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Final Exam Review Quiz Ch. 1-3

Total questions: 57

Worksheet time: 32mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

Which of the following is NOT a common feature shared by all life forms?

a)

Made of a common set of chemical compounds

b)

Made up of cells

c)

Exist in populations that do not evolve over time

d)

Use a universal genetic code to build proteins

2.

What is the role of genetic information in living organisms?

a)

To provide energy for cellular processes

b)

To enable development, function, and reproduction

c)

To regulate the external environment

d)

To synthesize new cells from scratch

3.

What does cell specialization allow multicellular organisms to do?

a)

Decrease in size

b)

Become less efficient at gathering resources

c)

Get larger and become more efficient at gathering resources and adapting to specific environments

d)

Develop into single-celled organisms

4.

What can similar cell types develop into?

a)

Organ systems

b)

Atoms

c)

Tissues

d)

Single-celled organisms

5.

What do different tissue types develop into?

a)

Cells

b)

Atoms

c)

Organs

d)

Organ systems

6.

How are organs grouped in multicellular organisms?

a)

Into cells

b)

Into tissues

c)

Into atoms

d)

Into organ systems

7.

What is the hierarchy of biological organization from the simplest to the most complex?

a)

Atoms, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organisms

b)

Organisms, organ systems, organs, tissues, cells, atoms

c)

Cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, atoms, organisms

d)

Atoms, small molecules, large molecules, cells, tissues, organs, organ systems, organisms

8.

What is the term used in phylogenetic trees to describe the splits in branches?

a)

Node

b)

Branch

c)

Root

d)

Leaf

9.

What do the splits in the branches of a phylogenetic tree represent?

a)

The extinction of a species

b)

The evolution of a new species

c)

A division of one lineage into two

d)

The time period of a species

10.

What do the positions of the nodes on a phylogenetic tree indicate when a time scale is present?

a)

The genetic similarity between species

b)

The number of mutations accumulated

c)

The geographical distribution of species

d)

The times of the corresponding speciation events

11.

What process is depicted by the arrow pointing from DNA to RNA in the Central Dogma of Molecular Biology?

a)

Translation

b)

Transcription

c)

Reverse transcription

d)

DNA replication

12.

What is the final product in the Central Dogma of Molecular Biology?

a)

DNA

b)

RNA

c)

Amino acid

d)

Polypeptide

13.

In the central dogma of molecular biology, which process directly leads to the formation of a polypeptide?

a)

DNA replication

b)

Transcription

c)

Reverse transcription

d)

Translation

14.

Why are the covalent bonds in water considered polar?

a)

The electrons are shared equally between the oxygen and hydrogen atoms.

b)

The oxygen atom has a lower electronegativity than the hydrogen atoms.

c)

The electrons shared in the bonds of water are shared unequally because they are more attracted to the nucleus of the oxygen atom than to those of the hydrogen atoms.

d)

The hydrogen atoms share their electrons with each other, excluding the oxygen atom.

15.

What is indicated by the symbol δ+ on the hydrogen atoms in the diagram?

a)

It indicates that the hydrogen atoms have a full positive charge.

b)

It represents the unshared pairs of electrons on the hydrogen atoms.

c)

It signifies that the hydrogen atoms have a partial positive charge due to the unequal sharing of electrons.

d)

It shows that the hydrogen atoms do not participate in bonding.

16.

What property of water allows it to move through plants effectively?

a)

Adhesion

b)

Cohesion

c)

Capillary action

d)

Transpiration

17.

Which property of water is responsible for the occurrence of surface tension?

a)

Adhesion

b)

Cohesion

c)

Evaporation

d)

Condensation

18.

Adhesion refers to the attraction of water molecules to:

a)

Other water molecules of the same type.

b)

Molecules of a different type.

c)

Gaseous molecules only.

d)

Solid surfaces only.

19.

What property of water is demonstrated by sweating and helps to cool the body?

a)

Surface tension

b)

High heat of vaporization

c)

Cohesion

d)

Adhesion

20.

What property of water prevents a wolf spider from sinking on the surface of water?

a)

Cohesion

b)

High heat of vaporization

c)

Surface tension

d)

Adhesion

21.

What is the specific heat of water?

a)

The amount of energy needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 2 degrees C

b)

The amount of energy needed to raise the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 1 degree C

c)

The amount of energy needed to lower the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 1 degree C

d)

The amount of energy needed to lower the temperature of 1 gram of a substance by 2 degrees C

22.

What happens to energy when water freezes?

a)

Energy is absorbed from the environment

b)

Energy is unchanged

c)

Energy is released to the environment

d)

Energy is converted to matter

23.

Why does ice require a lot of energy to melt?

a)

To create hydrogen bonds

b)

To break covalent bonds

c)

To break hydrogen bonds

d)

To increase kinetic energy

24.

What is a buffer in the context of chemistry?

a)

A strong acid or base that completely dissociates in solution.

b)

A mixture of a weak acid and its corresponding base that stabilizes pH.

c)

A solution that changes pH significantly when an acid or base is added.

d)

A chemical reaction that produces carbonic acid exclusively.

25.

What happens when an acid is added to a buffered solution?

a)

All the H+ ions from the acid remain in solution, increasing the pH.

b)

The buffer neutralizes all the added acid, forming water and salt.

c)

The buffer reacts to use up some of the H+ ions, minimizing pH change.

d)

The buffer increases the acidifying effect of the added acid.

26.

Why is the carbonic acid/bicarbonate buffering system important in the blood?

a)

It increases the oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood.

b)

It prevents significant changes in pH that could disrupt blood's ability to carry oxygen.

c)

It ensures complete neutralization of acids and bases in the blood.

d)

It causes the blood to change pH rapidly in response to metabolic activity.

27.

What type of reaction is used to form peptide bonds in proteins?

a)

Hydrolysis reaction

b)

Condensation reaction

c)

Oxidation reaction

d)

Reduction reaction

28.

Which type of linkage is formed in carbohydrates during the polymerization process?

a)

Peptide bonds

b)

Glycosidic linkages

c)

Ester linkages

d)

Phosphodiester bonds

29.

What is the byproduct of a condensation reaction between monomers?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Carbon dioxide

c)

Water

d)

Hydrogen peroxide

30.

During hydrolysis, what happens to the covalent bond between monomers?

a)

It is strengthened.

b)

It is unchanged.

c)

It is broken.

d)

It is converted into an ionic bond.

31.

What is added during a hydrolysis reaction to break down polymers?

a)

Oxygen

b)

Water

c)

Carbon dioxide

d)

Hydrogen peroxide

32.

What type of bond is formed in lipids during the polymerization process?

a)

Peptide bonds

b)

Glycosidic linkages

c)

Ester linkages

d)

Phosphodiester bonds

33.

What type of bond is formed in nucleic acids during the polymerization process?

a)

Peptide bonds

b)

Glycosidic linkages

c)

Ester linkages

d)

Phosphodiester bonds

34.

What is the functional group labeled "H3N+" in the amino acid structure known as?

a)

Carboxyl group

b)

R group

c)

Amino group

d)

Alpha carbon

35.

Which part of the amino acid structure is variable among different amino acids?

a)

Alpha carbon

b)

Amino group

c)

Carboxyl group

d)

Side chain (R group)

36.

What is the functional group labeled "COO-" in the amino acid structure known as?

a)

Amino group

b)

Alpha carbon

c)

R group

d)

Carboxyl group

37.

What are polypeptides?

a)

Short polymers of amino acids

b)

Lipid molecules

c)

Longer polymers of amino acids

d)

Single amino acids

38.

How do amino acids bond together to form proteins?

a)

By ionic bonds

b)

By hydrogen bonds

c)

By peptide linkages in a condensation reaction

d)

By disulfide bridges

39.

What happens to a protein when it is heated?

a)

It becomes more stable.

b)

It is said to be denatured.

c)

Its primary structure breaks down.

d)

It transforms into a different protein.

40.

What does the return of some proteins to normal tertiary structure upon cooling demonstrate?

a)

That proteins can only function at low temperatures.

b)

That tertiary structure is not important for protein function.

c)

That the information to specify protein shape is in the primary structure.

d)

That heating permanently alters proteins.

41.

What is the general formula for carbohydrates?

a)

(C2H4O2)n

b)

(C1H2O1)n

c)

(C6H12O6)n

d)

(C5H10O5)n

42.

What is one of the primary functions of carbohydrates in cells?

a)

To act as genetic material

b)

To transport stored energy

c)

To serve as a catalyst for reactions

d)

To provide pigment for coloration

43.

Carbohydrates often form which of the following structures in organisms?

a)

Intracellular structures such as mitochondria

b)

Extracellular structures such as cell walls

c)

Subcellular structures such as ribosomes

d)

Intercellular structures such as synapses

44.

How do the names of most carbohydrates typically end?

a)

-ase

b)

-ose

c)

-ide

d)

-ate

45.

What type of bond stabilizes the primary structure of proteins?

a)

Hydrogen bonds

b)

Disulfide bridges

c)

Peptide bonds

d)

Ionic bonds

46.

Which level of protein structure is characterized by the folding of polypeptides into specific shapes?

a)

Primary

b)

Secondary

c)

Tertiary

d)

Quaternary

47.

What type of interaction stabilizes the quaternary structure of proteins?

a)

Peptide bonds

b)

Hydrogen bonds, disulfide bridges, hydrophobic interactions; ionic bonds

c)

Hydrogen bonds only

d)

Disulfide bridges only

48.

Which of the following is not a secondary structure of proteins?

a)

α Helix

b)

β Pleated sheet

c)

Disulfide bridge

49.

What is the secondary structure of proteins primarily stabilized by?

a)

Peptide bonds

b)

Hydrogen bonds

c)

Disulfide bridges

d)

Hydrophobic interactions

50.

What is the primary function of fats and oils in the context of lipids?

a)

Capture light energy in plants

b)

Structural role in cell membranes

c)

Store energy

d)

Act as pigments in plants

51.

What role do phospholipids play in biological systems?

a)

Store energy

b)

Capture light energy in plants

c)

Structural role in cell membranes

d)

Act as enzymes in metabolic reactions

52.

Which of the following lipids are involved in capturing light energy in plants?

a)

Fats and oils

b)

Phospholipids

c)

Carotenoids and chlorophylls

d)

Steroids

53.

What is the primary characteristic that defines lipids?

a)

Their solubility in water

b)

Their insolubility in water

c)

Their ability to dissolve vitamins

d)

Their electrical conductivity

54.

Which of the following is a function of steroids and modified fatty acids?

a)

Providing thermal insulation

b)

Repelling water

c)

Acting as hormones and vitamins

d)

Providing electrical insulation

55.

What role does animal fat play according to the text?

a)

It provides electrical insulation.

b)

It repels water and slows evaporation.

c)

It acts as hormones and vitamins.

d)

It provides thermal insulation.

56.

What is the function of the lipid coating around nerves?

a)

It provides thermal insulation.

b)

It repels water and slows evaporation.

c)

It provides electrical insulation.

d)

It acts as hormones and vitamins.

57.

What is the purpose of oil and wax on skin, fur, and feathers?

a)

They provide electrical insulation.

b)

They provide thermal insulation.

c)

They act as hormones and vitamins.

d)

They repel water and slow evaporation.