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Phys Final Chp 8-13

Total questions: 87

Worksheet time: 44mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

The ancient Greeks developed a concept of matter that stated that all matter was composed of very small indivisible particles called

a)

protons

b)

elements

c)

electrons

d)

atoms

2.

Using a Cathode Ray Tube with deflecting plates, J.J. Thomson discovered a fundamental subatomic particle called a(n)

a)

proton

b)

neutron

c)

electron

d)

ion

3.

The fundamental charge of an electron was discovered by

a)

J.J. Thomson

b)

Robert Millikan

c)

Ernest Rutherford

d)

Niels Bohr

4.

Rutherford studied the nature of matter by investigating how alpha particles interacted with thin gold foil. He discovered that

a)

nearly all of the alpha particles passed through the foil undeflected.

b)

some alpha particles were widely deflected and even were scattered backwards by the nuclei of the atoms in the foil.

c)

most of the mass of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus.

d)

all of the above are true.

5.

The number of protons in an atom is called the

a)

atomic number

b)

atomic weight

c)

mass number

d)

isotope number

6.

Isotopes of an element have

a)

different number of protons but the same number of neutrons.

b)

the same number of protons and neutrons.

c)

the same number of protons but different number of neutrons.

d)

the same atomic weight.

7.

Uranium, ^235U, has

a)

92 protons, 143 neutrons, and 92 electrons.

b)

235 protons, 92 electrons and 143 electrons.

c)

143 protons, 235 neutrons, and 143 electrons.

d)

143 protons, 143 neutrons and 92 electrons.

8.

Which of the following statements does NOT describe Bohr’s model of the atom?

a)

Electrons can be located anywhere within the atom outside of the nucleus.

b)

Electrons in a given orbit do not emit radiation.

c)

Electrons must “leap” from orbit to orbit.

d)

Electrons can be treated as particles.

9.

Compare the quantum mechanics model of the atom to the Bohr model of the atom.

a)

Quantum mechanics considers the wave behavior of the electron while the Bohr model considers the particle nature of the electron.

b)

As long as electrons remain in its orbit it emits no radiation.

c)

The location of the particle is known in the Bohr model. In the quantum mechanics model, the electrons position is defined in probability terms.

d)

The Bohr model could not be used for larger atoms.

e)

All of the above statements are valid.

10.

How much energy must an electron absorb to jump from level n = 1 to level n = 3?

a)

1.51 eV

b)

12.1 eV

c)

13.6 eV

d)

15.1 eV

e)

Electrons cannot jump two levels at once.

11.

What is similar about the Bohr model of the atom and the quantum mechanics model? Both consider

a)

electrons to be a particle in a definite position at a given time.

b)

electrons to emit a photon when moving from a higher state to a lower state.

c)

electrons to be particles moving in circular orbits.

d)

electrons to be spread out in space that can be described by quantum numbers.

12.

What is the difference between a hydrogen atom in the ground state and one in an excited state?

a)

Electrons in ground states cannot leave allowed orbits.

b)

Ground state has electrons in lowest possible energy state; excited states have electrons with higher energies.

c)

Electrons must acquire energy to move from excited state to ground state.

d)

Electrons lose energy when moving from a ground state to an excited state.

13.

Einstein and Planck recognized the dual nature of light when studying the energy of light. Who recognized that this same dual nature could be applied to matter also?

a)

Einstein and Planck

b)

Bohr

c)

deBroglie

d)

Rutherford

14.

The quantum mechanics or wave mechanics model, which described the atom using a three dimensional system of waves, was developed by.

a)

Max Planck

b)

Albert Einstein

c)

Erwin Schrodinger

d)

Louis de Broglie

15.

When applied to the quantum mechanics, the Pauli Exclusion Principle states

a)

no two electrons can have the same four quantum numbers.

b)

no two atoms can have the same location.

c)

the location and momentum of an electron cannot be determined at the same time.

d)

the electrons are excluded from the nucleus.

16.

What is the fundamental difference between the Bohr model of an atom and the quantum mechanical model? Select all that apply.

a)

Bohr model considers electron to be a particle; quantum mechanics considers it to be a wave.

b)

Bohr model describes electron with 1 quantum number; quantum model uses 4 quantum.

c)

Bohr model describes electrons in orbits; quantum model describes electrons in orbitals.

17.

The electron configuration of sulfur is

a)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p3

b)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p4

c)

1s2 2s2 2p4

d)

1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p2

18.

Which family or group consists of the most reactive metals (alkali metals)?

a)

Group IA (1).

b)

Group IIA (2).

c)

Group VIIA (17).

d)

Group VIIIA (18).

19.

Which family or group is known as “salt formers”?

a)

Group IA (1), the alkali metals.

b)

Group IIA (2), the alkaline metals.

c)

Group VIIA (17), the halogens.

d)

Group VIIIA (18), the noble gases.

20.

Each period on the Periodic Table ends with the filing of an orbital, but it begins with

a)

eight electrons in a new orbital.

b)

four electrons in a new orbital.

c)

two electrons in a new orbital.

d)

a single electron in a new orbital.

e)

a varying number of electrons.

21.

The most important factor in the chemical behavior of an atom is the

a)

number of outer orbital electrons.

b)

number of electrons.

c)

number of neutrons.

d)

location on the periodic table.

22.

Non metals are elements that tend to gain electrons to form ions because they have ______ outer shell electrons.

a)

one to three

b)

four

c)

five to seven

d)

eight

23.

Which of the following statements are INCORRECT about natural radioactivity?

a)

Radioactive decay is spontaneous and is a natural process.

b)

Radioactive nuclei can spontaneously emit alpha and beta particles and gamma rays.

c)

All isotopes are radioactive nuclei.

d)

Radioactive nuclei change into nuclei of other elements.

e)

All are correct.

24.

Radioactivity was discovered by _____ when he/she exposed a photographic plate to a sample of uranium.

a)

Henri Becquerel

b)

Ernest Rutherford

c)

Marie Curie

d)

Wilhelm Roentgen

e)

Albert Einstein

25.

Which of the following is NOT considered a form of radioactivity?

a)

alpha particle

b)

beta particle

c)

gamma ray

d)

microwave

26.

______ is NOT a property associated with gamma rays.

a)

Electromagnetic radiation

b)

Short wavelength

c)

Long wavelength

d)

High energy

27.

The element, the atomic number, and the mass number of an atom with 13 protons, 13 electrons and 14 neutrons is

a)

Cobalt-27, 27 14Co, atomic number is 13 and the mass number is 27

b)

Aluminum-27, 27 13Al, atomic number is 13 and the mass number is 27.

c)

Aluminum-26, 26 13Al, atomic number is 14 and the mass number is 26.

d)

Silicon-27, 27 14Si, atomic number is 14 and the mass number is 27.

28.

Since protons have a like charge, they repel each other. However, in the nucleus the protons are closely packed together. For this to occur, there must be some other force present in the nucleus. This force is called

a)

the electromagnetic force

b)

the strong nuclear force

c)

gravitational force

d)

the Grand Unified force

29.

Based upon nuclear stability, which of the following are correct and why?

a)

226 88Ra is radioactive because the atomic number is greater than 83.

b)

76 33As, is radioactive because this isotope has an odd number of protons and neutrons (33 protons and 43 neutrons).

c)

206 82Pb is not radioactive because this isotope has 82 protons and an even number of neutrons.

d)

All are correct statements.

30.

Concerning the penetrating capability of alpha, beta and gamma emissions, which of the following are listed correctly from least to most penetrating capability?

a)

Alpha, Beta, Gamma

b)

Beta, Alpha, Gamma

c)

Gamma, Alpha, Beta

d)

Gamma, Beta, Alpha

e)

All of these penetrate about the same amount.

31.

Which of the following is a valid statement concerning Gamma emission?

a)

Both the mass number and the atomic number change.

b)

The mass number changes but not the atomic number.

c)

The atomic number changes but not the mass number.

d)

Neither the mass number nor the atomic number change.

32.

After the isotope 234U undergoes 2 alpha emissions, the resulting isotope will be

a)

226U.

b)

226Ra.

c)

242Pu.

d)

230Th.

33.

If the isotope 234Th undergoes one beta emission, the resulting isotope will be

a)

234Pa.

b)

238U.

c)

230Ra.

d)

206Pb.

34.

The time required for one half of a sample of an unstable nuclei to decay to a different nuclei is

a)

its half-life.

b)

never constant for a given isotope.

c)

a very long time for all isotopes.

d)

is not related to the rate at which the nuclei decay.

35.

When Rutherford found that a few of a stream of alpha particles fired at a thin layer of gold foil were widely deflected, he concluded that

a)
  • atoms are solid, with spaces between them.

b)

the positive charge in an atom is concentrated in a tiny nucleus.

c)
  • atoms are electrically neutral.

d)
  • gold was an element, not a compound as previously believed.

36.

Protons are so much more massive than electrons that you can neglect the mass of electrons when determining the total mass of an atom.

a)

True

b)

False

37.

J. J. Thomson reasoned that cathode rays were really charged particles because

a)

a magnet deflected cathode rays.

b)
  • cathode rays formed only when the air was pumped out of a discharge tube.

c)
  • the cathode rays were attracted to the anode.

d)
  • the properties of the cathode rays depended on the cathode material.

38.

Protons and neutrons have about the same mass.

a)

True

b)

False

39.

J.J. Thomson discovered that cathode rays were really a stream of electrons.

a)

True

b)

False

40.

Identify the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in an atom of 19 9F

a)
  • 9 protons, 19 neutrons and 9 electrons

b)

9 protons, 10 neutrons and 9 electrons

c)
  • 10 protons, 9 neutrons and 10 electrons

d)
  • 9 protons, 10 neutrons and 10 electrons

41.

The atomic number of an element is the total number of protons and neutrons in the nucleus.

a)

True

b)

False

42.

Neutrally charged atoms of a given element all have the same

a)

number of protons.

b)

all of the answers are correct.

c)

number of electrons.

d)

atomic number.

43.

The atomic number of an element is the number of

a)

all the particles in the atom.

b)

protons and electrons.

c)

protons.

d)

protons and neutrons.

44.

Rutherford concluded from his calculations that the volume of an atom

a)
  • is filled with protons, neutrons and electrons.

b)
  • is mostly protons, with electrons revolving around the outside.

c)

is mostly empty space.

d)

is filled with electrons.

45.

Robert Millikan discovered that

a)
  • the electrons contained most of the mass of an atom.

b)
  • the charge to mass ratio of electrons was constant.

c)

the electron carries the smallest unit of electrical charge.

d)
  • the oil droplets all carried the same amount of charge.

46.

Protons and neutrons have about the same mass.

a)

True

b)

False

47.

Millikan found that all of the oil droplets in his apparatus carried a charge that was an integer multiple of one particular value.

a)

True

b)

False

48.

Atoms in an electrically charged incandescent gas

a)
  • absorb, rather than emit light.

b)
  • emit different frequencies of light depending on its temperature.

c)
  • emit all frequencies of light in a continuous spectrum.

d)

emit characteristic frequencies of light.

49.

Einstein proposed that electrons on the surface of a metal gradually absorb energy from photons until they have enough energy to leave the surface.

a)

True

b)

False

50.

The fact that four emitted wavelengths in the Balmer series fit a regular pattern was evidence supporting the idea that

a)
  • electrons were continuously losing energy.

b)

electrons could only gain or lose specific amounts of energy in hydrogen atoms.

c)
  • electrons could exist in only four energy states in a hydrogen atom.

d)
  • there must be four electrons in each hydrogen atom.

51.

An electron moves from one orbital to another only when it absorbs or emits energy.

a)

True

b)

False

52.

Niels Bohr's model of the hydrogen atom

a)

All of the answers are correct.

b)
  • accounted for the observed spectrum in hydrogen.

c)
  • held that electrons existed in allowed orbits and nowhere else.

d)
  • was controversial because it contradicted accepted principles of physics.

53.

Photons of which of the following colors of light possess the greatest amount of energy?

a)

blue

b)

green

c)

red

d)

yellow

54.

The quantum mechanical model of the atom differs from the Bohr model in that it

a)

considers the electron as a wave.

b)
  • considers the electron as a particle.

c)
  • states that electrons can only exist at specific distances from the nucleus.

d)
  • predicts the specific location of the electron in an atom.

55.

According to the quantum mechanical model, electrons are best imagined to exist in

a)

orbitals.

b)

wavy orbits.

c)

elliptical orbits.

d)

circular orbits.

56.

In the Bohr model of the atom, the energy state of an electron could be described with one number. The quantum mechanical model of the atom requires how many numbers to do the same?

a)

1

b)

it varies from atom to atom.

c)

2

d)

4

57.

The proposal that matter, like light, exhibits wavelike behavior was

a)
  • verified by physical measurements of a moving baseball.

b)

verified in diffraction experiments with a beam of electrons.

c)
  • never tested since it was known to be impossible.

d)
  • shown to be theoretically possible, but never verified by experiment.

58.

The energy of a photon of light emitted by an electron equals the

a)

difference in energy between two levels.

b)
  • energy of the ground state of the atom.

c)
  • energy of the level it just left.

d)
  • energy of the level it currently occupies.

59.

Heisenberg's uncertainty principle says that you cannot know the momentum or the position of an electron exactly.

a)

True

b)

False

60.

Is the mass number of an isotope a whole number?

a)

No, the mass number is the mass compared to the mass of carbon−12.

b)

Yes, it is a whole number because it is the sum of the number of protons, neutrons, and electrons in an atom.

c)

Yes, it is a whole number because it is the sum of the number of protons and neutrons in an atom.

d)

No, it can gain or lose electrons, so it cannot be a whole number.

61.

Elements in the same row of the periodic table exhibit similar chemical properties.

a)

True

b)

False

62.

The word halogen comes from the Greek, meaning salt-former.

a)

True

b)

False

63.

Which of the following differ between the members of the noble gas family? (Check all that apply.)

a)

mass of isotopes.

b)

atomic weight.

c)

atomic number.

64.

How are the isotopes of an element different?

a)

number of protons.

b)

mass number.

c)

number of electrons.

d)

atomic number.

65.

In the notation "2p4", the 4 refers to the

a)
  • number of electrons in a single 2p orbital.

b)
  • energy level of the electron.

c)
  • number of p orbitals in the 2nd energy level.

d)

number of electrons in the 2p sublevel.

66.

Why does the carbon−12 isotope have a whole-number relative mass but not the other isotopes?

a)

All isotopes have whole-number relative masses.

b)

Carbon−12 does not have a whole-number relative mass.

c)

Carbon−12 is assigned a relative mass of exactly 12.00, while the relative masses of other isotopes are obtained by comparison with this mass.

67.

The maximum number of electrons that can have the principal quantum number 2 in a given atom is

a)

4.

b)

it varies from atom to atom.

c)

8.

d)

2.

68.

A Geiger counter measures radiation indirectly by measuring

a)

electrons released by ionization.

b)

curies.

c)

speaker static.

d)

flashes of light.

69.

The threshold model proposes that under a certain level, your body can repair the damage produced by radiation.

a)

True

b)

False

70.

A measure of radiation that takes into account the possible biological damage produced by different types of radiation is called a

a)

roentgen.

b)

rem.

c)

curie.

d)

rad.

71.

The amount of radiation we are naturally exposed to during a year is nearly

a)

100 rem.

b)

150 rem.

c)

0.150 rem.

d)

1 rem.

72.

People who fly on airplanes receive roughly three times more background radiation of those of us who spend most of our time on the ground.

a)

True

b)

False

73.

Radiation can be measured indirectly by either an ionization counter or a scintillation counter. The most common ionization counter is a(n)

a)

Film badge.

b)

Geiger counter.

c)

X-ray film.

d)

Zinc sulfide detector.

74.

Which of the following radiation unit is based on activity of a radioactive source and not on the absorption of energy?

a)

curie

b)

radiation absorbed dose (rad)

c)

rem

d)

millisievert

75.

The amount of natural radiation, also called background radiation, that a typical person receives annually is

a)

over 1000 rem

b)

between 100 and 500 rem

c)

between 100 and 500 millirem

d)

so varied that no standard value can be obtained

76.

What is a unit of radiation used to measure radiation received by a material?

a)

Becquerel

b)

Sievert

c)

Curie

d)

Rad

77.

What is background radiation?

a)

radiation that rebounds, bouncing back

b)

radiation from natural sources that are a part of the environment

c)

radiation from rocks and soil

78.

What is the unit of radiation that is a measure of possible biological damage produced by different types of radiation?

a)

curie

b)

rad

c)

rem

d)

Gray

79.

The basic requirement for a fusion reaction is a

a)
  • temperature on the order of 100 million °C.

b)
  • dense concentration of hydrogen nuclei.

c)
  • confinement at 10 atmospheres of pressure for at least one second.

d)

All of the answers are correct.

80.

Besides U-235, another isotope that can readily undergo nuclear fission is

a)

U-238

b)

Th-230

c)

Pu-239

d)

Pb-210

81.

The mass of a nucleus is slightly greater than the sum of the masses of the individual protons and neutrons.

a)

True

b)

False

82.

Reactor control rods are made of a substance that

a)

reflect neutrons.

b)

slow down neutrons so they produce more fission.

c)

absorbs neutrons.

d)

emits neutrons.

83.

Nuclear power reactors cannot explode like an atom bomb because there is not enough of the fissionable U-235 in a reactor to maintain a chain reaction.

a)

True

b)

False

84.

The difference between the mass of individual nucleons and the actual mass of the nucleus is

a)

always zero because of the law of conservation of mass.

b)

the mass defect.

c)

not significant and can be ignored in nuclear reactions.

d)

is not related to the binding energy of the nucleus.

85.

Which of the following are NOT true about nuclear fission reactions?

a)

Nuclear fission reactions produce large amounts of energy from a small amount of fuel by splitting massive nuclei into smaller ones.

b)

Nuclear fission reactions release neutrons. The release of neutrons must be controlled in order to have a self-sustaining chain reaction.

c)

Fission products are radioactive, which leads to nuclear waste storage "problems."

d)

The critical mass of fuel is the condition when nuclear fission is out of control.

e)

All are correct.

86.

Through a series of nuclear reactions, the Sun converts 650 tons of hydrogen into 645 tons of helium every second. What happens to the other 5 tons?

a)

This mass is lost into space.

b)

The mass is converted into heavier elements like carbon.

c)

This mass is converted into energy.

d)

This mass returns to the Sun after it cools sufficiently.

87.

Using fusion reaction devices, there is enough deuterium on Earth to provide electricity for millions of years. Why aren’t these devices being used now?

a)

The reaction produces temperature in excess of 100 million oC, and no material can contain this.

b)

These reactions are only possible on the Sun.

c)

There is too much radioactive waste produced.

d)

The electricity produced is highly radioactive and must be neutralized.