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Class Test

Total questions: 30

Worksheet time: 59mins

Name
Class
Date
1.

What is the term used to describe the gradual increase in project requirements that can negatively impact timelines and resources?

a)

Project expansion

b)

Scope creep

c)

Resource depletion

d)

Budget overrun

2.

Project scope management is an essential part of the project management process because it helps to:

a)

Minimize project documentation

b)

Reduce the need for stakeholder communication

c)

Ensure project success and meet stakeholder expectations

d)

Introduce more ambiguity and flexibility into the project plan

3.

Which one of the following is not a benefit of Project Charter

a)

Help prevent scope creep

b)
High-level project overview
c)

Links to the overall goal of the project and portfolio

d)
Detailed project plan
4.

Which Project Management process primarily help ensure that the final product aligns with user expectations?

a)

Requirement Gathering and validation

b)

Risk Analysis

c)

Project Schedule

d)

Budget Analysis

5.

A product this project will deliver must comply with local city and county regulations - What type of requirement is this?

a)

Functional Requirement

b)

Technical Requirement

c)

Common Requirements

d)

Business Requirements

6.

Requirements Engineering Process includes all of the following except

a)
Requirements Analysis
b)
Requirements Validation
c)

Requirements Tracking

d)

Requirements Bargaining

7.

Scope Elicitation is very important for a successful Project outcome EXCEPT?

a)

Scope Elicitation is used for better team management

b)

Provides a foundation for detailed planning and execution

c)

Minimizes scope creep

d)

Helps establish clear project goals and objectives

8.

Who are negative stakeholders?

a)

People who have no interest at all in the project

b)

Individuals or groups impacted by the project with not a positive view or opinion

c)

All Customers impacted by the project

d)
Those who are not affected by the project at all
9.

What is the exact document used to find which requirement came from which stakeholders?

a)

Requirements Traceability Matrix

b)
Stakeholder Identification Matrix
c)
Requirement Allocation Table
d)

Stakeholder Register

10.

When managing scope creep, effective communication with stakeholders should involve:

a)

Focusing solely on justifying why their requests will not be accommodated.

b)

Explaining the potential consequences of accepting the scope change.

c)

Avoiding any discussion of potential budget or timeline impacts.

d)

Implementing the change without prior stakeholder notification.

11.

In a project management scenario, the early warning signs that a project might be facing risks are called

a)

Vectors

b)

Triggers

c)

Pre-events

d)

Contingency events

12.

During the construction of a new software development project managed by Kesego, which of the following statements is false in regard to how risk will affect the project?

a)

A. Risk will continue to emerge during the lifetime of the project

b)

B. Risk should be monitored and managed as the project progresses

c)

C. Risk identification should be done only at the beginning of the project

d)

D. Risk identification is done throughout the project

13.
  • Stakeholder roles and interests change throughout a project including their role in risk management

a)

True

b)

False

14.

The Key processes of Project Risk Management are:

a)

Plan Risk Management, Identify Risks, Assess Risks, Mitigate Risks,Transfer Risks, and Document Outcomes.

b)

Identify Risks, Plan Risk Management, Evaluate Risks, Develop Risk Responses,Mitigate Risks, and

Document Results.

c)

Identify Risks, Perform only Qualitative Risk Validation, Develop Risk Response Strategies,Document Response Strategies, and Monitor Risk Responses.

d)

Plan Risk Management, ldentify Risks, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis, Plan Risk Responses, Implement Risk Responses,and Monitor Risks.

15.

Risk transference nearly always involves:

a)

Eliminating risk through beta testing.

b)

Policies and procedures for a response system.

c)

Accepting a lower profit if some activities overrun their budget.

d)

Payment of a risk premium to the party taking on the risk.

16.

How would one manage health and safety risks on a project?

a)

Prioritize risks.

b)

Work to legal health and safety standards.

c)

Alert everyone against possible hazards.

d)

All the above is correct.

17.

Which one of the following is part of a risk mitigation plan?

a)
Avoiding risk assessment
b)

Time and money are not spent in advance, but money is set aside to use when or as needed

c)

Time and money are spent in advance for a specific risk condition

d)

does not change the likelihood or consequence of risk – the aim is to control the consequence for a risk event that occured

18.

What does a Risk response plan primarily contain?

a)

Used for tracking project risks

b)

All the communications that relate to project risk management

c)

Historical risks timeline

d)
Strategies to address identified risks
19.
  • A risk score or rating does not represent the thresholds or classifications for risks.

a)

True

b)

False

20.

A bakery inspects cakes for decoration flaws after they are baked and decorated. What is this an example of?

a)

Quality Control

b)

Quality Circles

c)

Quality Assurance

d)

Quality Planning

21.

In the context of a manufacturing company aiming to enhance its product quality, the circular model developed by Walter Shewhart, known for being a pioneer in total quality management, is referred to as ________ as his version of continuous improvement.

a)

Six Sigma

b)

Employee Empowerment

c)

Plan-Do-Check-Act

d)

Benchmarking

22.

What is the primary goal of continuous improvement in project quality management for a software development team led by Kesego?

a)

To reduce the project duration

b)

To increase the project team's skills, including Charlotte and Liam

c)

To only enhance stakeholder satisfaction

d)

To improve processes and increase efficiency

23.

At what stage of the project life cycle are detailed quality requirements usually collected for Emma's new mobile app development project?

a)

Planning

b)

Closure

c)

Execution

d)

Initiation

24.

Projects that are completed under budget and on schedule are considered successful even if the deliverables are of low quality

a)
False
b)
True
25.

Which one of the below is an example of Cost of Conformance

a)

External failure costs

b)

Internal failure costs

c)

Prevention costs

d)

Scope management costs

26.

The root-cause analysis is also referred to as a fishbone diagram, cause and effect diagram or Ishikawa diagram

a)

True

b)

False

27.

What is the primary purpose of conducting a stakeholder analysis in project management?

a)

To determine the project budget

b)

To identify individuals, groups, or organizations that could impact or be impacted by the project

c)

To establish the project schedule

d)

To allocate project resources

28.

What does the term 'project deliverables' refer to?

a)

The measurable outcomes or results of a project

b)

The documentation created during the project

c)

The tools used to manage the project

d)

The meetings held throughout the project duration

29.

What is the primary purpose of a Risk Register in project management?

a)

To document the financial aspects of the risks

b)

To track the identified risks and their status throughout the project

c)

To assign tasks to project team members

d)

To serve as a contract between project stakeholders

30.

A quality cost associated with performing activities designed to prevent poor quality in products or services. Getting it right the first time!

a)

Prevention Cost

b)

Appraisal Cost

c)

Failure Cost

d)

Intangible Cost