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International Business Final Quiz

Total questions: 208

Worksheet time: 1hrs 25mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

A country's economic system and property rights regime are reasonably

good predictors of economic prospects.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

2.

New information and communication technologies have enabled the

spread of democratic ideals.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

3.

Contracts under a civil law system tend to be very detailed with all contingencies spelled out.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

4.

To facilitate international business, property rights are defined in a consistent way across

countries.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

5.

To improve airport security following a major terrorist attack, the

government of a country takes over the airport security industries This is

an example of privatization.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

6.

In mixed economies, in certain sectors the state sets prices, owns

businesses, limits private enterprise, restricts investment by foreigners,

and restricts international trade.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

7.

In a totalitarian country, there are safeguards to protect an individual's right to freedom of

expression, opinion, and organization.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

8.

The communists believed that socialism could be achieved by democratic means and turned

their backs on violent revolution and dictatorship.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

9.

GDP allows a more direct comparison of living standards in different

countries than other measures.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

10.

When communism collapsed, many of the communist countries lacked the

legal structure required to protect property rights because all the property

was earlier held by the state.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

11.

In mixed economies, governments tend to take into state ownership troubled firms whose

continued operation is thought to be vital to national interests

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

12.

A theocratic law system is one in which the law is

based on religious teachings.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

13.

If a country's economy is to sustain long-term economic growth, the

business environment must be conducive to innovations and

entrepreneurial activity.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

14.

GDP is one of the measures used by the Human Development Index (HDI)

to measure the quality of human life in different nations.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

15.

A market with a large number of consumers with low living standards will

have a relatively large market when measured in economic terms.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

16.

Product liability can be much lower if a product does not conform to required safety standards.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

17.

The Foreign Corrupt Practices Act does not allow for grease payments.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

18.

The political systems of a country raise ethical issues that have implications for the practice o

international business.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

19.

Product liability sets certain safety standards to which a product must adhere.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

20.

A political system that prioritizes the needs of the society over individual freedoms is called

a)

A. totalitarianism.

b)

B. collectivism.

c)

C. capitalism.

d)

D. egalitarianism.

21.

Systems that emphasize collectivism tend toward

a)

A.totalitarianism.

b)

B. capitalism.

c)

C. democracy.

d)

D. privatization.

22.

Peter believed that socialism could be achieved only through violent revolution and

totalitarian dictatorship. Peter was likely a

a)

A. libertarian.

b)

B. communist.

c)

C. collectivist.

d)

D. social democrat.

23.

Interdependent political, economic, and legal systems of a country make up its

a)

A. administrative agenda.

b)

B. socioeconomic fabric.

c)

C. cultural environment.

d)

D. political economy.

24.

________ are established through patents, copyrights, and trademarks.

a)

A. Digital signatures

b)

B. Ownership rights over private property

c)

C. Origination fees and tributes

d)

D. Ownership rights over intellectual property

25.

The tenet of ________ is that the welfare of society is best served by letting people pursue thei

own economic self-interest.

a)

A. socialism

b)

B. communism

c)

C. anarchism

d)

D. individualism

26.

What term is used to describe a state in which authoritarian elements have captured some or

much of the machinery of state and use this in an attempt to deny basic political and civil liberties

a)

A. authoritarian dictatorship

b)

B. right-wing democracies

c)

C.representative totalitarianism

d)

D. pseudo-democracies

27.

In a(n) ________ society, the welfare of society is best served by letting people pursue their

own economic self-interest.

a)

A. individualist

b)

B.capitalist

c)

C. democratic

d)

D. totalitarian

28.

The term ________ stresses that the political, economic, and legal systems of a country are

interdependent.

a)

A. political economy

b)

B. common law

c)

C. socialism

d)

D. collectivism

29.

________ rights refer to the legal rights over the use to which a resource is put and over the use

made of any income that may be derived from that resource.

a)

A. Trade

b)

B. Property

c)

C. Positive

d)

D. Common

30.

Which of the following provides exclusive legal rights to authors, composers, playwrights,

artists, and publishers to publish and disperse their work as they see fit?

a)

A. patent

b)

B. copyright

c)

C. Trademark

d)

D. license

31.

________ occurs when a political party that represents the interests of a particular tribe (and

not always the majority tribe) monopolizes power.

a)

A. Tribal dictatorship

b)

B. Communist totalitarianism

c)

C. Tribal totalitarianism

d)

D. Privatization

32.

When ________ is emphasized, an individual's right to do something may be restricted on the

grounds that it runs counter to "the good of society."

a)

A. individualism

b)

B. totalitarianism

c)

C. collectivism

d)

D. theocracy

33.

Ethics officers are hired by many businesses to make sure that all

employees are trained to be ethically aware and that ethical considerations

enter the business decision-making process at all levels of the

organization.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

34.

The term social strata refers to the extent to which individuals can move

out of the strata into which they were born.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

35.

Islam is a polytheistic religion, like Christianity and Judaism.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

36.

Upon meeting a foreign business executive, a Japanese executive will hold

his business card in both hands and bow while presenting the card to the

foreigner. This is an example of ritual behavior.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

37.

Folkways include rituals and symbolic behavior.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

38.

In countries where the value of group identification is considered to be

primary, managers and workers are discouraged from moving from

company to company.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

39.

Norms are abstract ideas about what a group believes to be good, right,

and desirable.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

40.

International businesses that are ill-informed about the practices of

another culture are likely to fail.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

41.

The ethical obligations of a multinational corporation toward employment

conditions, human rights, environmental pollution, and the use of power are

always clear-cut.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

42.

Both Hindus and Buddhists stress the afterlife and spiritual achievement

rather than involvement in this world.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

43.

The value systems and norms of a country are unrelated to the costs of

doing business in that country.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

44.

Ethical dilemmas are situations in which none of the available alternatives

seems ethically acceptable.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

45.

Building an organization culture that places a high value on ethical

behavior requires incentive and reward systems.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

46.

Social responsibility refers to the idea that businesspeople should favor

decisions that have both good economic and social consequences.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

47.

According to the ________, even if a manager of a multinational sees that

firms from other nations are not following ethical norms in a host nation,

that manager should maintain the standards of the company's home

country.

a)

A) cultural relativist

b)

B) righteous moralist

c)

C) utilitarian

d)

D) naive immoralist

48.

Identify the incorrect statement about environmental regulations

a)

A) Environmental regulations are often lacking in developing nations.

b)

B) Environmental regulations are similar across developed and developing

nations.

c)

C) Developed nations have substantial regulations governing the emission of

pollutants, the dumping of toxic chemicals, and so on.

d)

D) Inferior environmental regulations in host nations, as compared to the home

nation, can lead to ethical issues.

49.

A caste system differs from a class system because

a)

A) a caste system is an open system of stratification, while a class system is a

closed system of stratification.

b)

B) it is not possible for an individual to change his or her caste, while a class system allows people to change their class through individual achievement.

c)

C) the social mobility in caste systems varies from society to society, while in a class system there is no social mobility.

d)

D) a caste system is a less rigid form of social stratification, while a class system is a comparatively more rigid form of social stratification

50.

Ethical systems are

a)

A) a set of moral principles, or values, that are used to guide and shape behavior.

b)

B) shared beliefs and rituals that are concerned with the realm of the sacred.

c)

C) routine conventions of everyday life.

d)

D) social rules that govern people's actions toward each other.

51.

Hinduism and Buddhism both stress the importance of

a)

A) the caste system.

b)

B) the afterlife.

c)

C) Confucian ethics.

d)

D) life on earth.

52.

Which of the following statements about the use of spoken language is true?

a)

A) The nature of a language has no effect on the way we perceive the world.

b)

B) The language of a society does not direct the attention of its members to certain

features of the world rather than others.

c)

C) Countries with more than one language often only have one culture.

d)

D) Most people prefer to converse in their own language rather than English.

53.

Religion may be defined as

a)

A) routine conventions of everyday life.

b)

B) social rules that govern people's actions toward each other.

c)

C) shared beliefs and rituals that are concerned with the realm of the sacred.

d)

D) a set of moral principles, or values, that are used to guide and shape behavior.

54.

Companies can strengthen the ________ of employees by committing

themselves to not retaliate against employees who complain about

unethical actions.

a)

A) moral courage

b)

B) code of ethics

c)

C) ethical strategies

d)

D) organizational culture

55.

Companies can strengthen the ________ of employees by committing

themselves to not retaliate against employees who complain about

unethical actions.

a)

A) moral courage

b)

B) code of ethics

c)

C) ethical strategies

d)

D) organizational culture

56.

Culture is

a)

A) static.

b)

B) not static.

c)

C) unchanging.

d)

D) abstract.

57.

________ are the routine conventions of everyday life.

a)

A) Folkways

b)

B) Mores

c)

C) Rites

d)

D) Beliefs

58.

The idea that businesspeople should consider the social consequences of

economic actions when making business decisions and that there should

be a presumption in favor of decisions that have both good economic and

social consequences is known as

a)

A) moral relativism.

b)

B) noblesse oblige.

c)

C) ethical dilemma.

d)

D) social responsibility.

59.

The ________ outlawed the paying of bribes to foreign government officials

to gain business.

a)

A) Convention on Combating Bribery of Foreign Public Officials

b)

B) Foreign Corrupt Practices Act

c)

C) Convention on International Business Transactions

d)

D) Universal Declaration of Human Rights

60.

According to ________, suffering originates in people's desires for pleasure.

a)

A) Hinduism

b)

B) Protestantism

c)

C) Buddhism

d)

D) Judaism

61.

Under a tariff rate quota, a higher tariff rate is applied to imports within the

quota than those over the quota.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

62.

A country has an absolute advantage in the production of a product when it

is more efficient than any other country in producing it.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

63.

GATT has not recognized the infant industry argument as a legitimate

reason for protectionism.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

64.

Antidumping policies are designed to punish foreign firms that are engaged

in dumping.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

65.

Protecting industries deemed important for national security and retaliating

against unfair foreign competition are economic arguments for government

intervention.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

66.

From a profit perspective, it makes sense for firms to disperse their

productive activities to those countries where they can be performed most

efficiently.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

67.

Apple's iPhone was unique when it first came out, with many features that

no other phones had. As such, it enjoyed great success and dominated the

cell phone market. This demonstrates the first-mover advantage.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

68.

The simple model of free trade assumed away transportation costs

between countries.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

69.

Factor endowments refer to the extent to which a country is gifted with

such resources as land, labor, and capital.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

70.

Export tariffs are far less common than import tariffs.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

71.

XYZ Toys manufactures and sells small quantities of each of its products,

but it can still benefit from economies of scale.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

72.

Governments do not always act in the national interest when they

intervene in the economy; politically important interest groups often

influence them.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

73.

Trade wars benefit countries with interventionist governments.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

74.

Unlike other trade policies, local content regulations tend to benefit

consumers and not producers.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

75.

Tariffs are generally pro-consumer and anti-producer.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

76.

Which of the following is a major benefit of engaging in free trade?

a)

A) It helps to reduce the financial volatility in global markets.

b)

B) It helps countries protect the jobs that are available to their citizens.

c)

C) It gives countries access to products that they cannot produce.

d)

D) It allows governments to exert more control on businesses.

77.

________ are levied as a proportion of the value of the imported good.

a)

A) Specific tariffs

b)

B) Import quotas

c)

C) Ad valorem tariffs

d)

D) Tariff rate quotas

78.

________ in agriculture could jump-start economic growth among the

world's poorer nations and alleviate global poverty.

a)

A) Quota rents

b)

B) Free trade

c)

C) Strategic trade policy

d)

D) Subsidies

79.

Which of the following observations about tariffs is true?

a)

A) Tariffs are generally anti-producer and pro-consumer.

b)

B) Export tariffs are used to raise revenue for the government.

c)

C) Export tariffs are far more common than import tariffs.

d)

D) Import tariffs increase the overall efficiency of the world economy.

80.

Identify the true statement about trade barriers.

a)

A) They lower the costs of exporting products to a country.

b)

B) They may put a firm at a competitive advantage to indigenous competitors.

c)

C) They may help a firm to serve a country from locations outside of that country.

d)

D) To conform to local content regulations, a firm may have to locate more production activities in a given market than it would otherwise.

81.

________ stresses that in some cases countries specialize in the

production and export of particular products because the world market can

support only a limited number of firms.

a)

A) New trade theory

b)

B) Absolute advantage

c)

C) The world market theory

d)

D) Mercantilism

82.

________ are unit cost reductions associated with a large scale of output.

a)

A) Current account deficits

b)

B) Economies of scale

c)

C) Current account surpluses

d)

D) Factor endowments

83.

The ________ argues that a large proportion of the world's new products

had been developed by U.S. firms.

a)

A) product life-cycle theory

b)

B) Porter's diamond

c)

C) new trade theory

d)

D) Leontief paradox

84.

A company that sells its product in a foreign market below the cost of

production may be accused of

a)

A) pandering.

b)

B) profiteering.

c)

C) carnivorous behavior.

d)

D) dumping.

85.

The theories of international trade claim that promoting free trade is

generally in the best interests of

a)

A) a country, although it may not always be in the best interest of an individual

firm.

b)

B) all multinational corporations.

c)

C) an individual firm, although it may not always be in the best interest of a country.

d)

D) the World Trade Organization.

86.

The variety of goods that a country can produce is limited by the size of the

market in industries where ________ are important.

a)

A) factor endowments

b)

B) current account deficits

c)

C) economies of scale

d)

D) current account surpluses

87.

Which of the following is one of the main instruments of trade policy?

a)

A) tariffs

b)

B) credit portfolios

c)

C) opportunity costs

d)

D) countervailing duties

88.

Antidumping duties are often called

a)

A) special circumstance duties.

b)

B) positive duties.

c)

C) retroactive duties.

d)

D) countervailing duties.

89.

Governments use ________ to boost exports and restrict imports.

a)

A) subsidies

b)

B) local content requirements

c)

C) administrative trade policies

d)

D) formal instruments of trade policy

90.

Company A entered the production of office software before its

competitors. Because of this, the company's products are more familiar

among and favored by customers. This situation exemplifies the

a)

A) first-mover advantage.

b)

B) diminishing marginal returns.

c)

C) economies of scale.

d)

D) constant marginal returns.

91.

Specific tariffs are

a)

A) levied as a proportion of the value of the imported good.

b)

B) government payment to domestic producers.

c)

C) in the form of manufacturing or production requirements of goods.

d)

D) levied as a fixed charge for each unit of a good imported.

92.

A ________ helps domestic producers to compete against foreign imports.

a)

A) An ad valorem tariff

b)

B) A specific tariff

c)

C) An import quota

d)

D) A subsidy

93.

Tariffs do not benefit

a)

A) consumers.

b)

B) domestic producers.

c)

C) governments.

d)

D) domestic firms.

94.

In the United States, the only firms allowed to import cheese are certain

trading companies, each of which is allocated the right to import a

maximum number of pounds of cheese each year. This is an example of

a)

A) a subsidy.

b)

B) an import quota.

c)

C) a local content requirement.

d)

D) an ad valorem tariff.

95.

Which of the following theories emphasizes the interplay between the

proportions in which the factors of production are available in different

countries and the proportions in which they are needed for producing

particular goods?

a)

A) Porter's theory

b)

B) Smith's theory

c)

C) Ricardo's theory

d)

D) Heckscher-Ohlin theory

96.

The WTO supports the promotion of international trade in services

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

97.

A capital market brings together those who want to invest money and

those who want to borrow money.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

98.

Offshore production refers to FDI undertaken to serve the host market.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

99.

Because licensing is more costly and more risky than FDI, other things

being equal, the theories argue that FDI is preferable to licensing.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

100.

FDI has been declining in the last few decades because protectionist

pressures have become less intense.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

101.

By using the global capital market, investors have a much wider range of

investment opportunities than in a purely domestic capital market.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

102.

The Eurocurrency market has been one cause of a decrease in global

financial regulations.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

103.

One way countries have encouraged firms to undertake FDI is through

double taxation.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

104.

The cost of capital is the difference between cost of inputs and outputs.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

105.

For the home country, the current account of the balance of payments

improves if the purpose of the foreign investment is to serve the home

market from a low-cost production location.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

106.

Financial services is an information-intensive industry.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

107.

Financial services is an information-intensive industry.By placing tariffs on imported goods, governments can increase the cost of exporting relative to foreign direct investment and licensing.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

108.

Only a few countries have adopted the free market view in its pure form.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

109.

Licensing involves the establishment of a new operation in a foreign country.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

110.

The globalization of capital has been universally seen as a positive development.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

111.

Investors can reduce the level of risk by diversifying a portfolio internationally.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

112.

The relatively low correlation between the movement of stock markets in

different countries indicates that

a)

A) diversifying a portfolio will increase the risk of investing.

b)

B) most countries face similar economic conditions.

c)

C) countries pursue different macroeconomic policies.

d)

D) most stock markets are highly segmented from each other.

113.

An equity loan is made when

a)

A) a corporation pledge equities or other assets to borrow money.

b)

B) corporations avail cash loans from individuals.

c)

C) a corporation sells stock to investors.

d)

D) corporations issue bonds to individual investors.

114.

The element of risk into investing in foreign assets is greater with ________

exchange rates.

a)

A) floating

b)

B) pegged

c)

C) fixed

d)

D) managed

115.

The liquidity of the market is ________ in a purely domestic capital market.

a)

A) held in reserves

b)

B) unlimited

c)

C) based upon the stock market

d)

D) limited

116.

What is a disadvantage of the global capital market?

a)

A) Foreign investments may be driven by speculative flows in the market.

b)

B) A truly global market reduces the liquidity of investments.

c)

C) The availability of capital is low in a global capital market.

d)

D) The cost of capital is more in a global market than a domestic market.

117.

________ is made when a corporation sells stock to investors.

a)

A) A corporate bond sale

b)

B) A debt loan

c)

C) A Eurobond investment

d)

D) An equity loan

118.

The cost of capital is

a)

A) higher in a purely domestic capital market than in a global market.

b)

B) lower in a domestic capital market than in an international market.

c)

C) higher in a global market than in a purely domestic capital market.

d)

D) the same in either a global market or a purely domestic capital market.

119.

Which of the following statements is true of market makers?

a)

A) Commercial banks are not allowed to function as market makers.

b)

B) Market makers are large investors who drive an economy.

c)

C) Market makers facilitate only equity-based loans.

d)

D) Market makers connect investors and borrowers in a capital market.

120.

FDI can benefit the home country's ________ if the foreign subsidiary

creates demands for home-country exports of capital equipment,

intermediate goods, complementary products, and the like.

a)

A) balance of payments

b)

B) oligopolistic industry

c)

C) current accounts

d)

D) licensing endeavors

121.

What has made the United States an attractive target for foreign direct

investment?

a)

A) its unstable economy

b)

B) its unfavorable political environment

c)

C) its wealthy domestic markets

d)

D) its closed society

122.

________ perform a direct connection function in capital markets.

a)

A) Insurance brokers

b)

B) Investment banks

c)

C) Pension fund managers

d)

D) Commercial banks

123.

A ________ brings together those who want to invest money and those who

want to borrow money.

a)

A) consumer market

b)

B) value chain

c)

C) supply chain

d)

D) capital market

124.

The ________ of FDI refers to the amount of FDI undertaken over a year.

a)

A) stock

b)

B) net value

c)

C) accumulated value

d)

D) flow

125.

The stock of FDI refers to the

a)

A) amount of FDI undertaken over a given period of time.

b)

B) total accumulated value of foreign-owned assets at a given time.

c)

C) flow of FDI out of a country.

d)

D) amount of foreign direct investment made by domestic companies over a given

period of time.

126.

A country's ________ accounts keep track of both its payments to and its

receipts from other countries.

a)

A) current

b)

B) offshore

c)

C) balance-of-payments

d)

D) currency

127.

A purely domestic capital market faces the problem of

a)

A) foreign exchange risk.

b)

B) limited liquidity.

c)

C) lack of regulation.

d)

D) deregulated markets.

128.

Developing nations currently account for ________ of FDI in the form of

cross-border mergers and acquisitions.

a)

A) well over half

b)

B) about one-third or less

c)

C) about 50 percent

d)

D) the largest share

129.

Market makers are

a)

A) financial service companies that connect investors and borrowers.

b)

B) nonbank financial institutions who want to invest money.

c)

C) high net worth individuals with surplus cash to reinvest.

d)

D) those who want to borrow money including individuals, companies, and

governments.

130.

Host country citizens that are employed by an MNE following an FDI are an

example of

a)

A) an internality.

b)

B) a direct effect.

c)

C) an externality.

d)

D) an indirect effect.

131.

An Italian car manufacturer purchases a U.S. producer of car tires. This is

an example of

a)

A) an acquisition.

b)

B) an absolute advantage.

c)

C) a greenfield investment.

d)

D) a merger.

132.

________ requires a corporation to repay a predetermined portion of the

loan amount at regular intervals regardless of how much profit it is making.

a)

A) An equity loan

b)

B) A stock loan

c)

C) A debt loan

d)

D) A bonded loan

133.

Which of the following statements is true of debt loans?

a)

A) Management has the discretion in paying the amount to investors.

b)

B) Debt loans should be repaid at regular intervals.

c)

C) Returns from debt loans are variable in nature.

d)

D) Corporations need not pay back the debt loans if they incur losses.

134.

Which of the following statements is true about the growth of foreign

direct investment in the world economy over the last few decades?

a)

A)FDI has experienced a slower growth than world output.

b)

B) FDI has accelerated faster than world trade growth.

c)

C) FDI has remained the same over the past few decades.

d)

D) FDI has dropped dramatically.

135.

FDI occurs when a firm

a)

A) ships its products from one country to another.

b)

B) invests directly in facilities to produce a product in a foreign country.

c)

C) invests in the shares of another company operating in the same country.

d)

D) grants permission to another company in a different country to use its brand name.

136.

Concerns about national sovereignty in the EU have been a major

impediment to economic integration.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

137.

In a customs union, trade barriers are eliminated among member

countries, and each country maintains its own external trade policies.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

138.

A key benefit resulting from the adoption of the euro is the ability to

compare prices across member markets.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

139.

The European Union is an example of a perfect economic union.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

140.

Once the barriers to trade and investment are removed, companies are able

to realize cost economies by centralizing production in key locations and

producing a standardized product for a single multiple-country market.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

141.

Since its establishment, the euro has had a stable trading history.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

142.

Charlyce lives in a country where there are no barriers to the trade of goods

and services. This is called a free trade area.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

143.

Because of the fact that everyone benefits from economic integration, it is

easy to achieve and sustain.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

144.

A central reason for the establishment of the EU was the devastation of

Western Europe during two world wars and the desire for a lasting peace.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

145.

Political turmoil in several African nations has persistently impeded any

meaningful progress in economic integration.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

146.

A benefit to companies of economic integration is the opportunity to

centralize their production and reduce costs.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

147.

Establishment of the euro created the largest currency zone in the world,

replacing the position the U.S. dollar had held for decades.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

148.

A regional free trade agreement will benefit the world only when the

amount of trade it creates exceeds the amount of trade it diverts.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

149.

The Council of the European Union is responsible for proposing EU

legislation, implementing it, and monitoring compliance with EU laws by

member states.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

150.

Firms outside of trading areas run the risk of being shut out of the single

market by the creation of a

a)

A) "trade fortress."

b)

B) contracting economy.

c)

C) single-market zone.

d)

D) destabilized economy.

151.

Which is the most enduring free trade area in the world?

a)

A) Central America Free Trade Association (CAFTA)

b)

B) European Free Trade Association (EFTA)

c)

C) Association of Southeast Asian Nations (ASEAN)

d)

D) North American Free Trade Association (NAFTA)

152.

From least integrated to most integrated, the levels of economic

integration are a:

a)

A) common market, a free trade area, an economic union, a customs union, and a

political union.

b)

B) free trade area, a customs union, a common market, an economic union, and

a political union.

c)

C) customs union, a free trade area, a common market, a political union, and an

economic union.

d)

D) common market, an economic union, a customs union, a free trade area, and a

political union.

153.

Which of the following is a reason Turkey is not yet a member of the EU?

a)

A) Only about 10 percent of Turkey's international trade is with the EU.

b)

B) There are concerns over human rights issues in the country.

c)

C) The country has yet to form a customs union with the EU.

d)

D) Turkey has a weak economy.

154.

Which level of economic integration eliminates trade barriers between

member countries and adopts a common external trade policy?

a)

A) political union

b)

B) customs union

c)

C) common market

d)

D) economic union

155.

________ involves the free flow of products and factors of production

between member countries, the adoption of a common external trade

policy, a common currency, harmonization of members' tax rates, and a

common monetary and fiscal policy.

a)

A) An economic union

b)

B) A common market

c)

C) A customs union

d)

D) A free trade area

156.

Which of the following is true of ASEAN?

a)

A) China, India, South Korea, and Singapore are among its members.

b)

B) Collectively, the member states account for about 55 percent of world trade.

c)

C) It is slowly progressing toward establishing a free trade zone.

d)

D) It has been successful in fulfilling its basic objective of fostering freer trade

between member countries.

157.

Which of the following is a reason the European Union is considered an

imperfect economic union?

a)

A) Factors of production are not allowed to move freely between member

countries.

b)

B) Not all members of the union have adopted the euro.

c)

C) Almost all markets are heavily regulated.

d)

D) Products and services are not allowed to move freely between member

countries.

158.

________ has no barriers to trade between member countries, includes a

common external trade policy, and allows factors of production to move

freely between members.

a)

A) An economic union

b)

B) A common market

c)

C) A customs union

d)

D) A full political union

159.

Which feature of an economic union differentiates it from a common

market?

a)

A) Free flow of products and factors of production between member countries

b)

B) a common monetary and fiscal policy

c)

C) a common external trade policy toward nonmembers

d)

D) ability of factors of production to move freely between members

160.

If $1 bought more yen with a spot exchange than with a 30-day forward

exchange, it indicates the dollar is expected to depreciate against the yen

in the next 30 days. When this occurs, we say the dollar is selling at a

premium on the 30-day forward market.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

161.

Governments allow convertibility to preserve their foreign exchange

reserves.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

162.

The current system of foreign exchange is a mixed system of government

intervention and speculative activity.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

163.

If the spot rate is $1 = 120, and the 30-day forward rate is $1 = ×130, the

dollar is selling at a discount in the forward market.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

164.

The gold standard called for fixed exchange rates against the U.S. dollar.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

165.

The international monetary system refers to the institutional arrangements

that govern exchange rates.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

166.

When Krista traveled from the United States to England, she had to change

her money from dollars into pounds. Krista was participating in the

currency exchange market.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

167.

To minimize the risk of an unanticipated change in exchange rates, a

company can protect itself by entering into a forward exchange contract.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

168.

The value of a currency is determined by the interaction between the

demand and supply of that currency relative to the demand and supply of

other currencies.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

169.

The purchasing power parity (PPP) theory is a strong predictor of short-run

movements in exchange rates covering time spans of five years or less.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

170.

A country that introduces a currency board commits itself to converting its

domestic currency on demand into another currency at a fixed exchange

rate.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

171.

The foreign exchange market converts the currency of one country into

that of another country.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

172.

Fixed exchange rates lead to speculation and uncertainty in the value of currencies.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

173.

Implementing a fixed exchange rate regime increases the price inflation in countries.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

174.

Carry trade is nonspeculative in nature.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

175.

Market forces have produced a stable dollar exchange rate under a floating

exchange rate regime.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

176.

The IMF does not expect governments to meet any obligations except to

pay back the money it borrows.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

177.

An exchange rate of €1 = $1.30 indicates that

a)

A) $1 is worth 1.30 euros.

b)

B) one could get 1.30 euros for $1.

c)

C) one euro buys 1.30 dollars.

d)

D) one euro buys 0.77 dollars.

178.

Which of the following is an advantage of using the gold standard?

a)

A) The standard makes sure that goods are not priced out from markets due to

inflation.

b)

B) The standard does not require a commitment from a nation to maintain its

currency's value.

c)

C) The standard effectively prevents the devaluation of currencies across the world.

d)

D) The standard contains a powerful mechanism for achieving balance-of-trade equilibrium by all countries.

179.

A pair of shoes costs £40 in Britain. An identical pair costs $50 in the

United States when the exchange rate is £1 = $1.50. Which of the following

is correct?

a)

A) The United States offers a better deal.

b)

B) The deal is the same in both countries.

c)

C) Britain offers a better deal.

d)

D) A trader can make money by buying the shoes in Britain and selling in the United

States at $50.

180.

________ arises from volatile changes in exchange rates.

a)

A) Translational exposure

b)

B) Foreign exchange risk

c)

C) Economic exposure

d)

D) Transactional exposure

181.

When a tourist goes to a bank in a foreign country to convert money into

the local currency, the exchange rate used is the

a)

A) currency swap rate.

b)

B) forward rate.

c)

C) carry trade.

d)

D) spot rate.

182.

Which of the following arguments is in favor of floating exchange rates?

a)

A) A country's ability to expand or contract its money supply should be limited by

the need to maintain exchange rate parity.

b)

B) Maintaining balance of trade equilibrium is not in the best interest of a country.

c)

C) Countries can isolate themselves from uncertainties when they trade using a mutually agreed on exchange rate.

d)

D) Governments can restore monetary control by removing the obligation to

maintain exchange rate parity.

183.

The ________ helps consumers compare the relative prices of goods and

services in different countries.

a)

A) interest rate

b)

B) GDP growth rate

c)

C) exchange rate

d)

D) tariff rate

184.

The rate at which one currency is converted into another is known as the

a)

A) exchange rate.

b)

B) currency swap rate.

c)

C) fluctuation rate.

d)

D) carry over rate.

185.

________ are reported on a real-time basis on many financial websites and

are continually changing—their value being determined by supply and

demand for that currency relative to others.

a)

A) Spot exchange rates

b)

B) Currency swaps

c)

C) Forward exchange rates

d)

D) Future exchange rates

186.

International businesses use foreign exchange markets for many reasons.

Which of the following is one of these reasons?

a)

A) to receive payments from domestic investors that are in local currencies

b)

B) to pay a foreign company for its products or services in its native country's

currency

c)

C) to invest for short terms in money markets when they have spare cash

d)

D) to cover themselves from all risks involved in currency speculation

187.

What was the World Bank's initial mission?

a)

A) implementing a rigid fixed exchange rate regime

b)

B) promoting the gold standard across the world

c)

C) providing low-interest loans to help finance the building of Europe's economy

d)

D) implementing a flexible fixed exchange rate regime

188.

What are the two main functions of the foreign exchange market?

a)

A) trading foreign company equities and converting currency

b)

B) reducing currency volatility and setting interest rates

c)

C) insuring companies against interest rate risk and enabling imports and exports

d)

D) converting currency and providing some insurance against foreign exchange risk

189.

Gold par value refers to the

a)

A) ratio of the price of gold in a currency to the price of gold in U.S. dollars.

b)

B) amount of a currency needed to purchase one ounce of gold.

c)

C) ratio of price of gold in a currency to the price of gold in euros.

d)

D) amount of gold required to equal the reference currency that a nation is using.

190.

Products sell well when their attributes match consumer needs.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

191.

The HRM function, through its staffing, training, compensation, and

performance appraisal activities, has a critical impact upon the people,

culture, incentive, and control system elements of the firm's organization

architecture. Thus, HRM professionals have a critically important strategic role.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

192.

The most popular staffing policy is the ethnocentric approach.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

193.

Markets can be segmented in only one way—by sociocultural factors.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

194.

Labor unions generally prefer it if an international business keeps highly

skilled tasks in its home country and farms out only low-skilled tasks to

foreign plants.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

195.

A company that depends on mass media advertising to communicate its

marketing message to potential consumers is using a push strategy.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

196.

A citizen of Japan who moves to the United States to work at Microsoft

would be classified as an inpatriate.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

197.

The longer the distribution channel, the more intermediaries there are that

must be persuaded to carry the product for it to reach the consumer.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

198.

The four main differences between distribution systems worldwide are

retail concentration, channel length, channel exclusivity, and channel

quality.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

199.

Firms may choose an ethnocentric approach to staffing as opposed to a

polycentric approach because of the cost savings it promotes.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

200.

Cultural toughness refers to the relationship between the country of

assignment and how well an expatriate adjusts to a particular posting.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

201.

The set of choices the firm offers to its targeted markets is known as the

marketing mix.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

202.

A push strategy makes sense when distribution channels are short.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

203.

Four elements comprise the marketing mix: product attributes, distribution

strategy, communication strategy, and pricing strategy.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

204.

Base pay in most firms is set with regard to global market conditions.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

205.

In highly developed countries, in the context of communication, noise

tends to be low.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

206.

The geocentric approach is the most popular because it is the least

expensive to implement.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

207.

Most managers believe that knowledge of a foreign language is necessary

to succeed in an international posting.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE

208.

The structure of market segments may differ significantly from country to

country.

a)

TRUE

b)

FALSE