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EOC Review PBS Unit 2

Total questions: 48

Worksheet time: 36mins

Name
Class
Date
1.
Vital signs are...
a)
Any measurement of the body
b)
Vital measurements that tell if you are alive
c)
Measurements of the basic functions of the human body
2.

What are the four main vital signs?

a)

Temperature, pulse, size of pupils, and respirations

b)

Temperature, pain, pulse, and blood pressure

c)

Temperature, pulse, respirations, and blood pressure

d)

Consciousness, temperature, pulse, and respirations

3.

Which of the following is a definition of pulse?

a)

Synapses in the patient's brain that keep blood flowing in the body.

b)

The amount of oxygen being transported to body organs.

c)

The pressure of blood pushing against an artery as the heart beats.

d)

The amount of blood being circulated in the body.

4.

In DNA, adenine bonds with

a)
thymine
b)

guanine

c)

cytosine

d)

uracil

5.

The process of creating mRNA from a DNA template is called

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

transformation

d)

transduction

6.

A series of three mRNA bases that codes for an amino acid is called a

a)
codon
b)

restriction site

c)

nucleotide

d)

primer

7.

The process of reading mRNA to create a chain of amino acids (protein) is called

a)

translation

b)

transcription

c)

transformation

d)

transduction

8.

This macromolecule is a fat and stores energy as well as making cell membranes.

a)

Nucleic Acids

b)

Carbohydrates

c)

Lipids

d)

Proteins

9.

These macromolecules are a source of quick energy and are commonly known as sugars (like fructose and sucrose).

a)

Nucleic Acids

b)

Proteins

c)

Lipids

d)

Carbohydrates

10.

A glucometer is . . .

a)

wearable, monitors patient vital signs

b)

internal device, monitors blood glucose levels

c)

portable, battery-powered device, delivers insulin

d)

external device, measures blood glucose levels from a fingerstick drop of blood

11.

A CGM (continuous glucose monitoring) is . . .

a)

wearable, monitors patient vital signs

b)

internal device, monitors blood glucose levels

c)

portable, battery-powered device, delivers insulin

d)

external device, measures blood glucose levels from a fingerstick drop of blood

12.

When there is too much glucose in the blood [blank] cells release [blank].

a)

pancreatic, insulin

b)

glycogen, insulin

c)

liver, glycogen

d)

pancreatic, glycogen

13.

What is the difference between type 1 and type 2 diabetes?

a)

Type 2 does not produce insulin.

b)

Type 2 does not produce glucose.

c)

Type 1 does not produce insulin.

d)

Type 2 does produce glucose.

14.

When there is too little glucose in the blood, the __________ releases ___________ which causes glucose to be released from the stored glycogen in the liver.

a)

liver, glucagon

b)

pancreas, insulin

c)

pancreas, glucagon

d)

liver, insulin

15.

Which component of blood is responsible for carrying oxygen?

a)

plasma

b)

erythrocytes

c)

thrombocytes

d)

leukocytes

16.

A feedback loop where the body stops an action

a)

opposite

b)

neutral

c)

positive

d)

negative

17.

A feedback loop where the body continues an action

a)

opposite

b)

neutral

c)

positive

d)

negative

18.

Leukemia is a type of cancer. It is caused by.....

a)

Abnormally high platelet count

b)

Abnormal red blood cell shape

c)

Abnormal number of white blood cells

d)

Abnormal bleeding

19.

What are erythrocytes also called?

a)

Red Blood Cells

b)

White Blood Cells

c)

Platelets

d)

Plasma

20.

What are leukocytes also called?

a)

Red Blood Cells

b)

White Blood Cells

c)

Platelets

d)

Plasma

21.

What are thrombocytes also called?

a)

Red Blood Cells

b)

White Blood Cells

c)

Platelets

d)

Plasma

22.

Insertion, deletion, and substitution are all examples of a change in a genetic sequence which is also referred to as (a)

a)

Gene

b)

Amino Acid

c)

Ribose

d)

Mutation

23.

During transcription, this type of ribonucleic acid is responsible for copying the DNA and brining it out of the nucleus.

a)

tRNA

b)

mRNA

c)

rRNA

d)

dRNA

24.

Which of the following is the complementary mRNA sequence to this DNA strand: AACTGAA

a)

UUGACUU

b)

TTGACTT

c)

AACTGAA

d)

AACUGAA

25.
Choose the nucleotide sequence of the RNA strand that would be complementary to the following strand: 
GTAGTCA
a)
UATUAGA
b)
ACGACTG
c)
CAUCAGU
d)
CATCAGT
26.
Which amino acid is coded from the mRNA codon:
AGU
a)
Arginine
b)
Serine
c)
Leucine
d)
Glycine
27.
What amino acid is represented by the codon CAG?
a)
Aspartic Acid
b)
Histidine
c)
Glutamine
d)
Methionine
28.
The main function of tRNA is to...
a)
carry a message that, when translated, forms proteins
b)
form a portion of ribosomes
c)
string together complementary RNA and DNA strands
d)
bring amino acids from the cytoplasm to the ribosomes
29.

How many amino acids are coded for by this sequence of nucleotides:

ATG GGA ACT CCA

a)

4

b)

2

c)

6

d)

3

30.
a)
Anaphase
b)
Cytokinesis
c)
Telophase
d)
Metaphase
31.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Interphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Metaphase
32.
a)
Cytokinesis
b)
Anaphase
c)
Telophase
d)
Prophase
33.
In mitosis, the two resulting cells are
a)
different from the starting cell and identical to each other.
b)
different from the starting cell and different from each other.
c)
identical to the starting cell and different from each other.
d)
identical to the starting cell and identical to each other.
34.
Cells spend 90% of their time in this stage of the cell cycle. This is the reason you would see most cells in this stage if viewed under a microscope.
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Interphase
35.
The sister chromatids of each chromosome are separated (come apart) and move to opposite ends of the cell. Name that Stage!
a)
Prophase
b)
Metaphase
c)
Anaphase
d)
Telophase
36.
DNA is copied in the S part of this stage. Name that Stage!
a)
Interphase
b)
Prophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Anapahse
37.
Nucleolus and nuclear membrane start to disappear, chromatin condenses into chromosomes, and spindle fibers start to form. Name that Stage!
a)
Interphase
b)
Prophase
c)
Metaphase
d)
Anaphase
38.
How many chromosomes do human body cells have?
a)
23
b)
46
c)
92
d)
None of these
39.

Adenine & Guanine are known as:

a)

purines

b)

pyrimidines

c)

nucleic acids

d)

amino acids

40.
In RNA, Uracil pairs with ______. 
a)
cytosine
b)
adenine
c)
guanine
d)
thymine
41.
Homozygous is when...
a)
the alleles are the same
b)
the alleles are different
c)
the alleles are absent
d)
the alleles are present
42.
Heterozygous is when...
a)
the alleles are the same
b)
the alleles are different
c)
the alleles are absent
d)
the alleles are present
43.
In a heterozygous genotype, the ___________ allele takes over in the phenotype.
a)
recessive
b)
dominant
c)
lower case letter
d)
both 
44.
Which of the following is a phenotype?
a)
Aa
b)
black hair
c)
heterozygous genes
d)
mutated DNA
45.
When cancer spreads to other tissues of the body, it is called...
a)
Metastasis
b)
Invasiveness
c)
Angiogenesis
d)
Chemotherapy
46.
What is the yellow dot in the middle of this picture? 
a)

Chromatid

b)

Chromosome 

c)

Centromere

47.
An example of a mutation where a piece of chromosome breaks off and attaches to another chromosome is called ___.
a)

trisomy

b)

translocation

c)

inversion

d)

deletion

48.

Full set of chromosomes of a cell arranged with respect to size, shape, and number.

a)

chromatin

b)

karyotype

c)

phenotype

d)

genotype

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