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CP Bio Spring Exam Review

Total questions: 75

Worksheet time: 38mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

RNA contains the sugar:

a)

ribose

b)

deoxyribose

c)

glucose

d)

lactose

2.

Unlike DNA, RNA contains:

a)

adenine

b)

uracil

c)

phosphate groups

d)

thymine

3.

Which of the following are found in both DNA and RNA?

a)

ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine

b)

deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and guanine

c)

phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine

d)

phosphate groups, guanine, and thymine

4.

Which of the following is true?

a)

RNA is usually single-stranded.

b)

DNA is usually single-stranded.

c)

RNA contains uracil.

d)

DNA contains thymine.

5.

Which type of RNA brings the information in the genetic code from the nucleus to other parts of the cell?

a)

rRNA

b)

tRNA

c)

mRNA

d)

RNA polymerase

6.

Which molecules are involved in protein synthesis?

a)

transfer RNA, introns, and mutagens

b)

messenger RNA, introns, and ribosomal RNA

c)

ribosomal RNA, transfer RNA, and mutagens

d)

messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA

7.

From which molecules are mRNA molecules transcribed?

a)

tRNA

b)

rRNA

c)

DNA

d)

proteins

8.

What is produced during transcription?

a)

RNA molecules

b)

DNA molecules

c)

RNA polymerase

d)

proteins

9.

There are 64 codons and 20 amino acids. Which of the following is true?

a)

Several different codons can specify the same amino acid

b)

Each codon specifies a different amino acid

c)

Some amino acids have no link to a codon

d)

Each amino acid is specified by only one codon

10.

What happens during translation?

a)

Messenger RNA is made from a DNA code

b)

The cell uses a messenger RNA code to make proteins

c)

Transfer RNA is made from a messenger RNA code

d)

Copies of DNA molecules are made

11.

Genes contain instructions for assembling

a)

operons

b)

nucleosomes

c)

proteins

d)

mutagens

12.

Which is the correct sequence of the transfer of information in most organisms?

a)

protein to DNA to RNA

b)

RNA to DNA to protein

c)

DNA to RNA to protein

d)

RNA to protein to DNA

13.

In eukaryotes

a)

Transcription takes place in the cytoplasm, and translation takes place in the nucleus

b)

Transcription takes place in the nucleus, and translation takes place in the cytoplasm

c)

Transcription and translation both take place in the nucleus

d)

Transcription and translation both take place in the cytoplasm

14.

A mutation that involves one or a few nucleotides is called

a)

a. a mutagen.

b)

b. an inversion.

c)

c. a point mutation.

d)

d. a translocation.

15.

Compared to small cells, large cells have more trouble

a)

a. dividing.

b)

b. producing daughter cells.

c)

c. storing needed materials and waste products.

d)

d. moving needed materials in and waste products out.

16.

Which of the following happens when a cell divides?

a)

a. The cell’s volume increases.

b)

b. It becomes more difficult for the cell to get rid of wastes.

c)

c. Each daughter cell receives its own copy of the parent cell’s DNA.

d)

d. It becomes more difficult for the cell to get enough oxygen and nutrients.

17.

The process by which a cell divides into two daughter cells is called

a)

a. cell division.

b)

b. metaphase.

c)

c. interphase.

d)

d. mitosis.

18.

An advantage of sexual reproduction over asexual reproduction is that sexual reproduction

a)

a. takes less time.

b)

b. requires more time.

c)

c. provides genetic diversity.

d)

d. produces identical offspring.

19.

Which of the following is a phase of mitosis?

a)

cytokinesis

b)

interphase

c)

prophase

d)

S phase

20.

During which phase of mitosis do the chromosomes line up along the middle of the dividing cell?

a)

prophase

b)

telophase

c)

metaphase

d)

anaphase

21.

Which of the following represents the phases of mitosis in their proper sequence?

a)

prophase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase

b)

interphase, prophase, metaphase, telophase

c)

prophase, anaphase, metaphase, telophase

22.

What is the role of the spindle fibers during mitosis?

a)

They help separate the chromosomes

b)

They break down the nuclear membrane

c)

They duplicate the DNA

d)

They make the chromosomes visible

23.

The two main stages of cell division are called

a)

mitosis and interphase

b)

synthesis and cytokinesis

c)

the M phase and the S phase

d)

mitosis and cytokinesis

24.

During normal mitotic cell division, a parent cell that has four chromosomes will produce two daughter cells, each containing

a)

two chromosomes

b)

four chromosomes

c)

eight chromosomes

d)

sixteen chromosomes

25.

One difference between cell division in plant cells and in animal cells is that plant cells have

a)

centrioles

b)

centromeres

c)

a cell plate

d)

chromatin

26.

If an organism’s diploid number is 12, its haploid number is

a)

a. 12

b)

b. 6

c)

c. 24

d)

d. 3

27.

Gametes have

a)

a. homologous chromosomes

b)

b. twice the number of chromosomes found in body cells

c)

c. two sets of chromosomes

d)

d. one allele for each gene.

28.

Gametes are produced by the process of

a)

a. mitosis

b)

b. meiosis

c)

c. crossing-over

d)

d. replication

29.

Unlike mitosis, meiosis results in the formation of

a)

a. diploid cells

b)

b. haploid cells

c)

c. 2N daughter cells

d)

d. body cells

30.

What is formed at the end of meiosis?

a)

a. two genetically identical cells

b)

b. four genetically different cells

c)

c. four genetically identical cells

d)

d. two genetically different cells

31.

Which of the following assort independently?

a)

chromosomes

b)

linked genes

c)

multiple alleles

d)

codominant alleles

32.

The different forms of a gene are called

a)

traits

b)

pollinations

c)

alleles

d)

hybrids

33.

When Gregor Mendel crossed a tall plant with a short plant, the F1 plants inherited

a)

one allele from each parent.

b)

two alleles from each parent.

c)

three alleles from each parent.

d)

four alleles from each parent.

34.

If a pea plant’s alleles for height are tt, what is true of its parents?

a)

Both parents were tall.

b)

Both parents were short.

c)

Both parents contributed a recessive allele.

d)

Both parents contributed a dominant allele.

35.

A heterozygous tall pea plant is crossed with a short plant. The probability that an F1 plant will be tall is

a)

25%

b)

50%

c)

75%

d)

100%

36.

Organisms that have two identical alleles for a particular trait are said to be

a)

hybrid

b)

homologous

c)

homozygous

d)

dominant

37.

Roan cattle show codominance for the color of their hair. There are alleles for red hair and white hair. What would you expect a heterozygous roan bull to look like if the trait showed incomplete dominance instead?

a)

It would be red.

b)

It would be white.

c)

It would be spotted.

d)

It would be pink.

38.

Situations in which one allele for a gene is not completely dominant over another allele for that gene are called

a)

multiple alleles

b)

incomplete dominance

c)

polygenic inheritance

d)

multiple genes

39.

In rabbits, there are four different versions of the gene for coat color. What pattern of inheritance is this?

a)

incomplete dominance

b)

polygenic inheritance

c)

codominance

d)

multiple alleles

40.

Which of the following supports the claim that the environment can affect genetic traits?

a)

Oak trees get taller as they grow

b)

Hydrangea flower color varies with soil pH

c)

Dandelion plants are self pollinating

d)

Pine trees bear cones every other year

41.

Darwin noticed that many organisms seemed well suited to

a)

being preserved as fossils

b)

providing humans with food

c)

surviving in the environments in which they lived

d)

swimming from South America to the Galápagos Islands

42.

The species of finches that Charles Darwin found on different Galápagos Islands varied in certain structural adaptations. One of the most significant adaptations that Darwin noted was the

a)

similarities of the birds’ embryos

b)

birds’ different-shaped beaks

c)

length of the birds’ necks

d)

number of eggs in each bird’s nest

43.

Based on the adaptations Charles Darwin observed in finches and tortoises in the Galápagos, he wondered

a)

if species living on different islands had once been members of the same species

b)

if finches and tortoises had originated from the same ancestral species

c)

if all birds on the different islands were finches

d)

if all tortoises on the different islands were identical

44.

People of Charles Darwin’s time understood that fossils were

a)

preserved remains of ancient organisms

b)

available for every organism that ever lived

c)

unrelated to living species

d)

evidence for the evolution of life on Earth

45.

James Hutton’s and Charles Lyell’s work was important to Darwin because these scientists

a)

explained volcanoes and earthquakes

b)

explained all geologic events on Earth

c)

suggested that Earth was old enough for evolution to have occurred

d)

refuted the work of Lamarck, which was based on misunderstandings

46.

When a farmer chooses to breed the chickens that give the eggs, the farmers are following the principle of

a)

acquired characteristics

b)

descent with modification

c)

artificial selection

d)

natural selection

47.

According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, individuals who survive are the ones best adapted for their environment. Their survival is due to the

a)

possession of adaptations developed through use

b)

possession of inherited adaptations that maximize fitness

c)

lack of competition within the species

d)

choices made by plant and animal breeders

48.

Which statement about the members of a population that live long enough to reproduce is consistent with the theory of evolution by natural selection?

a)

They transmit characteristics acquired by use and disuse to their offspring

b)

They tend to produce fewer offspring than others in the population

c)

They are the ones that are best adapted to survive in their environment

d)

They will perpetuate unfavorable changes in the species

49.

Charles Darwin called the ability of an organism to survive and reproduce in its specific environment

a)

diversity

b)

fitness

c)

adaptation

d)

evolution

50.

According to Darwin’s theory of natural selection, the individuals that tend to survive are those that have

a)

characteristics their parents acquired by use and disuse

b)

characteristics that plant and animal breeders value

c)

the greatest number of offspring

d)

variations best suited to environmental conditions

51.

The hypothesis that all species are descended from common ancestors was proposed by

a)

James Hutton

b)

Jean-Baptiste Lamarck

c)

Thomas Malthus

d)

Charles Darwin

52.

Similar patterns of embryological development in different but related organisms are responsible for the formation of

a)

a. homologous structures.

b)

b. analogous structures.

c)

c. Hox genes.

d)

d. intermediate fossil forms.

53.

In organisms that reproduce sexually, most variation that can be inherited is due to

a)

a. mutations during gamete formation.

b)

b. polygenic traits.

c)

c. gene recombination during sexual reproduction.

d)

d. the effects of radiation.

54.

If a mutation introduces a new skin color in a frog population, which factor might determine whether the frequency of the new allele will increase?

a)

how many other alleles are present

b)

whether the mutation makes some frogs more fit for their environment than other frogs

c)

how many phenotypes the population has

d)

whether the mutation was caused by nature or by human intervention

55.

In genetic drift, the allele frequencies in a gene pool change because of

a)

mutations

b)

chance

c)

natural selection

d)

genetic equilibrium

56.

Genetic drift tends to occur in populations that

a)

are very large

b)

are small

c)

are formed from new species

d)

have unchanging allele frequencies

57.

What is the site of the Krebs cycle reactions?

a)

the cell membrane, which surrounds the cell

b)

the nucleus, the innermost part of the cell

c)

the matrix of the mitochondria

d)

the cytoplasm of the cell

58.

Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in cellular respiration?

a)

glycolysis → fermentation → Krebs cycle

b)

Krebs cycle → electron transport → glycolysis

c)

glycolysis → Krebs cycle → electron transport

d)

Krebs cycle → glycolysis → electron transport

59.

What are the reactants in the equation for cellular respiration?

a)

oxygen and lactic acid

b)

carbon dioxide and water

c)

glucose and oxygen

d)

water and glucose

60.

Cellular respiration is called an aerobic process because it requires:

a)

light

b)

exercise

c)

oxygen

d)

glucose

61.

Photosynthesis is to chloroplasts as cellular respiration is to:

a)

chloroplasts

b)

cytoplasm

c)

mitochondria

d)

nuclei

62.

The products of photosynthesis are the:

a)

products of cellular respiration

b)

reactants of cellular respiration

c)

products of glycolysis

d)

products of fermentation

63.

The Krebs cycle does NOT occur if:

a)

oxygen is present

b)

oxygen is not present

c)

glycolysis occurs

d)

carbon dioxide is present

64.

Which of the following is not part of cellular respiration?

a)

electron transport

b)

glycolysis

c)

Krebs cycle

d)

Calvin cycle

65.

What stores information in a cell?

a)

carbohydrates

b)

proteins

c)

lipids

d)

DNA

66.

During DNA replication, a DNA strand that has the bases GATCCA produces a strand with the bases:

a)

GATCCA

b)

GAUCCA

c)

CTAGGT

d)

TGCAAC

67.

Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA?

a)

deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine

b)

cytosine + phosphate group + guanine

c)

adenine + phosphate group + thymine

d)

deoxyribose + phosphate group + polymerase

68.

Because of base pairing in DNA, the percentage of thymine molecules in DNA is about equal to the percentage of adenine molecules.

a)

true

b)

false

69.

Which enzyme is responsible for unwinding and separating DNA strands for replication?

a)

Helicase

b)

Polymerase

c)

Nitrogenous

d)

Nuclease

70.

DNA is antiparallel. This means

a)

it is a double helix

b)

it has a sugar-phosphate backbone

c)

the top of one strand is the bottom of the other

d)

it contains a code of instructions

71.

The backbone of DNA is made up of

a)

nitrogen base

b)

sugar-phosphate

c)

nucleotide

d)

polymerase

72.

A trait that allows organisms to survive and reproduce better than others without the trait in a specific environment is an

a)

selection

b)

adaptation

c)

variation

d)

accommodation

73.

The Galápagos finches are adapted to their environment because they have

a)

not changed

b)

migrated

c)

evolved

d)

hibernated

74.

The major idea that Darwin presented in his book The Origin of Species was that

a)

species changed over time and never competed with each other

b)

animals changed, but plants remained the same

c)

elephants and bacteria changed constantly

d)

species changed over time by natural selection

75.

The formation of new species is called

a)

extinction

b)

embryology

c)

speciation

d)

microevolution