvantage of this method of descriptive research is that the data is limited to only answering the question(s) asked. These limitations lead to biases, ambiguous conclusions, and low participation rates among research populations.
a)
Survey
b)
Observational
c)
Correlational
d)
Experiments
e)
Case Study
201.
The disadvantage of this method of descriptive research is that it does not permit researchers to draw conclusions regarding cause-and-effect relationships
a)
Correlational
b)
Experiments
c)
Case Study
d)
Survey
e)
Observational
202.

The advantage of this method of research is that the behaviour observed in the subject(s) natural environment is more natural, spontaneous, and varied than that observed in a laboratory.

a)

Observational

b)

Correlational

c)

Experiments

d)

Case Study

e)

Survey